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BOC > Healthcare Admin > Flashcards

Healthcare Admin Flashcards

1
Q

A concise statement that describes the ideal state to which an organization aspires

  • provider of the service
  • actual services provides
  • target clients
  • quality declaration that identifies aspirations for how audiences will perceive the program
A

vision statement

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2
Q

a written expression of an organizations philosophy, purposes and characteristics

  • help AT direct resources
  • inspire Ats to do a good job
  • action oriented
A

Mission Statement

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3
Q

Formal recognition indicating that a program meets certain prescribed quality standards

A

Accreditation

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4
Q

a data collection and appraisal technique designed to determine an organizations “weaknesses, opportunities, threats and strengths underlying planning”

A

WOTS UP analysis

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5
Q

defines organization activites in the short term, usually no longer than 2 years

A

operational planning

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6
Q

expresses an organization intended behavior relative to a specific program subjunctive
-not intended to answer detailed questions; road map (basic rules and principles)

A

Policies

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7
Q

a collection of steps designed to direct the most important tasks of an organization

  • injury prevention
  • injury rehab
  • injury recognition
  • organization & administration
A

processes

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8
Q

provided specific direction for members of an organization to follow
-procedure for discharge

A

procedure

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9
Q

the action that takes place in response to administrative problems.

  • calibration
  • which vendor? time of year?
A

practices

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10
Q

a method of graphically depicting the time line for interrelationships of different stages of a program

A

PERT (Program evaluation and review technique)

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11
Q

a graphic planning and control technique that maps discrete tasks on a calendar

A

Gannt charts

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12
Q

4 parts of the scope of the AT program

A

Athlete
Institution
Community
Clinical and corporate/industrial setting consideration

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13
Q

Rules from OSHA for AT Facility

A
  • NO cleats/game equipment
  • keep shoes off tables
  • shower before treatment
  • roughhousing and profanity not allowed
  • no food or tobacco
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14
Q

requies justification only for those expenses that exceed those of previous budget cycle
-results in falling behind due to prices of supplies rising faster than inflation

A

spending-ceiling model (incremental model)

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15
Q

financial crisis model; requires reallocation of institutional funds, resulting in reduced spending levels for some programs ( should identify areas that could be cut w/o serious impact)

A

spending-reduction model

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16
Q

requires justicication for every budget line item without reference to previous spending patterns; requires documentation of actual program needs and development of priorities

A

Zero based budgeting

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17
Q

expenditures and revenues are projected on a monthly basis, thereby providing an estimate of cash flow; most appropriate for large, well-established sports med clinics during economic certainty

A

fixed budgeting

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18
Q

requires adjustment of monthly expenditures so that they do not exceed revenues; rarely used by school-based programs (difficult to estimate costs in advance)

A

variable budgeting

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19
Q

allocates a fixed amount of money for an entire program without specifying how the money will be spent; gives freedom to spend where it is needed

A

lump sum budgeting

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20
Q

allocates a fixed amount of money for each sub-function of a program
-expendables, equipment repairs, etc

A

line item budgeting

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21
Q

allocates funds for discrete activities; not commonly used due to expense and difficultly of analyzing specific activity costs

A

performance budgeting

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22
Q

procedure to set organization or programmatic priorities based on identifies needs

  1. exploration
  2. gather info
  3. decision making
A

needs assessment

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23
Q
  • consider pooled buying for a quantity discount
  • tap into booster clubs
  • sponsorship
A

capital improvements

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24
Q

cannot be reused (tape, bandages, etc.)

A

expendable

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25
Q

can be reused (compression wraps, scissors, etc)

A

Nonexpendable

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26
Q

usually not removed from AT room (ice machine)

A

non-consumable capital

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27
Q

crutches, coolers, kits

A

consumable capital

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28
Q

document that provides vendors with the specifications for the bidding on the sale of goods and services

A

request for quotation

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29
Q

the process of bargaining (capital equipment)

  • price
  • supply
  • quality
  • shipping
  • support
A

Negotiations

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30
Q

formal or informal communication used for requesting authorization to purchase goods/services

A

requisition

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31
Q

a document that formalizes the terms of purchase and transmits the intentions of the buyer to purchase goods or services from a vendor

  • only do for over 200
  • individual item
A

purchase order

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32
Q

process of accepting delivery goods; should be immediately checks to make sure packing slip match contents; check for damage

A

receiving

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33
Q

what should be included in risk management plan:

A
  • security issues
  • fire safety
  • electrical and equipment safety
  • strategies for managing risks
  • risk identification
  • EAP
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34
Q

avoid risky activity (esp when neg consequences have high cost)

A

Avoidance

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35
Q

activities associated with high financial risk but low frequency (catastrophic sports injury) or lower financial risk but high frequency (fractures, joints needing surgery)

  • get insurance
  • waivers signed by athletes
A

transference

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36
Q

activities with an acceptable level of risk that are viewed as part of the cost of doing business
-program must account for risks in the program budget and establish reserve funds

A

retention

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37
Q

careful development, implementation, monitoring and eval of policies and procedures can reduces risks

A

reduction

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38
Q

making inferences regarding the risk of certain activities based on clinical practice and experience

A

real world observation

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39
Q

method is difficult to implement (time intensive, costly and frequently impractical)

A

inference from controlled experiments

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40
Q

plans should cover practices, games, and conditioning sessions, should be reviewed ANNUALLY

A

EAP

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41
Q
  1. List of personnel involved:
A

(roles, responsibilities, chain of command for decision making)

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42
Q
  1. procedures to be followed in event of an emergency
A

communication and transportation procedures

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43
Q
  1. phone numbers
A

911, ATs, physicians

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44
Q

What to say during emergency call info:

A
  1. type of emergency situation
  2. type of suspected injury
  3. present condition of athlete
  4. current assistance being given (CPR)
  5. location of telephone being used
  6. exact location of emergency
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45
Q
  1. make sure keys to gate are accessible, inform members of team, assign roles, carry contact info for athletes, eap should include procedures for spectators injury/illness
A

eap

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46
Q

the process of planning for human resource needs and identifying potential candidates to meet those needs

A

recruitment

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47
Q

criteria that predict how well a candidate will perform in a role

A

validity

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48
Q

consistency of staff selection procedures

A

reliability

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49
Q

a formal document that describes the qualifications, work content, accountability and scope of job

A

position description

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50
Q

a written description of the specific responsibilities a position holder will be accountable for within the organization

A

job description

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51
Q

a written description of the requirements or qualification a should have to fill a particular role in an organization

A

job specification

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52
Q

the process of direct observation of an employee’s work, with emphasis on measurement of specific behaviors, and the subsequent development of plans to re mediate deficiencies in performance

A

clinical supervision

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53
Q

identifies the type of work that ATs do and the amount of time they spend doing it
-logging activities of ATs at randomly selected times and analyzing the nature and quality of work they are doing

A

work sampling

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54
Q

emphasizes collaboration between supervisors and supervisees to help them solve problems and develop professionally

A

developmental supervision

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55
Q

emphasizes the use of formal authority and managerial prerogatives to improve employee efficiency and efficacy (focus on achieving goals and attainment of program missions); industrial setting

A

inspection production supervision

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56
Q

Joint committee on standards for education evaluation of 21 standards in 4 categories:

A
  1. Propriety
  2. Utility
  3. Feasibility
  4. Accuracy
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57
Q

standards intended to help ensure that process is legal and fair;

  • service orientation
  • formal evaluation guidelines
  • conflict of interest
  • access to personnel evaluation reports
  • interactions with evaluatees
A

propriety

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58
Q

standards intended to ensure usefulness of appraisal to workers, employers and others;

  • constructive orientation
  • defined uses
  • evaluator credibility
  • functional reporting
  • follow up
A

utility

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59
Q

standards intended to help foster practicality in the evaluation process;

  • practical procedures
  • political viability
  • fiscal viability
A

feasibility

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60
Q

standards intended to improve the validity and reliability of the process;

  • defined role
  • work environment
  • documentation of procedures
  • valid measurement
  • reliable measurement
  • systematic data control
  • bias control
  • monitoring evaluation systems
A

accuracy

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61
Q

temperature and humidity control:

A

max 0.75 ft/sec draft factor, 8-10 changes of air/hour, 40-50% humidity

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62
Q

lighting: foot candles?

A

illuminated at 30-50 foot candles at 4 ft above floor

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63
Q

taping table height

A

minimum of 36 inches

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64
Q

general treatment area requirments

A

30 inches between tables, electrical outlet, fluorescent light, and sliding drapes for every table

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65
Q

storage space?

A

80-100 square feet

-cool and dry at all times

66
Q

1996; helps employees transfer their health insurance when they switch employers, ensures that their health information will remain private and gives people access to their own healthcare admin

A

HIPAA; Health Insurance portability and accountability act

67
Q

1974; federal law requiring student authorization release education records to a third party and ensuring access for students to their records

A

FERPA; family education rights and privacy act; buckley amendment

68
Q

Common elements of the PPE; 9

A
  • health history
  • physicians
  • cardio
  • maturity assessment
  • ortho
  • wellness
  • special tests
  • sport disqualification
  • physical fitness testing
69
Q

evaluated pubic hair/genitalia development in boys and pubic hair/breast development in girls; facial hair and axillary hair
-stage 1: puberty not evident
-stage 5: full development
stage 3: crucial growth plates are 2-5x weaker than joint capsule and tendon attachments

A

Tanner staging

70
Q

organizes info around patients specific complaint

A

problem oriented medical record; POMR

71
Q

patients past history, any personal habits, list of pt probs with brief description of the plans implemented to ameliorate those probs

A

cover sheet

72
Q

organized by subjective and objective evaluation, assessment of pt problem, and development of a plan of treatment

A

SOAP notes

73
Q

medical record that registers a patients complaint date, the health care practitioners action and the patients response

A

focus charting

74
Q

type of medical record that notes only those patient responses that vary from predefined norms

A

charting by exception

75
Q

difficult to maintain confidentiality

A

computerized documentation

76
Q

method of recording the details of a patients assessments and treatments using a detailed prose-based format

A

narrative charting

77
Q

act of orally recording the details of a healthcare assessment or treatment for later transcription and filing

A

dictation

78
Q

how often should you regularly do inventory?

A

at least once a month -expendable supplies

79
Q

makes supply management easier; stockpile in other locations only enough for 1 week

A

centralize storage

80
Q

develop a continuous monitoring system; computerized inventory based on standard spreadsheet software

A

automate the inventory process

81
Q

policies and procedures specifying who has access, responsibilities of those with keys

A

restrict access

82
Q

an unplanned event capable of resulting in the loss of time, property damage, injury, disablement

A

accident

83
Q

damage to the body that restricts activity or causes disability to such an extent that the athletes to practice or compete the next day

A

injury

84
Q

athletes in all sports in the pan of 1 year face a ___ chance of sustaining some injury

A

50%

85
Q

% of muscle contusions. lig sprains and muscle strains?

A

90%

86
Q

% of microtrauma complications that lead to chronic conditions

A

10%

87
Q

most common sports injuries? male and female?

A

sprains/strains, fractures, dislocations and contusions; knee is highest then ankle and upper limb; males have shoulder/upper arm injuries

88
Q

4 most common cause of deaths in AT

A
  • chest impact
  • struck in the head
  • direct blow to the head
  • playing structure falling on athlete
89
Q

indirect sports death?

A

heatstroke; the cardiovascular, respiratory or congenital conditions

90
Q

nongovernmental, nonprofits public service organization that draws sports from a variety of sources, including educational institutions

A

National Safety Council

91
Q

conducted at UNC- CH since 1965; data collected about school, college, pro, and sandlot football through personal contact interviews and questionnaires

A

Annual Survey of Football Injury Research

92
Q

complies research on catastrophic injuries at all levels of sport

A

National Center for Catastrophic Sports Injury Research

93
Q

established in 1982; studying incidence of football injuries so that rule change recommendations could be made; 2004 full web based for lower cost

A

NCAA Injury Surveillance System

94
Q

established as a part of the consumer product act of 1972; data on injuries related to consumer projects are monitored from a selection of hospital ERs; sport injuries are 25%

A

National Electronic Injury Surveillance System; NEISS

95
Q

the state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person

A

liability

96
Q

liability generating conduct associated with the adverse outcome of patient treatment

A

malpractice

97
Q

reasons for liability

A
  • negligent patient care
  • failure to obtain informed consent
  • intentional conduct
  • breach of contract
  • use/transfer of a defective product
  • abnormally dangerous treatment
98
Q

failure to obtain informed consent

A

negligence

99
Q

assumes that an individual is neither exceptionally skillful nor extraordinarily cautious, but is a person of reasonable and ordinary prudence

A

standard of reasonable care

100
Q

a legal worng, other than breach of contract, for which a remedy will be provided, usually in the form of monetary damages; 3 types

A

tort; intentional tort, negligent tort, and strict liability tort

101
Q

Types of negligence

A
  • nonfeasance/act of omission
  • malfeasance/act of commission
  • misfeasance
102
Q

when an individual fails to perform a legal duty

A

nonfeasance/act of omission

103
Q

when an individual commits an act that is not legally his to perform

A

malfeasance/act of commission

104
Q

when an individual improperly does something they have the legal right to do

A

misfeasance

105
Q

states that neither the government nor any individual who is employed by the government can be held liable for negligence

A

Sovereign immunity

106
Q

provides limited protection against legal liability to any person who voluntarily chooses to provide first aid; cant be used in by AT in work setting

A

Good Samaritan Law

107
Q

to prove negligence, plaintiff must prove 5 components?

A 
1. conduct
2, existence of duty
3. breach of duty
4. causation
5. damage
108
Q

must prove AT did something that links him to case by omission or commission

A

conduct

109
Q

duty to provide services to athletes actively engaged in the institutions athletic programs

A

existence of duty

110
Q

desertion of patient-practitioner relationship by the healthcare provider without the consent of the patient

A

abandonment

111
Q

the degree to which a healthcare practitioner’s action are associated with the adverse outcomes of a patient’s care

A

actual cause

112
Q

the degree to which the harm caused by health care practitioner was foreseeable

A

proximate (legal) cause

113
Q

sets a specific length of time that an individual may sue for damages for negligence

A

statute of limitations; 1-3 years or 3 years after 18 yr old

114
Q

injured plaintiff understood the risk of an activity and freely chose to undertake the activity regardless of the hazards associated with it

A

assumption of risk

115
Q

the degree to which a plaintiff contributed to the harm by the defendant

A

comparative negligence

116
Q
  • Administer PPEs
  • Monitor fitness levels
  • Assess activity areas
  • Monitor environmental conditions
A

Preparation for activity

117
Q
  • Maintain equipment
  • use proper instructional techniques
  • provide adequate work-rest intervals
A

conduct of the activity

118
Q
  • have a physician supervise all medial aspects of the program
  • evaluate and treat injuries correctly and promptly
  • supervise student athletic trainers
A

injury management

119
Q
  • document physician orders
  • document the treatment plan
  • document the treatment record
  • document the patients progress
A

records management

120
Q

liability of any or all partied along the chain of manufacture of any product for damage cause by that product

A

product liability

121
Q

risk of injury from use of product was foreseeable and company did not exercise due care in reducing or eliminating risk

A

negligence

122
Q

patient using its product is injured, regardless of the foreseeability of risk or the care the manufacture took to prevent the injury

A

strict liability

123
Q

product is found to be unfit for the purpose for which it was intended manufacturers of athletic equipment are strictly liable for defects in the design and production of equipment that reduces injury

A

breach of warranty of fitness

124
Q

manufacturers written statement that a product is safe

A

express warranty

125
Q

contract between policyholder and insurance company to reimburse a percentage of the cost of the policyholders bills

A

medical insurance

126
Q

more comprehensive; reimburses cost of preventative as well as corrective medical care

A

health insurance

127
Q

contract between an insurance company and an individual or organization

A

policy

128
Q

situations or circumstances specifically not covered by an insurance policy

A

exclusions

129
Q

additions to standard insurance policy that provide coverage for conditions that are not normally covered

A

riders

130
Q

invoiced cost of insurance policy

A

premium

131
Q

portions of any claim that is not covered by the insurance provider; the amount of expenses that must be paid our of pocket before an insurer will cover any expenses

A

deductible

132
Q

capped contribution defined in the policy and paid by an insured person each time a medical service is accessed. it must be paid before any policy benefit is payable by an insurance company

A

copayment

133
Q

insurance designed to protect an athlete against future loss of earnings because of a disabling injury or sickness

A

disability insurance

134
Q

cover AT in civil cases not criminal:

A
  • claims made
  • tail coverage
  • occurrence policy
135
Q

only covers claims made during the calendar year

A

claims made -cheapest

136
Q

covers things outside of the policy year

A

tail coverage

137
Q

covers any incident during the policy year

A

occurrence policy

138
Q

insurance designed to provide lifelong medical, rehab, and disability benefits for the victims of a devastating injury

A

catastrophic insurance

139
Q

designed to cover school employees, officers, and the district against suits claiming malpractice, wrongful actions, error and omissions, and acts of negligence

A

error and omissions liability insurance

140
Q

institutions with this type are speculating that the amount they pay out for the medical expenses will be less than the amount they would pay for insurance premiums

A

self insurance

141
Q

a type of health/medical/accident insurance that beings to pay for covered expenses immediately after a deductible has been paid

A

primary coverage

142
Q

insurance that begins to pay for covered expenses only after all other sources of insurance coverage have been exhausted

A

secondary insurance or excess insurances

143
Q

form of state credentialing, established by statue and intended to protect the public, that regulates practice of at rade or profession by specifying who may practice and what duties may be performed

A

Licensure

144
Q

unlicensed individuals are not allowed to call themselves ATs

A

name protection

145
Q

unlicensed individuals are not allowed to perform tasks reserved for ATs under law

A

service protection

146
Q

a form of title protection, established by state law or sponsored by professional associations, designed to ensure that practitioners have essential knowledge and skills sufficient to protect the public

A

certification

147
Q

is pa a certification or license?

A

certification

148
Q

type of state credentialing that required qualified members of a profession to register with the state in order to practice

A

registration

149
Q

a legislative mechanism used to release members of one profession from the liability of violating another professions practice act

A

exemption

150
Q

the process by which medical vendors receive reimbursement from insurance companies for services provided to policyholders

A

third party reimbursement

151
Q

type of traditional medical whereby patients are free to seek medical serviced from any provider; plan covers a portion of cost of covered procedures and patient is responsible for the balance

A

fee-for-service/indemnity plan

152
Q

type of insurance plan that requires policyholders to use only those medical vendors approved by the company. all medical services are coordinated by a primary care physician, who acts as a gate keeper to specialty services

A

health maintenance organizations (HMOs)

153
Q

type of insurance plan that provides financial incentives to encourage policy holders to use medical vendors approved by the company

A

preferred provider organizations (PPOs)

154
Q

managed-care model whereby an HMO provides health care serviced through a network of individual medical practitioners

A

Individual practice association (IPA)

155
Q

medical services are reimbursed only if patients used contracted providers

A

Exclusive provider organization (EPO)

156
Q

similar to PPOs, except that primary care physicians are assigned to patient to coordinate their care

A

Point of service plan (POS)

157
Q

government sponsored program for elderly

A

medicare

158
Q

government sponsored program for the needy

A

medicaid

159
Q

government sponsored program for members of armed forces and their dependents

A

CHAMPUS

160
Q

coding system applied to illnesses, injury, and other medical conditions to standardize the language associated with third part reimbursement

A

ICD-9-CM

161
Q

coding system applied to specific medical procedures to standardize the language associated with third part reimbursement

A

CPT; Current Procedural Terminology

BOC (7 decks)

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