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Health and disease management/ Nutrition Exam Reviews > Health and diseases exam 3 content > Flashcards

Health and diseases exam 3 content Flashcards

1
Q

where is the trachea located?

A

in the middle a little bit towards the left

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2
Q

what is considered part of the upper respiratory tract?

A

nose through the larynx

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3
Q

what is the normal function of the URT?

A
  • normal flora (viruses, bacteria) are I the URT (nose through larynx)
  • mucus lining has mucus secreting cell which helps to remove particles, bacteria, dirt, and pathogens from the air
  • serous secreting cells secrete a thing liquid that evaporates
  • tonsils in pharyngeal area respond to local pathogens (similar to lymph nodes) - IGA (mucosal antibody) is present on mucous membranes
  • normally these flora never reach the lungs (cleared from the URT and teaches by much-cilary elevator) before they reach the lungs
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4
Q

What is the muco-ciliary elevator?

A

beat up anything stuck to cilia by mucous where it will be coughed and swallowed

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5
Q

What is the passive defense of the respiratory system?

A
  • mucous trapping of debris and pathogens
  • mucociliary clearance
  • phagocytosis
  • air turbulence created by branching airways, coughing and sneezing
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6
Q

What is the active defense of the respiratory system?

A
  • secretion of IgA antibodies
  • presentation fo antigen to lymphoid tissue in MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue such as tonsils)
  • cell mediated immunity
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7
Q

What are the common causes of URT infections?

A
  • often viral in nature
  • causes inflammation of URT and eyes
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8
Q

Where are the cs of URT infections?

A
  • sneezing
  • coughing
    -ocular discharge (watery/ goopy eyes)
  • sinusitis (A condition in which the tissue lining the sinuses (small hollow spaces in the bones around the nose) becomes swollen or inflamed.)
  • systemic signs such as fever, anorexia
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9
Q

What is the DX of URT infections

A

-Cs
- sometimes swabs for culture
- PCR or direct staining to determine precise etiological agent ( eg, influenza, strep, chlamydia)

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10
Q

What is the treatment of URT infection?

A
  • Antibiotics to prevent bacterial infections
    specific etiological tx if possible (eg, anti yeast drugs if chlamydia, antivirals for influenza, antibiotics for strep)
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11
Q

What is the good supportive care for URT infection?

A
  • keep hydrated (if a vet IV, if at home subcutaneous fluid can’t give as much as IV)
  • giving rest
  • cleaning eyes and nose
  • eye ointment
  • keep them warm
  • make sure pet is eating
  • sometimes antibiotics for secondary infections
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12
Q

What is the problem of having a URT infection

A

Primary viral respiratory infections can cause damage to respiratory mucosal linings, particularly in trachea (muco-ciliary elevator)
When the mucus producing and ciliated cells of the trachea are damaged, debris and pathogens are not removed from the trachea prior to entering the bronchi; they can get deep into the lungs and cause bronchitis or pneumonia.

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13
Q

Feline respiratory syndrome What can it be caused by (3 things)

A
  • Feline Viral rhinotracheitis (a herpevirus)
  • feline calicivirus
  • Feline Chlamydia
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14
Q

What is the claim to fame feline calicivirus infection

A

oral ulceration

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15
Q

what is the claim to fame for Chlamydiosis?

A

severe conjunctivitis

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16
Q

What is the claim to fame for rhinotracheitis (herpesvirus)

A

corneal ulcer

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17
Q

What does syndrome mean?

A

so many things can cause it

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18
Q

What are the upper respiratory signs for feline respiratory syndrome

A
  • sneezing
  • nasal discharge
  • ocular discharge
  • coughing
  • fever
    -anorexia
  • depression
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19
Q

What is the Dx for Feline respiratory syndrome

A
  • Cs
  • specific tests for agents if needed ( stained conjunctival scraping can reveal microscopic inclusion bodies of chlamydia)
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20
Q

What is the treatment for feline respiratory syndrome

A

symptomatic support and treatment

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21
Q

What is the prevention for feline respiratory syndrome

A
  • vaccination with standard kitten vaccine
  • feline viral rhinotracheitis
  • cailcivirus
  • panleukopenia
  • maintain a clean, non crowed living environment
  • quarantine new cats
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22
Q

What is bronchitis?

A

inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles (lower airways)

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23
Q

What are the causative agents of bronchitis

A
  • viruses
  • respiratory irritants (smoke including secondary smoke, chemicals, air pollution)
  • certain bacteria ( bordetella bronchiseptica in dogs, mycoplasma in rodents and other species)
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24
Q

What does chronic mean?

A

long lasting

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25
Q

What are the clinical signs of bronchitis?

A
  • persistent non -productive cough (dry cough)
  • sometimes fever (depends on etiology) and exercise intolerance
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26
Q

What does bronchitis look like on radiograph?

A

donuts

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27
Q

What is the Dx for bronchitis

A
  • clinical signs
  • radiographs to prove the diagnosis
  • to determine the underlying cause tracheal wash with (cytology, culture, sometimes PCR)
  • get a good history
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28
Q

What is a tracheal wash

A

put catheter down trachea 1/2 ml saline suck it out

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29
Q

What is the treatment for bronchitis

A

-Remove respiratory irritant if possible, seek clean air (air purifiers, masking for humans)

-Anti-inflammatories to decrease inflammation (often corticosteroids, depends on etiology)

-Antivirals (if available and appropriate)

-Sometimes antibiotics are prescribed for primary bacterial etiologies, or to prevent secondary bacterial pneumonia from developing (why ?) because pneumonia fill alveoli with fluid which prevents gas exchange and leads to death

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30
Q

What are some non steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

A

Advil

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31
Q

What is the prevention for bronchitis

A
  • vaccinate animal vs respiratory viruses common in that species
  • avoid respiratory irritants ( clean air and environment
  • practice good biosecurity when there is contact with new animals ( quarantine new animals, if animal travels to something like fair keep them separate for 2 weeks)
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32
Q

What is the etiology for heaves in horses?

A

chronic allergic response to inhales allergens progressing to alveolar damage

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33
Q

what does COPD stand for

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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34
Q

What are the components of COPD

A

Chronic bronchitis, Asthma, and Emphysema in people

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35
Q

What is the pathogenesis of heaves in horses

A

allergic response to environmental allergens ( dust, molds from feed, and bedding)
- may involve a asthma like response
- in chronic stages it can lead to the breakdown of the alveolar walls with respiratory crippling

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36
Q

What is asthma

A

constriction of smooth muscle in respiratory bronchioles, preventing air from moving in and out of alveoli

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37
Q

What are the clinical signs of heaves in horses

A
  • coughing, wheezing
  • expiratory dyspnea (inhale then can’t get the air out of the alveoli)
  • exercise intolerance
  • heave line (overdevelopment of external abdominal oblique muscle
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38
Q

What is the diagnosis for heaves in horses?

A
  • clinical signs and history
  • auscultation
  • response to treatment
  • tracheal or bronchioalveolar lavage fluid
  • might use endoscope to look down bronchioles
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39
Q

What is the treatment for heave?

A
  • treatment depends on the stage
  • remove allergens ( feed wet hay or beet pulp if hay dust is a problem)
  • give antihistamines +- corticosteroids
  • give albuterol (nebulizer or inhaler) for asthma signs
  • put on pasture
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40
Q

What is the prevention for heaves

A
  • clean environment
  • good ventilation
  • remove allergens at the first sign of a problem and prevent disease progression
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41
Q

do drugs get further with inhaler or nebulizer?

A

nebulizer because it breaks up the drugs really small and mixes it with the air so it travels down farther to the alveoli, an inhaler does not get down that far.

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42
Q

can all species get pneumonia

A

yes

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43
Q

What is pneumonia

A

inflammation or infection of the lung

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44
Q

What are some of the types of pneumonia

A

lobar, broncho, and interstitial

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45
Q

What is the etiology for infectious pneumonia

A

usually bacteria or viral infection

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46
Q

what is the pathogenesis for pneumonia

A

infection or inflammation of the lung at the alveolar level, there is a build up and decreased gas exchange ( decreased O2 in the blood, increased CO2)

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47
Q

What are the clinical signs of pneumonia

A
  • dyspnea (difficult breathing)
  • depression
  • coughing
  • fever
  • anorexia
  • weakness
  • fatigue
  • exercise intolerance (due to not getting oxygen to your tissues)
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48
Q

What does neck breathing usually mean

A

problem with breathing

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49
Q

What is the diagnosis for pneumonia

A
  • clinical signs
  • auscultation of the lungs (listening for abnormal sounds)
  • bacterial culture and sensitivity test
  • tracheal wash or endoscopy collected sample
  • necropsy ( helpful for other animals in herd outbreak
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50
Q

What do pneumonia radiographs show

A

show up white normal x-ray should be mostly black showing air white means lot of fluid in lungs

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51
Q

what does consolidated lung look like

A

chunks look like liver normal lung should be pink and spongy

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52
Q

what is the treatment for pneumonia

A
  • for bacterial infection, antibiotics (based on culture and sensitivity if available)
  • for viral infection supportive care (antivirals if available) also consider antibiotics to prevent secondary bacterial infection
  • nebulization drugs if necessary ( usually for pets)
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53
Q

what is the prevention for pneumonia

A
  • vaccination vs common respiratory dz of that species
  • good health care management (ventilation, clean conditions)
  • biosecurity practices (minimize exposure to animals with contagious respiratory disease)
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54
Q

What is the etiology for non infectious pneumonia

A

aspiration/ inhalation through drowning, aspiration of milk/ food (cleft palate), aspiration of vomit around time of general anesthesia ( when coughing/swallow functions are impaired

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55
Q

how do you prevent aspiration during general anesthesia

A
  • NPO 8-12 hours prior to anesthesia ( nothing by mouth no food, no water)
  • use of endotracheal tube (tube that goes down trachea and prevents fluid from getting into respiratory tract)
  • careful monitoring and intervention if needed during anesthetic recovery (for animals ass to the air if starts to vomit)
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56
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys ( be able to name at least three things)

A
  • Filter blood and serve homeostatic functions like
  • regulation of electrolytes
  • maintenance of acid base balance
  • regulation of blood pressure ( by maintaining water and balance)
  • Natural filter of the blood (removal of wastes which are diverted to the urinary bladder
  • reabsorption of water, glucose, and amino acids
  • production of hormones such as calcitriol, erythropoietin, and the enzyme renin
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57
Q

What does Nephr mean

A

Kidney

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58
Q

What does ren mean

A

renal

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59
Q

nephropathy

A

inflammation of the kidney

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60
Q

nephrosis

A

non-inflammatory kidney disease

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61
Q

What is the diagnosis for kidney disease?

A
  • blood chemistries ( blood urea, Nitrogen, and creatinine
  • urinalysis (urine dipstick: detects things like glucose, blood, ketones, and protein) (sediment analysis: looks for crystals, cells, casts, and bacteria) (urine specific gravity see how concentrated it is compared to water) (bacterial culture and antibiotic sensitivity)
  • imaging to look for macroscopic pathology ( x-ray and ultrasound)
  • kidney biopsy
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62
Q

definition of macroscopic

A

visible to the naked eye

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63
Q

What are the methods for urine collection

A

Free catch (should be done mid stream) - for females use a ladle and beware of contamination
- catheterization (easier in males)
- Cystocentesis ( shave, prep, put needle in bladder and suck urine out)

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64
Q

What are a few things a urine dipstick can measure?

A
  • leukocytes: which measure DNA- nucleated cells
  • protein
  • Blood
  • PH
  • Urine glucose
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65
Q

What can increase leukocytes in urine indicate

A

urinary tract infection

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66
Q

what can proteins in the urine indicate?

A

could indicate that there is a problem with the glomerulus ( failure of resorption of amino acids in the proximal convoluted tubule leakage from the bladder)

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67
Q

What can blood in the urine indicate?

A
  • damaged vessels somewhere along the urinary tract
  • measures free hemoglobin or myoglobin
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68
Q

What does pH from urine tell you

A

1.) diet
2.) metabolic status
3.) certain bacteria ( if severe UTI bacteria can produce acids lowering the pH

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69
Q

What can increased glucose in the urine indicate?

A

diabetes melitus

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70
Q

Is urine dipstick or urine specific gravity more accurate?

A

urine specific gravity

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71
Q

What does urine specific gravity tell you?

A

whether or not the kidneys are functioning

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72
Q

hyposthenuric?

A

USG<1.008
- too dilute (could indicate kidney failure)

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73
Q

Isosthenuric

A

1.008<USG<1.012
- Normal

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74
Q

Hypersthenuric USG>1.012

A

too concentrated
- often indicates dehydration

75
Q

What is a cats usual USG

A

USG>1.050

76
Q

How do you take urine sediment?

A

take urine sample spin it in centrifuge smear on slide and look at it under a microscope

77
Q

What can high number of crystals indicate?

A

stones

78
Q

What can bacteria in urine indicate?

A

if free catch nothing if catheter infection

79
Q

What is the etiology of Nephritis

A
  • Infections (hematogenous- bacteria and viruses)(ascending bacteria goes against normal flow)
  • Toxins (excess urine or copper)
  • Autoimmune
    -deposition of crystals (metabolic or toxins)
    -anatomic abnormalities
80
Q

What are the 3 types of nephritis?

A
  • Glomerulonephritis (inflammation of glomeruli could be from autoimmune disease)
  • interstitial nephritis ( affects the interstitial and usually the tubules could be from drug reactions leptospira is common cause)
  • pyelonephritis (inflammation of the renal pelvis and interstitium could be from bacterial infection that ascends up the ureters from the urinary bladder E-coli is the most common)
81
Q

What are the clinical signs of nephritis?

A
  • fever
  • anorexia
  • back pain
  • polyuria or polydipsia ( increased urination and increased water consumption)
  • anuria (lack or urination)
82
Q

What is the treatment for nephritis?

A
  • antibiotics if bacterial
  • immunosuppressives if immune-medicated
  • hydration (give iv fluids to make sure hydrated and flush out the “ bad stuff” )
  • close monitoring (make sure they are producing enough urine
83
Q

What is the etiology of renal failure

A

same as nephritis, can also be from immune complex disease toxins, and decreased perfusion/ischemia

84
Q

What is the pathogenesis of renal failure

A

when 65 percent of the kidneys are damages it can no longer concentrate the urine. When 75 percent of the kidney is damages it can no longer clear nitrogenous wastes and azotemia develops (elevated nitrogenous waste products in the blood)

85
Q

Isosthenuria

A

concentration of osmols is unchanged from the blood (USG = 1.008 to 1.012)

86
Q

Azotemia

A

elevated levels of nitrogenous wastes in the blood stream

87
Q

Uremia

A

clinical illness due to failure to excrete nitrogenous wastes

88
Q

What are the clinical signs of renal failure?

A

PU/PD, or alternatively, anuria

Vomiting and inappetence

Lethargy

Odor of ammonia/ halitosis

89
Q

What is the diagnosis of Renal failure?

A

Bloodwork

Urinalysis

Physical examination

Imaging

90
Q

Acute renal failure and etiologies

A

When renal functional capacity is abruptly impaired

Acute tubular necrosis is the single most important cause of acute renal failure

Etiologies
“Pre-renal” (dehydration), “post-renal” (obstruction)
Infection (Leptospira)
NEPHROTOXINS: ethylene glycol, melamine, aminoglycoside antibiotics, pigments (hemoglobin, myoglobin, etc)

91
Q

What is the treatment for acute renal failure

A

Control the underlying cause

Aggressive fluid therapy

Dialysis

CONTROL POTASSIUM LEVELS

92
Q

Chronic renal failure

A

Progressive and irreversible damage over months to years, with fibrosis
Low level or related exposure
Infarcts
Recurrent infections
Immune mediated disease
Loss of function: glomeruli or tubules

93
Q

What is the treatment for chronic renal failure

A

Maintain hydration

Reduce metabolic demands—special diet

Supplement potassium

94
Q

What are the common diagnostic test for the eye?

A
  • direct ophthalmoscopy
  • indirect ophthalmoscopy
  • culture and sensitivity
  • assessment of tear production
  • fluorescein (stain of the cornea)
  • Tonometry (measurement of intra-ocular pressure)
95
Q

How does tonometry work?

A

numb the eye the tonometry device presses down on the cornea and measure the pressure of the eye checking for glycoma

96
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

inflammation of conjunctiva (bulbar and/ or palpebral conjunctiva)

97
Q

what is the etiology of conjunctivitis?

A
  • Environmental irritants (smoke, dust, allergens)
  • Foreign bodies (dirt, eyelash)
  • infectious causes (chlamydia sp, morazella sp, mycoplasma sp, in car respiratory herpes virus)
98
Q

What is the number 1 cause of conjunctivitis in dogs?

A

sticking head out window when driving

99
Q

What are the clinical signs of conjunctivitis

A
  • redness
  • swelling
  • itchiness
  • increased tearing
  • bloodshot eyes
  • mucopurulent discharge
100
Q

What is the diagnosis for conjunctivitis?

A
  • History and physical exam
  • conjunctival scraping (chlamydia elementary bodies, herpesviral or distemper inclusion bodies) —> more for finding the etiology
  • consider staining the eye to check for an ulcer is necessary
101
Q

What is the treatment for conjunctivitis?

A
  • determine the cause if possible
  • rule out corneal ulcers with fluorescein stain –> cant use ophthalmic ointment if is
  • ophthalmic ointment containing antibiotic and steroid
102
Q

What is the prevention for conjunctivitis

A

avoid irritants like smoke, wind (letting your dog stick their head out the car window)

103
Q

What is corneal ulceration

A

a severe form of keratitis, localized erosion of the cornea; severity depends on depth

104
Q

What is the etiology of corneal ulceration

A
  • trauma (cut, scratch, foreign body, lid abnormality
  • infectious (rhinopnuemonitis (a herpe virus) in cats, pinkeye in cattle
105
Q

what is the pathogenesis of corneal ulceration

A

loss of corneal epithelium disrupts the careful layering of the corneal architecture–> fluid enters the corneal storm –> swelling and cloudiness

106
Q

what are the CS of corneal ulceration?

A
  • squinting
  • tearing
  • redness
  • aversion to light
  • ocular pain
107
Q

What is the Dx of corneal ulceration

A
  • clinical signs
  • fluorescein staining of eye ( will detect erosion of cornea and also checks for potency of lacrimal duct)
  • full ocular examination including careful inspection under the third eyelid (looking for foreign bodies, abnormal eyelashes)
108
Q

What is the Tx of corneal ulceration?

A
  • Protect the eye so that the animal cannot rub at it (E-Collars, eye mask)
  • Oral pain medications, ophthalmic atropine ointment (decreases spasm of ciliary
    muscle and relieve pain) (never put anything in the eye that was not specifically
    made to be used in the eye; do not share ophthalmic ointments among animals)
  • Topical antivirals, antibiotics, or antifungals up to 4 times daily, ointments last
    longer than drops
  • systemic drugs sometimes indicated as well
  • Never use topical ophthalmic steroid drops or ointments for corneal ulcers (delay healing
    and increase risk of rupture)
  • For deep ulcers, or ruptured ulcers, specialist care sometimes surgery
109
Q

What is uveitis

A

inflammation of the
vascular layer of the eye

110
Q

What is the etiology of uveitis

A
  • Due to trauma
  • Due to any systemic illness
  • Cancer
  • Autoimmune diseases
  • Infections—Lyme, leptospirosis, Anaplasma, etc.
111
Q

What is glaucoma

A

increased ocular pressure

112
Q

What is the etiology of glaucoma

A
  • failure of aqueous humor drainage or an
    imbalance between aqueous production and
    resorption
  • Congenitally narrowed drainage angle
  • Tumors (blockage of the drainage angle)
  • Uveitis (leads to inflammation and scarring)
  • Lens rupture and/or luxation (moves to an abnormal
    location which blocks flow of aqueous)
  • Increased pressure can result in blindness
  • Directly damages the optic nerve
  • Indirectly, reduces blood supply to the retina
113
Q

What are the clinical signs of glaucoma

A
  • Ocular pain
  • Visual loss (may be hard to detect)
  • Red, injected sclera
  • Cloudy cornea
  • Buphthalmia (a grossly enlarged
    eye)
114
Q

What is the Dx of glaucoma

A

Dx: C/S, tonometry (measurement of
intraocular pressure).

115
Q

what is the Tx of glaucoma

A

Tx: Most of these are referred to veterinary
ophthalmologists to manage. If detected
early, drugs can be used to remove excess
fluid from the eye, decrease aqueous
humor production and increase drainage
angle. If chronic and severe (eg, pressure
is high enough to have damaged optic
nerve and retina), there is no effective
treatment and enucleation (removal of the
eye) may be required.

116
Q

What is the prevention for glaucoma?

A

Routine tonometry in
susceptible animals can lead to early
detection and treatment.

117
Q

What is cataract

A

Focal or diffuse opacity of the lens and its capsule

118
Q

What is the etiology of cataract

A

Usually acquired
* Trauma
* Certain infections
* Feline infectious peritonitis, feline leukemia virus, leptospirosis, systemic mycoses,
congenital BVD (bovine viral diarrhea ) infection in calves
* Metabolic disorders
* diabetes mellitus

119
Q

What is the Dx of cataract

A

is by physical examination and
ophthalmologic exam- lens is opaque and
occludes visualization of retina

120
Q

What is the treatment of cataracts

A
  • There is no successful medical treatment for
    cataracts, but any associated inflammation
    should be treated. Medications that dilate
    the pupil may be helpful in improving vision
    in cases of immature or hyper mature
    cataracts.
  • Currently, the only effective therapy for
    cataracts is surgical (usually removal of the
    lens)
  • In people, after removal of the damaged lens,
    an artificial lens is installed
121
Q

Navicular disease

A

usually in older horse
bilateral
abcess formation or bruised feed
bacteria from dirt can cause pocket of puss
can isolate where abcess is and drain it

122
Q

degenerative joint disease (arthritis)

A

-usually mild then progressive
-hock arthritis is the most common
-not performing the best as it was (performance limitation)
-sudden lameness
-bone on bone (cardiledge does not regrow)
-swelling in the joint
-medications limit work then go back

123
Q

lameinitis

A
  • bilateral
  • usually front feet
  • makes every attempt to get weight off front feet
  • multiple causes (carbohydrate overload, trauma, metabolic cause)
  • usually older horses with high blood sugar (insulin resistance)
  • high cortisol unregulated liver to produce glucose
124
Q

tendinitis

A
  • tendons in limb responsible for pullback
  • when overstressed fiber start breaking creating damage to the tendon
  • acutely lame
  • discomfort
  • swelling in area
  • healing time is about 9 months
    treatment- rest __> solitary confinement first few days, shock wave therapy, maybe stem cell injections
125
Q

How do you identify lameness

A
  • asymmetric movement of the head
  • put horse on circle to stress horse more
  • which limb is down when horse head is down
  • assymetric dropping of one of the limbs
  • look at muscle to see if there is atrophy
  • if standing towed out can indicate lameness
  • horse needs to be in motion to identify it
126
Q

What is stage one of parturition

A

Dilation of the cervix

127
Q

What is stage two of parturition

A

Delivery of the fetus

128
Q

What is stage 3 of parturition

A

expulsion of the fetal membranes

129
Q

What should the mother do to the fetus once it is delivered

A

lick it to get all the gunk off that way the baby can breath

130
Q

What is the definition of dystocia

A

abnormal or difficult labor

131
Q

What are some of the cause of dystocia

A

-improper presentation/ Malpresentation
- disparity of size of dam and fetus
- uterine inertia
- pathologic conditions

132
Q

improper presentation ( what Is the problem and treatment)

A

problem: fetus not cranial (divers position)

Treatment: reposition of the fetus.clean and disinfect perineal region, tie back tail, use clean glove. Push fetus back into uterus, reposition into divers position and pull fetus out. If can’t reposition can give epidural but then she cannot help to push fetus out

133
Q

What do you do if you can’t correct improper presentation?

A
  • sea section
  • fetonomy ( calf is already dead or you kill calf by cutting corated artery or giving too much calcium) then cut the calf apart and remove each portion
134
Q

What is disparity of size between dam and fetus

A

when the fetus cannot easily fit through the pelvic canal

common in
- bull dogs or puppies with large heads
- single offspring that are gigantic
heifers (first time breeding cows)
- guinea pigs that are bred later in live due to pelvic fusion

135
Q

What is uterine inertia (who is it common in, how to treat)

A

weak uterine contractions. Common in litter bearing animals. oxytocin may help spur stronger contractions. Can treat with calcium and oxytocin in dogs

136
Q

What are some pathologic conditions for why fetus would not be able to get through birth canal?

A
  • hydrocephalus
    -ankylosed joints
    -shortened tendons
  • siamese twins
  • 2 headed calf
  • fractured pelvis
  • tumors in birth canal
  • torsion of the uterus
  • rupture of the uterus
137
Q

Can you use delivery chains if animal is not in divers position

A

no you can fracture the pelvis bone

  • the chains distribute the weight so the legs don’t break when you pull on the chains to deliver
138
Q

What are some fetal potential post delivery complications

A
  • unresponsive offspring
  • failure of passive immunoglobulin transfer
139
Q

What are some maternal post delivery complications

A
  • retained placenta
  • uterine prolapse
  • acute metritis
140
Q

What are some potential post delivery complications

A
  • paralysis
  • hypocalcemia
141
Q

what are the possible causes of retained placenta

A

decreased preparation for birth ( decrease maturity of placentome)

142
Q

What makes a retained placenta more likely

A

premature birth, induced labor, dystocia, also possible with nutritional causes

143
Q

What is a retained placenta

A

placenta hanging out of cow for over 6 hours different times for different species

144
Q

How do you diagnose retained placenta?

A

clinical signs

145
Q

What is the treatment for retained placenta?

A

-leave cow alone for minimum of 3 days ( tie in knot) placenta will mature and may detach spontaneously after 3 days manual removal
- antibiotics or antiseptics

146
Q

What is the prevention retained placenta?

A

avoid induction of labor unless necessary

147
Q

What is acute metritis?

A

inflammation/infection of the endometrium
(uterine lining)

Generally occurs within a week (usually 1-4 days) after parturition,
more common if difficult birth (dystocias) or where there is
manipulation of the fetus

148
Q

What are the CS of acute metritis

A

SIGNS - FEVER, ANOREXIA, SMELLY UTERINE DISCHARGE
(differentiate from lochia, which is normally odorless)

149
Q

What is the diagnosis of metritis

A

DX- clinical signs & time post-partum. ON RECTAL EXAM (LARGE
ANIMAL)- UTERUS FIRM, HOT

150
Q

What is the treatment for metritis

A

TX – BOVINE: uterine lavage with MILD BETADINE / WATER
SOLUTION IF CERVIX OPEN, or antibiotic/antiseptic tablet. Treat
routinely after manipulating a dystocia. Beware withholding times if
using an antibiotic.
- if cervix is closed, uterine infusion with an infusion rod using an
antiseptic such as Nolvasan, or an antibiotic that will be effective
against E. coli

151
Q

What is a prolapsed uterus

A

A uterus goes inside out

152
Q

General info prolapsed uterus

A
  • Cows and ewes, less frequent in sows, rare in other species
  • Within 24hrs of parturition, before the cervix closes
  • Sheep grazing estrogenic pastures may predispose
153
Q

How do you correct a prolapsed uterus

A

Clean and elevate uterus
(put on table if possible) to
relieve venous blockage and
maintain circulation-
decrease swelling
* Place glycerol on uterus to
lubricate and reduce edema
* Give oxytocin and calcium
salts to increase uterine tone
* Physically replace the uterus,
assuring that horns are no
longer inverted
* Sewing the vulvar folds—
controversial, as prolapse
begins at the uterine apex

154
Q

What is pyometra?

A

“PUS IN THE UTERUS” (INFECTION)
USUALLY 3-6 WEEKS post-partum, AFTER FIRST CYCLE
(OFTEN SILENT HEAT)
CL DEVELOPS, PROGESTERONE HIGH, INFECTION SETS
UP IN UTERUS, FLUID & PUS FILL UTERUS, (CAN FEEL
LIKE EARLY PREGNANCY BY SIZE ON RECTAL
PALPATION)
* COW STOPS CYCLING (CL MAINTAINED); CERVIX CAN
BE TOTALLY “CLOSED” OR SLIGHTLY “OPEN” (PUS
DISCHARGE FROM VULVA)
* CAUTION: RULE OUT PREGNANCY BEFORE TREATING

155
Q

pyometra bovine

A
  • CS: NOT CYCLING. NORMAL TPR. PURULENT DISCHARGE IF OPEN
    PYOMETRA
  • DX: RECTAL PALPATION (ENLARGED, NON-PREGNANT UTERUS);
  • TX
    – 1) RULE OUT PREGNANCY (IN PREGNANCY, MEMBRANES IN UTERUS
    INDICATE PREGNANCY, “LIVE FEEL”), CAN ALSO USE ULTRASOUND
    – 2) INFUSION OF IRRITATING DISINFECTANT (EG LUGOLS IODINE) INTO
    UTERUS CAUSES UTERINE LINING TO SLOUGH, CL REGRESSES, CERVIX
    OPENS, PUS DRAINS, COW STARTS CYCLING,OR
    – 3) PGF2X - REGRESS CL TO CAUSE OPENING OF CERVIX, SLOUGHING
    OF UTERINE LINING, ENHANCE CYCLING,
    – 4) RECHECK FEW WEEKS LATER TO MAKE SURE IT HAS RESOLVED.
  • PREVENTION - HERD HEALTH REGULAR CHECKUPS q1 MONTH, TX
    EARLY–MUCH EASIER TO RESOLVE
156
Q

pyometra dogs and cat

A
  • Signalment—older dog, no recent litters
  • Clincial signs—purulent discharge if open pyometra. Otherwise, lethargic,
    depressed, febrile, vomiting, anuric (no urination)
  • Diagnosis: imaging—x-ray or ultrasound. Also, high white blood cell count
    on CBC
  • Treatment—emergency surgery. If you were trying to breed, PGF2a and
    breed at the next cycle
  • Prevention—SPAY YOUR DOG!!! (will also prevent mammary tumors)
157
Q

What is cystitis?

A

bladder inflammation plus or minus infection

158
Q

What is the etiology of cystitis?

A

ascending bacterial infection
diabetes mellitus
uroliths

159
Q

What are the clinical signs of cystitis

A

painful urination
hematuria
stranguria
polyuria
urinary frequency

160
Q

What is the diagnosis of cystitis

A

clinical signs
urinalysis
culture and sensitivity

161
Q

What is the treatment of cystitis

A

increase water intake
antibiotics
acidify urine if necessary

162
Q

bacterial cystitis (clinical signs, diagnosis, and treatment)

A

painful urination
hematuria
stranguria
polyuria
urinary frequency

urinalysis and culture

antibiotics

163
Q

What is urolithiasis

A

urinary stones kidney stones in people

164
Q

What is the etiology of urolithiasis

A

high mineral intake and low water intake

cystitis

165
Q

What is the pathogenesis of urolithiasis

A

mineral deposits out of solution on to a organic matrix changes in urine ph may incite precipitation

166
Q

What is nephroliths

A

compression of nectars of normal renal tissue

167
Q

What are the clinical signs of nephroliths

A

asymptomatic to hematuria, back pain, renal failure

168
Q

What are the clinical signs of urolithiasis

A

hematuria (blood in urine)
stranguria (frequent painful urination)
pollakiuria (small volume urination)
abdominal pain

169
Q

What is the diagnosis for urolithiasis

A

clinical signs
physical exam
radiographs
urinalysis

170
Q

What is the prevention for urolithiasis

A

increase water intake

have any previous stones analyzed

proper diet

171
Q

What is FUS

A

feline urologic syndrome

172
Q

What is the etiology of FUS

A

low water intake
high mineral intake
nervous nature
inability to pass urine results in build up of toxins in the blood

173
Q

What are the clinical signs of a urethral obstruction

A

Straining to urinate frequently and ineffectively (Stranguria, pollakiuria)
Hematuria (blood in urine)
Anorexia
Bradycardia (slow heart rate)
Depression
Coma and death

174
Q

What is the treatment of a urethral obstruction

A

Catheterization and retropulsion

Surgery (perineal urethrostomy

175
Q

What is the diagnosis of FUS

A

CS

physical exam –> large hard bladder

176
Q

What is the treatment of FUS

A

Pass a catheter STAT (or at least therapeutic cystocentesis)
Flush with fluids
Monitor potassium
Allow urethral to relax
Consider perineal urethrostomy (PU)

177
Q

What is the prevention for FUS

A

Proper diet
Predominantly animal protein
Low ash/low magnesium diet ALWAYS
Acidifying pH diet (“ urinary tract health”)
CANNED food has more water (can add extra water)
Reduce stress
Monitor appropriately
Treat promptly
Spasmolytic drugs
Anti-inflammatories

178
Q

What is the etiology of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

high mineral intake and low water intake; frozen water in winter

179
Q

What is the pathogenesis of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

often occurs at the urethral process/ vermiform appendage

180
Q

What are the CS of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

Hematuria, stranguria, anorexia, depression, coma, death

181
Q

What is the DX of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

Clinical signs

182
Q

What is the TX of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

snip off the end of the urethral process to eliminate blockage

183
Q

What is the prevention of urethral obstruction in small ruminants

A

good management (water availability); diet

Health and disease management/ Nutrition Exam Reviews (6 decks)

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