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Systems 2A Pathology > Head and Neck Pathology > Flashcards

Head and Neck Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Define otitis externa.

A
  • infection of the external ear canal which is usually bacterial, but may be fungal
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2
Q

List symptoms of otitis externa.

A
  • discharge
  • itch
  • pain
  • eventual hearing loss
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3
Q

How would you investigate otitis externa/media?

A
  • clinically with an otoscope
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4
Q

How would you treat otitis externa?

A
  • topical antibiotics/antifungals
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5
Q

Define otitis media.

A
  • infection of the middle ear due to pathogens coming from the upper respiratory tract via the eustachian tube
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6
Q

Name three common pathogens associated with otitis media.

A
  • RSV
  • strep. pneumoniae
  • haemophillus influenzae
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7
Q

List symptoms of otitis media.

A
  • otalgia
  • hearing loss
  • discharge
  • TM perforation
  • cloudy, red and swollen TM
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8
Q

How would you treat otitis media?

A
  • NSAIDs

- amoxicillin if >72hrs

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9
Q

Define cholesteatoma

A
  • keratinising squamous epithelium within the middle ear cleft
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10
Q

Name two causes of cholesteatoma.

A
  • congenital

- due to infection

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11
Q

List symptoms of cholesteatoma.

A
  • foul smelling ear
  • discharge
  • hearing loss
  • otalgia
  • balance distruption
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12
Q

How would you investigate cholesteatoma?

A
  • clinically with an otoscope
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13
Q

How do you treat cholesteatoma?

A
  • surgery
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14
Q

Define otitis media with effusion.

A
  • inflammation in the middle ear not associated with infection
  • secretions produced by the mucosa build up
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15
Q

List symptoms of otitis media with effusion.

A
  • hearing loss
  • dull TM
  • loss of light reflex
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16
Q

How would you treat otitis media with effusion?

A
  • grommet
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17
Q

Define otosclerosis.

A
  • new bony deposits are layed down within the stapes footplate
  • the stapes becomes fixed to the oval window, impairments movement of the stapes and so there’s reduced conduction
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18
Q

Give the typical presentation of otosclerosis.

A
  • conductive hearing loss
  • usually 20-30 years
  • normal looking TM
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19
Q

How would you investigate otosclerosis?

A
  • audiometry

- tympanometry

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20
Q

How would you treat otosclerosis?

A
  • surgery

- hearing aids

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21
Q

Define presbycusis.

A
  • a degenerative disorder of the cochlea
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22
Q

List the symptoms of presbycusis.

A
  • gradual onset hearing loss

- higher frequencies are lost first

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23
Q

How would you treat presbycusis?

A
  • a high-frequency hearing aid
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24
Q

Describe benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

A
  • neurological balance problem

- otoliths are dislodged into semi-circular canals, stimulating hair cells, making them stop/start on head movements

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25
Q

Define benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

A
  • positional vertigo that lasts <1 minute and becomes less severe on repeated movements
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26
Q

How would you investigate benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A
  • the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
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27
Q

How would you treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A
  • the Eppley manoeuvre
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28
Q

Define vestibular neuronitis.

A
  • inflammation of the inner ear
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29
Q

List symptoms of vestibular neuronitis.

A
  • vertigo
  • vomiting
  • hearing loss
  • tinnitus
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30
Q

How would you treat vestibular neuronitis?

A
  • gaze stability exercises
  • habituation exercises
  • functional retraining
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31
Q

Define Meniere’s disease.

A
  • an increase in endolymphatic fluid in the inner ear, causing increased pressure in the labyrinth
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32
Q

List symptoms of Meniere’s disease.

A
  • low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss
  • the feeling of fullness in the affected ear
  • loss of balance
  • tinnitus
  • vomiting
  • dizziness
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33
Q

How would you treat Meniere’s disease?

A
  • vestibular sedatives during an attack

- chemical labyrinthectomy

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34
Q

Define quinsy.

A
  • a collection of pus outside the capsule of the tonsil usually caused by untreated bacterial tonsilitis
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35
Q

List symptoms of quinsy.

A
  • pain
  • odynophagia
  • fever
  • malaise
  • deviated uvula
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36
Q

How would you treat quinsy?

A
  • tonsillectomy

- antibiotics

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37
Q

Define a pharyngeal pouch.

A
  • herniation of the mucosa through the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscles
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38
Q

List symptoms of a pharyngeal pouch.

A
  • neck swelling
  • gargling sound after swallowing
  • recurrent pneumonia due to aspiration
39
Q

How would you investigate a pharyngeal pouch?

A
  • barium swallow
40
Q

How would you treat a pharyngeal pouch?

41
Q

Define allergic rhinitis.

A
  • a hypersensitive reaction of the immune system to an allergen
42
Q

List symptoms of allergic rhinitis.

A
  • nasal irritation
  • sneezing
  • watery rhinorrhoea
  • ear itching
  • nasal blockage
43
Q

How would you investigate allergic rhinitis?

A
  • allergen skin test
44
Q

How would you treat allergic rhinitis?

A
  • allergen avoidance
  • antihistamines
  • decongestants
  • NSAIDs
  • steroids
45
Q

Define nasal polyps.

A
  • inflammation and oedema of nasal mucosa that prolapses into the nasal cavity causing obstruction
46
Q

List symptoms of nasal polyps.

A
  • nasal congestion
  • sinusitis
  • loss of smell
  • nasal discharge
  • mouth breathing
47
Q

How would you treat nasal polyps?

A
  • intranasal steroids

- surgery

48
Q

Define rhinosinusitis.

A
  • an infection of the paranasal sinuses
49
Q

List symptoms of rhinosinusitis.

A
  • frontal headache
  • purulent discharge
  • facial pain
  • fever
  • malaise
50
Q

How would you treat rhinosinusitis?

A
  • nasal decongestants
  • antibiotics
  • topical steroids
51
Q

Define a thyroglossal cyst.

A
  • dilation of the thyroglossal duct remnant
52
Q

Define a thyroid nodule.

A
  • a solitary nodule of the thyroid
53
Q

How would you investigate a thyroid nodule?

A
  • FNA

- ultrasound

54
Q

Define parathyroid disease.

A
  • the parathyroid glands either over or under-produce hormone
55
Q

List symptoms of parathyroid disease.

A
  • renal calculi
  • aching bones
  • depression/anxiety/psychosis
  • abdominal pain
56
Q

How would you investigate parathyroid disease?

A
  • U&Es
  • serum creatinine
  • vitamin D
  • ultrasound
  • CT/MRI
57
Q

Define conjunctivitis.

A
  • an inflammation of the conjunctivae
58
Q

Define a corneal abraison.

A
  • trauma removes a focal area of corneal epithelium
59
Q

List symptoms of corneal abraisons.

A
  • severe pain
  • lacrimation
  • inability to open the eye
  • reduced visual acuity
60
Q

Define cataracts.

A
  • opacification of the lens
61
Q

List causes of cataracts.

A
  • old age
  • drug-induced
  • traumatic
62
Q

What is the main symptom of cataracts.

A
  • gradual, painless loss of sight
63
Q

How would you treat cataracts?

64
Q

Define primary open angle glaucoma.

A
  • raised intraoccualr pressure due to a blockage in the trabecular meshwork
65
Q

What is the main symptom of primary open angle glaucoma?

A
  • gradual, insidious loss of peripheral visual field, causing loss of vision
66
Q

How would you treat primary open angle glaucoma?

A
  • beta blockers
  • prostaglandin analogues
    carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
67
Q

Define acute angle closure glucoma.

A
  • sudden rise in intraoccular pressure due to trabecular meshwork becoming inaccessable
68
Q

List symptoms of actue angle closure gluacoma.

A
  • sudden onset, painful vision loss
  • headaches
  • red eye
  • nausea and vomiting
69
Q

Define uveitis.

A
  • inflammation of the uveal tract

- can be anterior, intermediate, posterior or panuvitis

70
Q

How would you treat uveitis?

A
  • topical steroids
  • oral/injected steroids
  • immunosuppressants
71
Q

Define giant cell arteritis.

A
  • inflammatory granulomatous arteritis of the large cerebral arteries
72
Q

List symptoms of giant cell arteritis.

A
  • severe headaches
  • tenderness over the scalp
  • claudication of jaw
  • vision loss
  • optic disc appears swollen and pale
73
Q

How would you investigate giant cell arteritis?

A
  • fundoscopy
  • raised ESR
  • temporal artery biopsy
74
Q

How would you treat giant cell arteritis?

A
  • corticosteroids
  • calcium supplements
  • vitamin D supplements
75
Q

Define optic neuritis.

A
  • inflammation of the optic nerve
76
Q

List symptoms of optic neuritis.

A
  • sudden vision loss
  • blurred or foggy vision
  • reduced night vision
  • photophobia
77
Q

How would you treat optic neuritis?

A
  • corticosteroids
78
Q

Define macular degeneration.

A
  • degeneration of the macula
79
Q

What is the most common form of visual impairment in over 50’s?

A
  • macular degenerations
80
Q

List symptoms of macular degeneration.

A
  • gradual blurring and eventual loss of central vision

- decreased visual acuity

81
Q

How would you investigate macular degeneration?

A
  • fundoscopy

- slit lamp

82
Q

How would you treat macular degeneration?

A
  • Vitamin C and E supplements

- anti-VEGF injections

83
Q

Define diabetic neuropathy.

A
  • most common complications of diabetes

- painless vision loss

84
Q

Define scleritis.

A
  • inflammation of the sclera
85
Q

List symptoms of scleritis.

A
  • painful red eye
  • photophobia
  • low visual acuity
86
Q

How would you treat scleritis?

A
  • corticosteroids
  • NSAIDs
  • antibiotics
87
Q

Define orbital cellulitis.

A
  • inflammation of the tissues behind the orbit usually caused by sinusitis/dental infection
88
Q

How would you treat orbital cellulitis?

A
  • IV antibiotics

- surgery

89
Q

Define a squamous cell papilloma.

A
  • broad based growth around the eyelid caused by a virus
90
Q

Describe the presentation of squamous cell papilloma.

A
  • painless, raspberry texture growth
91
Q

How would you treat squamous cell papilloma?

A
  • surgical excision
92
Q

Define a basal cell papilloma.

A
  • a growth around the eyelid caused by sun damaged skin
93
Q

Describe the presentation of basal cell papilloma.

A
  • scaley surface over a thick plaque

- grows over weeks rather than months

94
Q

How would you treat basal cell papilloma?

A
  • surgical excision

Systems 2A Pathology (6 decks)

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