HD Flashcards

1
Q

vital signs of shock

A

low BP <100

high HR >100

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2
Q

what type of shock is sepsis and anaphylaxis

A

distributive shock

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3
Q

extra-intestinal complications of IBD

A
aphthous stomatitis (directly from crohns or secondary to anaemia in UC)
vasculitis
arthritis
crohns - OFG, cobblestone mucosa
chronic disease - anaemia
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4
Q

what medications may pt suffering from IBD take?

A

corticosteroids + cyclosporin

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5
Q

3 factors increasing chance of aspiration in GA

A
  1. non-fasted
  2. history of hiatus hernia
  3. pregnancy
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6
Q

side effect of omeprazole

A

xerostomia

also CI with warfarin

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7
Q

What causes yellow pigmentation in jaundice

A

raised bilirubin levels

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8
Q

dental relevance of jaundice

A

bleeding - vit k clotting factors insufficient
drug metabolism - avoid miconazole, Abs, NSAIDs
cross infection control if hepatitis
limit LA cartridges

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9
Q

how to exclude haemorrhage stroke

A

CT scan - Aspirin given once excluded

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10
Q

dental relevance of parkinsons

A

hypersalivation

postural drop in BP

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11
Q

dental relevance of renal disorders

A

anaemia - failrure to produce erythroprotein
bleeding - marrow fibrosis = platelet dysfunction
may be taking steroids - immunosuppressed
drug excretion - no NSAIDs + tetracycline
dialysis - heparin = see day after
often hypertensive
don’t swallow blood

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12
Q

4 causes of tonic clonic seizures

A

epilepsy
hypoglycaemia
trauma
vasovagal syncope

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13
Q

how much buccal midazolam to treat status epilepticus

A

> 10 yr 10mg
5-10 yr 7.5mg
1-5 yr 5mg
6m - 1yr = 2.5mg

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14
Q

onset of extradural haemorrhage

A

acute
lens shape on scan
MMA

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15
Q

onset of subdural haemorrhage

A

slow onset - venous bleed

crescent shape

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16
Q

how to test if rhinorrhea is CSF

A

contains glucose

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17
Q

signs of liver disease in clothed pt

A
liver flap
dupuytren contracture
palmar erythema
finger clubbing
leukonychia
gynaecomastia
ascites
ankle oedema
sialosis
jaundice
spider naevi
bruising
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18
Q

do BCC or SCC skin cancer have most metastatic potential?

A

SCC

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19
Q

how to differentiate cherubim from hyperparathyroidism?

A

with blood test - increased calcium, phosphate and PTh in hyperparathyroidism

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20
Q

why can’t IV sedation be used in myasthenia gravis pt?

A

BDZs contraindicated due to muscle relaxant properties

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21
Q

how does sucking ice improve mucositis

A

reduces inflammation

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22
Q

what can be used to reduce ulcers from chemotherapy

A

folic acid topical

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23
Q

what measurement is classed as low granulocytes

A

<2x10^9/l

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24
Q

why should you not do abdominal thrusts in infant?

A

may damage spleen or liver - should do chest thrusts instead

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25
doses of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in different ages
>12 years = 0.5ml 6-12 years = 0.25ml 6month-6year = 0.12ml <6month = 0.05ml
26
dose of midazolam for epilepsy in different ages
``` >10ys = 10mg 5-10yrs = 7.5mg 1-5yrs = 5mg 6month-1yr = 2.5mg <6month = <2.5mg ```
27
what is clozapine + what are its dental side effects
antipsychotic drug | can cause neutropenia, oral ulceration + hyper salivation
28
management for TMD
``` reassurance + education rescue stress heat/cold pack exercises soft diet analgesia splint advanced - physiotherapy, CBT, pharmacotherapy ```
29
when may antibiotic prophylaxis be require
high risk for IE osteoradionecrosis + MRONJ chemotherapy if WBC <2x10^9 immunocompromised/diabetes not routine - liase
30
what is the ayliffe technique? when?
60 seconds hand wash 1. before pt contact 2. after pt contact 3. before aseptic technique 4. before contact with pt surroundings 5. after contact with bodily fluid
31
which lung is inhaled foreign body likely to enter?
right
32
how to do chest compressions
30 compressions rate 100-120bpm 5-6cm deep
33
how to cover Addisons pts for GA
hydrocortisone 100-200mg IV I hour prior or 100-200mg IV at induction + stay at double dose for 24hrs
34
how to cover Addisons pts for major procedures (not GA)
double dose up to 200mg hydrocortisone for 24hrs§
35
how to cover pts with secondary adrenal suppression
don't normally need cover | monitor BP for >25% diastolic drop --> IV hydrocortisone 100mg
36
how to treat Addisons crisis
``` lie flat + raise legs maintain airway + O2 15ml/min ABCDE up to 200mg IV hydrocortisone sodium succinate call 999 fluid + electrolyte ```
37
heamophillia A + B factors affected
``` A = 8 B = 9 ```
38
factors produced in liver?
2 7 9 10
39
what is given if life threatening INR
beriplex
40
how to monitor heparinised pts?
through APTT intrinsic pathway
41
reversal agent for heparin
protamine sulphate
42
how is Idiopathic thrombocytopenia treated?
high dose prednisolone to suppress autoantibody production
43
haemophilia cover for operation
``` mild = DDAVP (doesn't work for type B) mod/severe = 8/9 replacement ```
44
von willebrand disease cover for operation
DDAVP + platelet infusion
45
what is classed as being on long term steroids?
5mg prednisolone or equivalent for more than 3 weeks
46
emergency treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
IV insulin + rehydration + electrolyte replacement
47
signs of acute severe asthma
inability to complete sentence in 1 breath RR >25 tachycardia >110
48
signs of life threatening asthma
RR <8 | cyanosis, confusion, exhaustion, decreased consciousness
49
what can carbamazepine cause
Steven johnson syndrome monitor LFT, U&E, rash, sore throat, jaundice ask about blood tests if pt taking carbamazepine
50
oral side effects of carbamazepine
xerostomia glossitis oral ulceration cervical lymphadenopathy
51
oral importance of anti-muscarinic drugs used to treat Parkinson's
``` xerostomia hyper salivation difficulty tolerating dentures dysphagia + chewing 'on time' 60-90mins after medication - mornings ```
52
toxic trio for child abuse
parental substance abuse parental mental health domestic abuse
53
2 genetic disorders that predispose to developing SCC
fanconi anaemia | dyskeratosis congenita
54
what margin needs to be removed around SCC
5mm
55
how does aspirin affect warfarin
displaces warfarin from protein-binding so increases concentration
56
how do antifungals affect warfarin
compete for metabolising enzyme, reduces clearance of warfarin so increases effect
57
how do NSAIDs effect methotrexate?
reduces excretion
58
difference between papillomas and adenomas
both are benign epithelial neoplasms papilloma = surface epithelium neoplasm adenoma = glandular epithelium neoplasm
59
cells causing neoplasms can be categorised into
epithelium mesenchymal both
60
name for malignant epithelium neoplasms
carcinomas
61
name for malignant mesenchymal neoplasms
sarcomas
62
how to name a benign mesenchymal neoplasm
with prefix e. g. fibroma (fibrous tissue) e. g. osteoma (bone)
63
syndrome associated with multiple osteomas
Gardners syndrome
64
medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis
DMARDs
65
tell tale characteristic of TMD caused by rheumatoid arthritis compared to osteoarthritis
bilateral
66
how does TMD present in Ehlers danlos pt
hypermobility + luxations