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Oral Diseases > HD > Flashcards

HD Flashcards

1
Q

vital signs of shock

A

low BP <100

high HR >100

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2
Q

what type of shock is sepsis and anaphylaxis

A

distributive shock

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3
Q

extra-intestinal complications of IBD

A 
aphthous stomatitis (directly from crohns or secondary to anaemia in UC)
vasculitis
arthritis
crohns - OFG, cobblestone mucosa
chronic disease - anaemia
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4
Q

what medications may pt suffering from IBD take?

A

corticosteroids + cyclosporin

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5
Q

3 factors increasing chance of aspiration in GA

A
  1. non-fasted
  2. history of hiatus hernia
  3. pregnancy
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6
Q

side effect of omeprazole

A

xerostomia

also CI with warfarin

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7
Q

What causes yellow pigmentation in jaundice

A

raised bilirubin levels

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8
Q

dental relevance of jaundice

A

bleeding - vit k clotting factors insufficient
drug metabolism - avoid miconazole, Abs, NSAIDs
cross infection control if hepatitis
limit LA cartridges

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9
Q

how to exclude haemorrhage stroke

A

CT scan - Aspirin given once excluded

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10
Q

dental relevance of parkinsons

A

hypersalivation

postural drop in BP

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11
Q

dental relevance of renal disorders

A

anaemia - failrure to produce erythroprotein
bleeding - marrow fibrosis = platelet dysfunction
may be taking steroids - immunosuppressed
drug excretion - no NSAIDs + tetracycline
dialysis - heparin = see day after
often hypertensive
don’t swallow blood

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12
Q

4 causes of tonic clonic seizures

A

epilepsy
hypoglycaemia
trauma
vasovagal syncope

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13
Q

how much buccal midazolam to treat status epilepticus

A

> 10 yr 10mg
5-10 yr 7.5mg
1-5 yr 5mg
6m - 1yr = 2.5mg

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14
Q

onset of extradural haemorrhage

A

acute
lens shape on scan
MMA

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15
Q

onset of subdural haemorrhage

A

slow onset - venous bleed

crescent shape

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16
Q

how to test if rhinorrhea is CSF

A

contains glucose

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17
Q

signs of liver disease in clothed pt

A 
liver flap
dupuytren contracture
palmar erythema
finger clubbing
leukonychia
gynaecomastia
ascites
ankle oedema
sialosis
jaundice
spider naevi
bruising
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18
Q

do BCC or SCC skin cancer have most metastatic potential?

A

SCC

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19
Q

how to differentiate cherubim from hyperparathyroidism?

A

with blood test - increased calcium, phosphate and PTh in hyperparathyroidism

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20
Q

why can’t IV sedation be used in myasthenia gravis pt?

A

BDZs contraindicated due to muscle relaxant properties

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21
Q

how does sucking ice improve mucositis

A

reduces inflammation

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22
Q

what can be used to reduce ulcers from chemotherapy

A

folic acid topical

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23
Q

what measurement is classed as low granulocytes

A

<2x10^9/l

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24
Q

why should you not do abdominal thrusts in infant?

A

may damage spleen or liver - should do chest thrusts instead

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25
Q

doses of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in different ages

A

> 12 years = 0.5ml
6-12 years = 0.25ml
6month-6year = 0.12ml
<6month = 0.05ml

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26
Q

dose of midazolam for epilepsy in different ages

A 
>10ys = 10mg
5-10yrs = 7.5mg
1-5yrs = 5mg
6month-1yr = 2.5mg
<6month = <2.5mg
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27
Q

what is clozapine + what are its dental side effects

A

antipsychotic drug

can cause neutropenia, oral ulceration + hyper salivation

28
Q

management for TMD

A 
reassurance + education
rescue stress
heat/cold pack
exercises
soft diet
analgesia
splint
advanced - physiotherapy, CBT, pharmacotherapy
29
Q

when may antibiotic prophylaxis be require

A

high risk for IE
osteoradionecrosis + MRONJ
chemotherapy if WBC <2x10^9
immunocompromised/diabetes not routine - liase

30
Q

what is the ayliffe technique? when?

A

60 seconds hand wash

  1. before pt contact
  2. after pt contact
  3. before aseptic technique
  4. before contact with pt surroundings
  5. after contact with bodily fluid
31
Q

which lung is inhaled foreign body likely to enter?

A

right

32
Q

how to do chest compressions

A

30 compressions
rate 100-120bpm
5-6cm deep

33
Q

how to cover Addisons pts for GA

A

hydrocortisone 100-200mg IV I hour prior or 100-200mg IV at induction + stay at double dose for 24hrs

34
Q

how to cover Addisons pts for major procedures (not GA)

A

double dose up to 200mg hydrocortisone for 24hrs§

35
Q

how to cover pts with secondary adrenal suppression

A

don’t normally need cover

monitor BP for >25% diastolic drop –> IV hydrocortisone 100mg

36
Q

how to treat Addisons crisis

A 
lie flat + raise legs
maintain airway + O2 15ml/min 
ABCDE
up to 200mg IV hydrocortisone sodium succinate
call 999
fluid + electrolyte
37
Q

heamophillia A + B factors affected

A 
A = 8
B = 9
38
Q

factors produced in liver?

A

2 7 9 10

39
Q

what is given if life threatening INR

A

beriplex

40
Q

how to monitor heparinised pts?

A

through APTT intrinsic pathway

41
Q

reversal agent for heparin

A

protamine sulphate

42
Q

how is Idiopathic thrombocytopenia treated?

A

high dose prednisolone to suppress autoantibody production

43
Q

haemophilia cover for operation

A 
mild = DDAVP (doesn't work for type B)
mod/severe = 8/9 replacement
44
Q

von willebrand disease cover for operation

A

DDAVP + platelet infusion

45
Q

what is classed as being on long term steroids?

A

5mg prednisolone or equivalent for more than 3 weeks

46
Q

emergency treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis

A

IV insulin + rehydration + electrolyte replacement

47
Q

signs of acute severe asthma

A

inability to complete sentence in 1 breath
RR >25
tachycardia >110

48
Q

signs of life threatening asthma

A

RR <8

cyanosis, confusion, exhaustion, decreased consciousness

49
Q

what can carbamazepine cause

A

Steven johnson syndrome
monitor LFT, U&E, rash, sore throat, jaundice
ask about blood tests if pt taking carbamazepine

50
Q

oral side effects of carbamazepine

A

xerostomia
glossitis
oral ulceration
cervical lymphadenopathy

51
Q

oral importance of anti-muscarinic drugs used to treat Parkinson’s

A 
xerostomia
hyper salivation
difficulty tolerating dentures
dysphagia + chewing 
'on time' 60-90mins after medication - mornings
52
Q

toxic trio for child abuse

A

parental substance abuse
parental mental health
domestic abuse

53
Q

2 genetic disorders that predispose to developing SCC

A

fanconi anaemia

dyskeratosis congenita

54
Q

what margin needs to be removed around SCC

A

5mm

55
Q

how does aspirin affect warfarin

A

displaces warfarin from protein-binding so increases concentration

56
Q

how do antifungals affect warfarin

A

compete for metabolising enzyme, reduces clearance of warfarin so increases effect

57
Q

how do NSAIDs effect methotrexate?

A

reduces excretion

58
Q

difference between papillomas and adenomas

A

both are benign epithelial neoplasms
papilloma = surface epithelium neoplasm
adenoma = glandular epithelium neoplasm

59
Q

cells causing neoplasms can be categorised into

A

epithelium
mesenchymal
both

60
Q

name for malignant epithelium neoplasms

A

carcinomas

61
Q

name for malignant mesenchymal neoplasms

A

sarcomas

62
Q

how to name a benign mesenchymal neoplasm

A

with prefix

e. g. fibroma (fibrous tissue)
e. g. osteoma (bone)

63
Q

syndrome associated with multiple osteomas

A

Gardners syndrome

64
Q

medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis

A

DMARDs

65
Q

tell tale characteristic of TMD caused by rheumatoid arthritis compared to osteoarthritis

A

bilateral

66
Q

how does TMD present in Ehlers danlos pt

A

hypermobility + luxations

Oral Diseases (14 decks)

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