HBKim - BIomed Flashcards by Charlie Trinh

A 47-year-old male reports a strong, sometimes irresistible urge to move his legs particularly at night. He also presents with sleep deprivation, fatigue, leg cramps, uncomfortable tingling and burning sensation. What is the proper diagnosis?

Parkinson’s disease
Restless Legs Syndrome
Nightmare disorder

Restless Legs Syndrome

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Restless leg syndrome can be associated with:

Iron deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency
Magnesium deficiency

Iron deficiency

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Which of the following disorder shares the same pharmaceutical treatment as RLS?

Alzheimer’s disease
Narcolepsy
Parkinson’s disease

Parkinson’s disease

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A Pap smear is recommended starting at age until age 75.

14
18
21
28

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Doctors may recommend colposcopy if result is abnormal.

urinalysis
pap smear
IQ test
testicular exam

pap smear

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Colposcopy is a procedure to closely examine:

larynx and trachea
dueodenum
bladder
cervix

Cervix

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A 36-year-old female is referred because of a Pap smear reading of ASCUS (atypical
squamous cells of undetermined significance). She has been sexually active, using oral contraception pills for the last 3 years. Which of the following is the next step in evaluation?

Colposcopy and biopsy
Duplex ultrasound
Mammogram

Colposcopy and biopsy

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Difference between Radiculopathy and Neuropathy

Radiculopathy - involves one spinal nerve root distribution (Pinched nerve)
Neuropathy - usually involves on peripheral nerve branch, pathology often presents entrapment distally

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What procedure should a patient perform to test Cervical Radiculopathy?

Bakody’s Sign The patient should abduct the arm and place the hand on top of the head
A decrease or relief of the patient’s symptoms is a positive test

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Positive Bakody’s sign indicates the cervical radiculopathy at the levels of:

C1-C2
C2-C3
C4-C6
C7-C8

C4-C6

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Which of the following test is for radiculopathy?

Bakody’s sign
Phalen test
Tinel’s sign
Reverse Phalen test

Bakody’s sign

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Which of the following is NOT an example of an antioxidant?

Selenium
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D

Vitamin D

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What are the antioxidant vitamins?

A
C
E (selenium)

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Which of the following is NOT an example of an antioxidant?

Vitamin E
Vitamin B
Selenium
Bata-carotene

Vitamin B

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How often should a patient be tested with an HbA1C?

about once every 3 days
about once every 3 weeks
about once every 3 months
about once every 3 years

about once every 3 months

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Which of the following patients has the highest risk factor for diabetic neuropathy?

A1C 5.6
A1C 6.5
A1C 9
A1C 11

A1C 11

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What is HbA1C? and what’s the ranges of labwork?

Hemoglobin A1c tests blood sugar in diabetic patients. pre-diabetic is 6.0 (+- 0.4)

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Which of the following drugs is NOT an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)?

A. Escitalopram (Lexapro®)
B. Fluoxetin (Prozac®)
C. Sertraline (Zoloft®)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil®)
E. Citalopram (Celexa®)
F. Venlafaxine (Effexor®)

F. Venlafaxine (Effexor®)

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What are some SSRI mneumonic drug names?

Effective - escitalopram
For - fluoxetin
Sadness - sertraline
Panic - paroxetine
Compulsions - citalopram

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Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effects of SSRI’s?

Stomach upset
Sexual dysfunction
Serotonin syndrome
Major depressive disorder (MDD)

Major depressive disorder (MDD)

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What are the adverse effects of SSRI’s?

Stomach upset
Sexual dysfunction
Serotonin syndrome

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A 48-year-old female has been taking Sertraline (Zoloft®) 50mg PO qday for her Major
Depressive Disorder for the last six months. The patient reports no symptomatic improvement. Her family physician increased her Sertraline (Zoloft®) dose to 100mg PO qday and added Venlafaxine (Effexor®) 50mg PO q12hr. After a few day, the patient came back to her physician reporting that she was experiencing agitation, tachycardia, diarrhea, fever and episodes of seizure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Lithium toxicity
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
Serotonin Syndrome
MAOI-induced hypertensive crisis

Serotonin Syndrome

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Which of the following foods should you avoid when taking MAOI?

Tyramine-rich foods (cheeses, pickled foods, wine)
purine-rich foods (anchovies, sardines, alcohol)
Fast foods (McDonald’s, Wendy’s, Hardee’s)

Tyramine-rich foods (cheeses, pickled foods, wine)

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What hormone is tested to diagnosis pregnancy and where is it produced?

human chorionic gonadotropin
growth hormone
prolactin
oxytocin

human chorionic gonadotropin - placenta

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Typically, the hCG levels will double every ___during first trimester of pregnancy. 12-24 hours 48-72 hours week month

48-72 hours

Which of the following test confirm an intrauterine pregnancy? human chorionic gonadotropin colonoscopy ultrasound CT scan

ultrasound

What is the best way to confirm the diagnosis of Giant-Cell Arteritis? Complete blood count Basic metabolic panel Temporal artery biopsy CT head

Temporal artery biopsy

A high-dose of____should be administered immediately to prevent permanent monocular blindness for Temporal Arteritis patient. Sildenafil Prednisone Acetaminophen Artificial tears

Prednisone

What is the risk factors for Giant-Cell Arteritis? >50, female, polymyaglia rheumatica >50, male, polymyalgia rheumatica <50, female, fibromyalgia <50, male, fibromyalgia

>50, female, polymyaglia rheumatica

A 65-year-old female presents clinic with right-side headache with scalp pain. She reports pain in the jaw associated with chewing, fever, fatigue, recent weight loss, decreased visual acuity of right eye and double vision. She reports temporal tenderness upon gentle pressure. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? Migraine Stroke Bell's palsy Temporal arteritis

Temporal arteritis

A 72-year-old male presents with loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness and significant loss of appetite even thought he is not actively trying to lose weight. What is the diagnosis? Iron deficiency anemia Lactose intolerance Cachexia Osteoporosis

Cachexia

About 50% of all ____ patients suffer from cachexia. Diabetes mellitus type 2 Hypertension Hyperlipidemia Cancer

Cancer

Severe deficiency of niacin (B3) in the diet causes: Night blindenss Pellagra Rickets pernicious anemia

Pellagra

Severe deficiency of Vitamin B3(Niacin) characterized by: diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia pernicious anemia hemorrhage osteomalacia

diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

In addition to other lipid-lowering medications, Niacin has sometimes been used. What is the most common adverse effects of Niacin? Facial paralysis Facial drooping Facial pain Facial flushing

Facial flushing

A middle-aged female complains of pain located on the bottom of the ball of the foot. The pain is worse by walking, especially while wearing narrow shoes and is relieved by removing the shoe. She also complains numbness, paresthesia, and shooting pain towards the toes. Mulder's sign positive on physical exam. Ultrasound may confirm the diagnosis of: Metatarsal stress fractures Lumbosacral nerve root irritation Morton's neuroma Foreign-body reaction

Morton's neuroma

The most frequent location of Morton's neuroma is in-between: the third and fourth metacarpals (third webspace) the third and fourth metatarsals (third webspace) the first and second metacarpals (first webspace) the first and second metatarsals (first webspace)

the third and fourth metatarsals (third webspace)

The CAGE is a simple screening questionnaire to identify potential problems with: tobacco alcohol marijuana painkillers cocaine

alcohol C - need to cut down on drinking A - annoyed by criticism G - Guilty about it E - Eye opener first thing in morning

What are the withdrawal symptoms of alcohol?

tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, malaise, nausea, seizures, delirium tremens (DTs), agitation

A 35-year-old male was brought to the ER with severe abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. The patient presents with agitation, global confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, fever, and profuse sweating. The patient's family gave a history of alcoholism for the past 20 years. The family admitted him to alcohol rehab center three days ago. On examination, the pulse rate was 136 beats/min and BP was 160/90 mmHg, with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min. The patient has jaundice with dry tongue. This patient most likely suffers from: Delirium tremens Myxedema coma Thyroid storm Hypertensive emergency

Delirium tremens

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS): usually secondary to alcohol abuse. It mainly causes vision changes + ataxia + impaired memory. The cause of the disorder is ______deficiency.

Thiamine B1 deficiency

Which of the following vitamin enhances the absorption of non-heme iron? Vitamin B Vitamin C Vitamin E Vitamin K

Vitamin C

Deficiency of Vitamin ____ causes scurvy, anemia, depression, infection, tooth/gum problems, muscle deterioration, fragile bones, poor wound healing. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) Vitamin B3 (niacin) Vitamin B12 (cobalamins) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

_____ may be used to evaluate and diagnose the Bladder cancer. Cystoscopy Colposcopy Lower endoscopy Laryngoscopy

Cystoscopy

A 61-year-old male presents with painless hematuria. He is a heavy smoker and has occupational exposure to aniline dye in a paint manufacturing plant. After taking his social history, which of the following disease should be ruled out? Endometrial cancer Prostate cancer Bladder cancer Colon cancer

Bladder cancer

Urodynamic testing is most suitable for which of the following diseases? bladder cancer acute kidney injury chronic kidney injury urinary incontinence

urinary incontinence

A 37-year-old male complains of inability to achieve or maintain an erection. The patient reports emotional stress due to his current relationship with his spouse. He reports normal nocturnal and early morning erection. His vital signs are within the normal range. His testosterone levels within the normal range. What is the most likely cause of his erectile dysfunction? Psychogenic Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 Beta-blocker Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Psychogenic (early morning erection, sudden, situational) While Organic ED (no morning erection, gradual and always)

Which Autonomic Nerve mediates ejaculation? Parasympathetic Sympathetic Brain Spinal cord

Sympathetic Point (Parasympathetic) & Shoot (sympathetic)

Which drugs are absolutely contraindicated when using Sildenafill? SSRI Beta blocker Nitrates MAOI

Nitrates (severed hypotension + death)

What are the dermatomes connected to the following body landmarks? Thumb - Middle finger Pinky Nipple - Umbilicus Knee -

Thumb - C6 Middle finger - C7 Pinky C8 Nipple - T4 Umbilicus - T10 Knee - L4

What are the dermatomes connected to the following body landmarks? Top of the foot Bottom of the foot Perineum - Lateral malleolus

Top of the foot - L5 Bottom of the foot - S1 Perineum - S2-S4 Lateral malleolus - S1

Which of the following spinal nerve supplies dermatome at the anterior knee? L4 LS S1

Which of the following spinal nerve supplies dermatome to the nipple? T2 T4 TS T6

Which of the following spinal nerve supplies dermatome at the umbilicus? C6 T4 T1O LS

T1O

Which of the following spinal nerve supplies dermatome to the perineum? L4 LS S1 S2-S4

S2-S4

What are the Water-soluble vitamins, and their excess, deficiency and toxicity?

B, C - Hyrdrophilic excreted in urine -faster onset less comon toxicx

What are the Fat-soluble vitamins, and their excess, deficiency and toxicity?

A, D, E, K, - hydrophobic, stored in the body, slower onset therefore more commonly toxic

what does vitamin K help with? and where is it made?

helps blood clot and prevent serious bleeding Made in the gut

What is VKDB? and whom does it affect

Vitamin K deficiency bleeding , new born lack vit K because it K is made in the gut and don't get it until they can eat solid food, also called Hemorrhagic Disease of Newborn (HDN)

Which of the following vitamins is classified as Fat-Soluble? Vitamin E Vitamin B1 Vitamin B12 Vitamin C

Vitamin E

Deficiency of this vitamin can cause a hemorrhage in newborn infants. Vitamin A deficiency Vitamin D deficiency Vitamin E deficiency Vitamin K deficiency

Vitamin K deficiency

Bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract naturally makes vitamin . A D K

Vitamin K

A vitamin____ injection after birth eliminates the risk of bleeding. C K Folic acid (B9) E

A vitamin ____ deficiency is particularly common among breastfed infants. A K Niacin (B3) C

Which of the following foods contains the most Vitamin K? citrus fruits whole grains green leafy vegetables shell fish

green leafy vegetables

Which of the following foods should be avoided for individuals taking Warfarin (Coumadin®)? citrus fruits whole grains green leafy vegetables

green leafy vegetables

What is the mechanism of action for Warfarin (Coumadin®)? Kill bacteria Increase heart rate Activates anti-thrombin Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K

Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K

What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin®)? Protamine Vitamin K Oxygen Glucose Naloxone Ethanol

Vitamin K

What is the indication of anti-coagulants ("blood thinners")? deep vein thrombosis (DVT) pulmonary embolism (PE) atrial fibrillation (A-Fib) artificial heart valve All of the above

All of the above - most important is A-Fib

What is the effective therapeutic INR range for people taking Warfarin for disorders such as atrial fibrillation or a blood clot in the legs or lungs? 1.1 or below 1 to 2 2 to 3 S to 6 All of the above

2 to 3

A 46-year-old male with a medical history of hypertension complains of palpitations and dyspnea. His blood pressure is 124/8O and the heart rate is 11O. EKG shows following. What is the diagnosis? Atrial fibrillation Sinus tachycardia Sinus bradycardia Asystole

Atrial fibrillation

Which of the following risk factors helps with estimating the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation? Congestive heart failure Hypertension Age >7S years Diabetes mellitus Prior stroke or TIA or Thromboembolism All of the above

All of the above C (ongestive heart failure) H (ypertension) A (age >75) D (iabetes Mellitus) S (troke)

Which of the following is the drug choice in the treatment of atrial fibrillation? Anticoagulant Thrombolytics COX inhibitors Antipsychotic

Anticoagulant

Which of the following drugs treats atrial fibrillation? Warfarin (Coumadin®), Rivaroxaban (Xarelto®) Clopidogrel (Plavix®), Aspirin Alteplase (tPA), Streptokinase Celecoxib (Celebrex®), Meloxicam (Mobic®)

Warfarin (Coumadin®), Rivaroxaban (Xarelto®)

Too much vitamin___ in your diet can lower the effect of Warfarin (Coumadin ). Avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables (kale, spinach, brussels sprouts, parsley, collar greens, mustard greens, endive), as many of them contain large amount of vitamin _____

Vitamin K

Which of the following herbs can potentiate the effect of Warfarin (Coumadin®)? Dang Gui (Radix Angelicae Sinensis) Dan Shen (Radix et Rhizoma Salviae Miltiorrhizae) Chuan Xiong (Rhizoma Chuanxiong) All of the above

All of the above

What is a blood clot attached to wall of a vein or artery? Thrombus Embolus

Thrombus

What is a foreign object, such as a blood clot or tissue, that is circulating in the blood stream? Thrombus Embolus

Embolus

Which of the following anti-thrombotics can dissolve an already formed thrombus? Anticoagulant Antiplatelets Thrombolytics

Thrombolytics

Which of the following drugs works by making platelets less able to stick together? Heparin Enoxaparin (Lovenox®) Warfarin (Coumadin®) Clopidogrel (Plavix®)

Clopidogrel (Plavix®)

A 6S-year-old male with a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, congestive heart failure, and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency room with complaints of sudden weakness of the left arms and legs, slurred speech, and loss of balance and coordination. The patient states that his symptoms started two hours ago. A Head CT scan ruled out evidence of bleeding. The patient reports no history of a bleeding disorder. Which of the following "clot buster" drug can be used? heparin warfarin aspirin clopidogrel tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

A 51-year-old female complains of hot flashes, vaginal atrophy and dryness, insomnia, anxiety, irritability, poor concentration, mood changes, dyspareunia, and loss of libido. Which of the following elevated hormone levels are measured to confirm menopause? Estrogen FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) Progesterone Testosterone

FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

Once a women is postmenopausal, she should be routinely screened for osteoporosis. ______ is used to measure bone mineral density (BMD). CT scan MRI DEXA scan Doppler Ultrasound

DEXA scan

A barium enema is an X-ray exam that can detect changes or abnormalities in the ______. Esophagus Stomach Duodenum Colon

Colon

A barium enema is also called: Upper GI Tract X-ray Radiography Lower GI Tract X-ray Radiography Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry Computed tomography Magnetic resonance imaging

Lower GI Tract X-ray Radiography

A 40-year-old male with history of gallstones presents to the ER with severe epigastirc pain for the last few hours. The pain radiates to the back and is relieved by sitting forward. He also presents with nausea, vomiting, and fever. He was drinking a lot until late last night. What is the most likely diagnosis? Acute pancreatitis Appendicitis Cholecystitis Celiac disease

Acute pancreatitis

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis? Ethanol, Trauma Gallstone, Ethanol Steroid, Mumps Scorpion sting, Hypertriglyceridemia

Gallstone, Ethanol

Lipase and Amylase are elevated in: Cholecystitis Appendicitis Pancreatitis Morton's neuroma

Pancreatitis

What are the 3 main causes for Acute Pancreatitis?

G (allstones) E (thanol Alcohol) T (rauma) S teroids M umps virus A utoimmune disease S corpion stings H ypertriglycerdiema E RCP (endoscopic retrograde) D rugs

What are the symptoms for Acute Pancreatitis?

Presents with abdominal pain - typically in the 'midepigastric region' - that 'radiates to the back', may be 'relieved by sitting forward', and lasts hours to days. Nausea, vomiting, and fever are also common

What are the signs & symptoms for chronic pancreatitis in adults?

Pancreatic insufficiency, 'steatorrhea', fat-soluble vitamin deficiency, 'diabetes mellitus', increased risk of pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 'calcification of pancreatitis'

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis in adult? Alcohol Gallstone Trauma

Alcohol (the other 2 are also causes, but not the MOST common)

A 62-year-old female with a history of 'chronic alcohol abuse' complains of persistent, recurrent episodes of severe abdominal pain for last six months. She also presents with "anorexia, nausea, steatorrhea", weight loss, and "diabetes mellitus". A CT scan reveals "pancreatic calcifications". What is the most likely diagnosis? Peptic ulcer disease Ulcerative colitis Acute pancreatitis Chronic pancreatitis

Chronic pancreatitis

What are the treatment options for chronic pancreatitis? Analgesia Pancreatic enzyme replacement Avoidance of alcohol Surgery for structural causes All of the above

All of the above

What are the signs/symptoms of Impetigo?

Presents with well-localized vesicles filled with serous fluid, usually in exposed areas of the skin. The vesicles rapture, leaving a thin yellow "honey-colored" crusts.

A 10-year-old male presents with yellowish crusts on the face, arms, and legs. The lesions are painful and itchy at times. On physical exam, well-localized vesicles and honey-colored scabs are found on the lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis? Impetigo Erysipelas Cellulitis folliculitis

Impetigo

What is the treatment option for patient with Impetigo? Topical corticosteroids ointment Topical mupirocin ointment Oral Clindamyci Oral Doxycycline

Topical mupirocin ointment

A 52-year-old female with a medical history of diabetes and IV drug use presents with "red, hot, swollen", tender skin in the right lower leg as well as a fever. Her tongue is red with a yellow coating; the pulse is wiry and rapid. What is the most likely diagnosis? Impetigo Stasis dermatitis Cellulitis Necrotizing fasciilitis

Cellulitis

What is the risk factor for cellulitis? Diabetes IV drug use Venous stasis Immune compromise All of the above

All of the above

What are the S/Sx of celiac disease (SPRUE)?

Lead to malabsorption with chronic diarrhea, "steatorrhea and weight loss" Also present with nausea, abdominal pain, iron-deficiency anemia, muscle wasting, and osteoporosis Associated with dermatits herpetiformis and an risk of increased GI malignancies

Oscar is a 39-year-old white male who complains of chronic diarrhea. He states that his symptoms get worse when he eats specific foods such as wheat or rye. He also presents with steatorrhea, nausea, and weight loss. He has a chronic blistering skin condition which is intensely itchy and was recently diagnosed with dermatitis herpetiformis by a dermatologist. A biopsy of the small intestine reveals flattening of the villi. What is the most likely diagnosis? Lactose intolerance Irritable bowel syndrome Celiac disease Ulcerative colitis

Celiac disease

What is the most appropriate long-term treatment for celiac disease? Lactose-free diet Gluten-free diet Fiber supplements Topical antibiotics

Gluten-free diet

Aortic aneurysms are most commonly associated with: atherosclerosis hypertension cuban cigars kentucky bourbon

atherosclerosis

What is the screening test of choice for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)? Barium enema abdominal ultrasound MRI CT scam

abdominal ultrasound

Which of the following patient should be screened for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)? 45-55 years of age, for any male or female 45-55 years of age, for male who have ever smoked 65-75 years of age, for any male or female 65-75 years of age, for male who have ever smoked

65-75 years of age, for male who have ever smoked

Which of the following sizes of abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) is a candidate for surgical repair? > 1.5 cm > 2.5 cm > 5.5 cm > 7.5 cm

> 5.5 cm

Aortic dissections are most commonly associated with: atherosclerosis hypertension diabetes mellitus history of IV drug use

hypertension

A 69-year-old male with a past medical history of uncontrolled "hypertension" presents to the ER with severe, tearing chest pain that radiates to his back. His current BP is "180/110" with HR 90. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Aortic dissections Aortic aneurysm Cardiac tamponade Pericarditis

Aortic dissections

What is the MCV range for macroocytic anemia? MCV < 80 MCV 80-100 MCV > 100 MCV > 1000

MCV > 100

Vitamin B12 deficiency causes _______ anemia. Mircocytic Normocytic Macrocytic

Macrocytic

Lab reveals increased homocystein and methymalonic acid (MMA). Which of the following is the correct diagnosis? Folate (B9) deficiency Cobalamin (B12) deficiency Iron deficiency anemia

Cobalamin (B12) deficiency

MCV (mean corpuscular volume) is the average volume of red cells. Which of the following is the possible MCV for pernicious anemia? 30 60 90 120

120

Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause (associated with) megaloblastic anemia and pernicious anemia? Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency Vitamin B9 (folic acid) deficiency Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

Hysteroscopy is a procedure that allows a physician to look inside of the . Bladder Cervix Uterus Cecum

Uterus

Colposcopy is a procedure to closely examine the . Bladder Cervix Uterus Cecum

Cervix

Cystoscopy is a procedure that allows a physician to look inside of the . Bladder Cervix Uterus Cecum

Bladder

What is the order of Meninges from outer- most to inner-most? Arachnoid - Pia - Dura Dura - Arachnoid - Pia Dura - Pia - Arachnoid Pia - Arachnoid - Dura

Dura - Arachnoid - Pia

Which of the following is the most superficial level of intracranial bleeding? Epidural hematoma Subdural hematoma Subarachnoid hemorrhage lntracerebral hemorrhage

Epidural hematoma

What kind of headache is related to the subarachnoid hemorrhage? What diagnosis?

Thunderclap headache (worse type of HA), connected to Berry aneurism (circle of willis). CTscan without contrast and lumbar puncture if CT is negative.

What are some causes for Epidural hematoma

lucid interval (in and out of consciousness), trauma, biconvex shape in CT scan

A 17-year-old male was hit on the temple with a baseball and he became unconscious. After about ten minutes, he regained consciousness, but he soon became lethargic, and over the next two hours, he was stuporous. His pupils were unequal. Urgent CT scan likely reveals: Epidural hematoma Subdural hematoma Subarachnoid hemorrhage lntracerebral hemorrhage

Epidural hematoma lucid interval = lose consciousness, then regained consciousness, then stuporous

What is the most appropriate treatment option for epidural hematoma? Surgical evacuation Acupuncture at DU20 and DU16 Acupuncture at LV3 and UB67 Moxa at Si Shen Cong

Surgical evacuation

A 65-year-old man presents to ER with severe headache started a hour ago. Patient states that "it is the worst headache of my life". He also presents with vomiting, neck stiffness, and photophobia. What is the likely diagnosis? Epidural hematoma Subdural hematoma Subarachnoid hemorrhage lntracerebral hemorrhage

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Rupture of Berry aneurysm can lead to: Subarachnoid hemorrhage lntracerebral hemorrhage Subdural hematoma Epidural hematoma

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A 76-year-old male with a medical history of alcohol abuse presents with a headache, altered mental status, and hemiparesis. Patient diagnosed with subdural hematoma after the CT scan. Head CT scan likely shows: Triangle-shaped Biconvex-shaped Lens-shaped Crescent-shaped

Crescent-shaped

Taste fibers from the anterior two-third of the tongue travel via cranial nerve . 3 7 9 10

Taste fibers from the posterior one-third of the tongue travel via cranial nerve . V Vll lX X

Which of the following cranial nerve do NOT contain taste fibers? Cranial Nerve 7 Cranial Nerve 9 Cranial Nerve 10 Cranial Nerve 12

Cranial Nerve 12

Which cranial nerve innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue? CN V CN Vll CN lX CN Xll

CN Xll

What happens when CN9 (glossopharyngeal nerve) is damaged?

Decreased sense of taste and salivation, diminished or inhibits gag reflex, weak cough reflex

What happens when CN10 (glossopharyngeal nerve) is damaged?

Difficulty swallowing, nasal regurgitation, reduced or lost gag reflex. Hoarse, breathy, wet, voice. lnability to vary pitch

What happens when CN12 (glossopharyngeal nerve) is damaged?

lnability to position food for chewing, resulting in food getting pocketed in cheeks.

Which of the following cranial nerve does NOT involve with swallowing? Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9) Vagus nerve (CN10) Accessory nerve (CN11) Hypoglossal nerve (CN12)

Accessory nerve (CN11}

A 35-year-old college student presents with abdominal discomfort. She complains of incomplete relief with defecation, abdominal bloating, excess gas, intermittent diarrhea or constipation. She is highly stressed due to studying for her final exam. Colonoscopy result were unremarkable. Upon history, this patient most likely suffer from: Colon cancer Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis lrritable bowel syndrome (lBS)

lrritable bowel syndrome (lBS)

A 30-year-old woman complains of vague, crampy abdominal pain that is mitigated with defecation. The patient is concerned that her illness may be serious and is worried that her children may be taken away from her, as she recently divorced and is now a single mother. What is the likely diagnosis? lrritable bowel syndrome Celiac Sprue Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis

lrritable bowel syndrome

Half of all patients with lBS have comorbid _________ disturbance. Cardiac Pulmonic Hematologic Psychiatric

Psychiatric

Which of the following is NOT an treatment option for lrritable Bowel Syndrome? Psychological Dietary Pharmacologic Surgery

Surgery

lnflammatory bowel disease (lBD) is an umbrella term used to describe disorders that involve chronic inflammation of your digestive tract. Types of lBD include: lrritable bowel syndrome Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis A & B B & C

B & C

A 27-year-old man comes to your office complaining of diarrhea and weight loss. He states that his diarrhea often contains mucus but denies any blood in his stool. He also describes having difficulty eating food because of ulcers in his mouth. What is the likely diagnosis? lrritable bowel syndrome Ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease Gastritis

Crohn's disease biomed5

Leonardo is a 36-year-old man who owns his own company. He has been used to working long hours. He likes junk food, the hotter and spicier, the better. Lately he has been having bouts of diarrhea, especially after Chinese dinners. He also complains of nausea, abdominal cramps, and saw blood in the toilet. What is the likely diagnosis? lrritable bowel syndrome Ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease Gastritis

Crohn's disease biomed5 Blood and mucus in stool with left lower quadrant pain

What are the parts of the small intestine in order? Jejunum - lleum - Duodenum lleum - Jejunum - Duodenum Duodenum - lleum - Jejunum Duodenum - Jejunum - lleum

Duodenum - Jejunum - lleum biomed5

Rheumatoid arthritis most commonly affects and the age of onset is usually between women, 20-50 men, 20-50 women, 60-80 men, 60-80

women, 60-80 biomed6

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Osteoarthritis? It is a chronic condition that can get worse with age Certain jobs or sports that involve repetitive motions can also lead to developing OA. It is triggered by an autoimmune disorder whereby harmful antibodies are produced that attack the healthy joint tissue in patients. Old injuries or ones that didn't heal properly can also increase the risk of developing OA.

It is triggered by an autoimmune disorder whereby harmful antibodies are produced that attack the healthy joint tissue in patients. biomed6

Common signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis include morning stiffness of _________ affecting the PIP, MCP, wrists and knees It is in ________ pattern > 30 minutes, asymmetrical > 30 minutes, symmetrical < 30 minutes, asymmetrical < 30 minutes, symmetrical

> 30 minutes, symmetrical biomed6

Which of the following joint involvement is more specific for Osteoarthritis compare to Rheumatoid arthritis? Wrist MCP (metacarpophalangeal} joint PIP (proximal interphalangeal} joint DIP (distal interphalangeal} joint

DIP (distal interphalangeal} joint biomed6

Heberden's node are hard or bony swelling that can develop in the______. They are a sign of Osteoarthritis and are caused by formation of osteophytes Wrist MCP joint PIP joint DIP joint

DIP joint biomed6

Bouchard's nodes are osteophytosis (bone spur formation) at the______. They are seen in OA, or RA Wrist MCP joint PIP joint DIP joint

PIP joint biomed6

Ulnar deviation is a hand deformity in which the swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints causes the fingers to become displaced, tending towards the little finger Ulnar deviation is likely to be a characteristic of___ Gout Pseudogout Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis biomed6

Swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity occurs in about SO percent of Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) Which deformity consists of DIP flexion with PIP hyperextension? Swan neck deformity Boutonniere deformity

Swan neck deformity biomed6

Boutonniere deformity is characterized by: hyperextension of DIP & PIP with flexion of MCP hyperextension of PIP & MCP with flexion of DIP hyperextension of DIP & MCP with flexion of PIP hyperextension of DIP, PIP & MCP

hyperextension of DIP & MCP with flexion of PIP biomed6

A 7S-year-old patient presents to your office complaining of pain in his left hand He complains of pain in his fingers that becomes worse throughout the day as he works in the garden On physical examination, you note bony overgrowth at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. The most likely diagnosis is: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Psoriatic arthritis Osteoporosis Osteomyelitis

Osteoarthritis biomed6

A 39-year-old female is seen for a 3-months history of fatigue, weight loss and intermittent low-grade fever Over the past 6 weeks, she has also noticed multiple joint stiffness both sides, particularly in the morning lasting about an hour On physical exam, you note tenderness, pain and warmth of bilateral proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints, wrists, and knees Lab revealed increased serum erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The most likely diagnosis is: Gout Pseudogout Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis biomed6

Which of the following lab test is most specific for Rheumatoid arthritis? RF (Rheumatoid factor) Anti-CCP (anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibody ESR (Erythrocyte sedimentation rate) CRP (C-Reactive protein}

Anti-CCP (anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibody biomed6

Which of the following drug slow down disease progression of Rheumatoid Arthritis? NSAIDs Colchicine Allopurinol DMARD

DMARD biomed6

Which of the following is NOT an pharmaceutical treatment option for Rheumatoid arthritis? DMARD NSAIDs Corticosteroids Antibiotics

Antibiotics biomed6

A 4O-year-old obese female was diagnosed with mild left knee osteoarthritis by radiographic finding What is the first-line treatment? Weight loss, physiotherapy, low-impact exercise Acetaminophen, NSAIDs Intra-articular corticosteroid or hyaluronic acid injection Joint replacement

Weight loss, physiotherapy, low-impact exercise biomed6

A S6-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis She has been taking NSAIDs prescribed by her family physician Two months later she started having abdominal pain that worsens with the consumption of food What is the likely diagnosis? NSAIDs inhibit the COX enzyme, which exists in two forms Gastric ulcer Duodenal ulcer Irritable bowel syndrome Crohn's disease

Gastric ulcer biomed6

Joint pain worse with activity and weight bearing but improve with rest, stiff joints, restricted joint motion, crepitus, Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes The above symptoms are most likely related to: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout Ankylosing spondylitis

Osteoarthritis biomed6

Symmetric joint swelling, morning stiffness > 1 hour, pain in wrist, MCP, and PIP joints, Boutonnieres and Swan-neck deformity. The above symptoms are most likely related to: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout Ankylosing spondylitis

Rheumatoid arthritis biomed6

Swollen tender and warm joints with sudden onset, podagra (1st MTP joint), tophi The above symptoms are most likely related to: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout Ankylosing spondylitis

Gout biomed6

Hip pain, lower back pain that worsens with inactivity and in the morning, Radiography shows fused sacroiliac joint and bamboo spine The above symptoms are most likely related to: Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout Ankylosing spondylitis

Ankylosing spondylitis biomed6

What is the causative agent for whooping cough? Bordetella pertussis Epstein-Barr virus Rubella virus Rotavirus

Bordetella pertussis biomed7

Pertussis is spread through: Bloodborne transmission Airborne transmission Contaminated water Feces

Airborne transmission biomed7

Pertussis is a highly contagious respiratory infection that causes uncontrollable, violent coughing. Pertussis can be prevented by: MMR vaccine DTaP vaccine HPV vaccine Rotavirus vaccine

DTaP vaccine biomed7

Which of the following is a booster immunization given at age 10 to 64 that offers continued protection from pertussis. DTaP vaccine Tdap vaccine Td vaccine

Tdap vaccine biomed7

A 23-year-old college student who was seen in your office two weeks ago for rhinitis, sneezing, and cough returns to the clinic complaining of worsening symptoms. She says the cough is now paroxysmal and followed by sweating. Today her cough was followed by emesis. Laboratory studies reveal lymphocytosis. Chest X-ray is clear. The most likely etiological organism is: Mycoplasma pneumonia Bordetella pertussis Chlamydia psittaci Haemophilus influenza Klebsiella pneumonia

Bordetella pertussis biomed7

Reye syndrome occurs when children are given _______ during a varicella or upper respiratory infection. It manifests as heavy vomiting, delirium, and fatty liver followed by coma. Acetaminophen {Tylenol) Acetylsalicylate acid {Aspirin) Acyclovir {Zovirax) Oseltamivir {Tamiflu)

Acetylsalicylate acid {Aspirin) biomed7

A 20-year-old female develops migraine after drinking red wine. Which of the following drug can be used for migraine prophylaxis? Lisinopril {Zestril) Losartan {Cozar) Propranolol {Inderal) Furosemide {Lasix)

Propranolol {Inderal) biomed7

Which of the following class of medications can be used for migraine prevention? ACE inhibitor ARB Beta blockers Diuretic

Beta blockers biomed7

What is the mechanism of action for OCPs (oral contraceptives)? Inhibit FSH Inhibit LH Inhibit FSH and LH Foreign body results in inflammation

Inhibit FSH and LH biomed7

A 9-year-old otherwise healthy female is rushed to the hospital with the complaint of delirium and vomiting. History reveals that the patient had an upper respiratory tract infection last week that was treated at home with aspirin. Physical examination is remarkable for hepatomegaly. The patient experiences a seizure while in the emergency room. The most likely diagnosis is Febrile seizure Cerebral palsy Meningitis Reye syndrome

Reye syndrome biomed7

Hirsutism is excessive body hair on parts of the body where hair is normally absent or minimal. The most common cause of female hirsutism is: Pregnancy Adrenal gland tumors Polycystic ovary syndrome hCG-secreting tumors

Polycystic ovary syndrome biomed7

A 21-year-old obese female is seen in the clinic with the complaint of excessive body hair for the last 15 months. Her menstrual periods were irregular but approximately every 45-48 days. Physical examination reveals dark hair on her upper lip and lower abdomen. LH/FSH ratio is 3:1. The most likely diagnosis is: Ovarian tumors Polycystic ovarian syndrome Endometriosis Cushing's syndrome

Polycystic ovarian syndrome biomed7

Which of the following pharmaceutical agents does NOT indicate hyperthyroidism? Propranolol Methimazole or Propylthiouracil Radioactive 131I thyroid ablation levothyroxine

levothyroxine biomed7

_______, also known as toxic diffuse goiter, is an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid. It frequently results in and is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Grave's disease Thyroid storm Hashimoto's thyroiditis Myxedema coma

Grave's disease biomed7

________is defined as severe hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status, hypothermia, and other symptoms related to slowing of function in multiple organs. It is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate. Thyroid storm {a.k.a. Thyrotoxic crisis) Myxedema coma {a.k.a. Myxedema crisis)

Myxedema coma {a.k.a. Myxedema crisis) biomed7

A 30-year-old woman presenting with weight loss and heat intolerance is found to be tachycardic. Labs reveal a suppressed TSH and an increased T4 level. What is the most common cause of these findings? Grave's disease Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Grave's disease biomed7

A 32-year-old female presents to the office complaining of heavy menstrual bleeding for two weeks. Further history reveals the patient recently started using extra blankets to keep warm in the evenings. She also admits to fatigue and recent depressed mood. Laboratory studies reveal high TSH and low T4 levels. Physical examination reveals painless thyroid enlargement. The most likely diagnosis is Hashimoto's thyroiditis Graves' disease Hyperthyroidism Thyroid storm

Hashimoto's thyroiditis biomed7

A 34-year-old female is being evaluated for altered mental status. Her son states that she has been confused for the past two hours. She is alert and orient only to place. Physical examination is significant for a temperature of 96.2F, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 6.The blood sugar is normal. Noncompliance with which of the following medications most likely caused this condition? Propranolol Methimazole Levothyroxine Insulin

Levothyroxine (hypothyroidism) biomed7

________ is mainstay of symptomatic therapy for thyroid storm; antiadrenergic effects block effects of excess thyroid hormone. _________ also plays a role in the prevention of peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. IV calcium channel blocker IV alpha-blocker IV beta-blocker IV levothyroxine

IV beta-blocker biomed7

If one drinks a lot of juice while taking certain statin drugs to lower cholesterol, too much of the drug may stay in your body, increasing your risk for liver damage and muscle breakdown that can lead to kidney failure. Grapefruit Apple Orange

Grapefruit biomed8

Which of the following drugs act by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase? Levodopa Paroxetine Warfarin Statins

Statins biomed8

What are the side effects of -statins?

muscle pain increase liver enzyme - causing liver inflammation increased blood sugar or type 2 diabetes neurological effects biomed8

Which of the following is NOT a common risk of Statins? Liver damage Muscle injury Diabetes Facial flushing

Facial flushing biomed8

Statin use may damage which of the following organs? Heart Spleen Liver Lung

Liver biomed8

One of the most common complaints of people taking statin is: Muscle pain hypotension GI Bleeding bradycardia

Muscle pain biomed8

What is the most common cause of Chronic Kidney Disease? Hypertension Diabetes Mellitus Glomerulonephritis Polycystic kidney disease

Diabetes Mellitus biomed8

____________have been shown to decrease the progression of chronic kidney disease. Ibuprofen (Advil) Naproxen (Aleve) Celecoxib (Celebrex) ACE inhibitor

ACE inhibitor biomed8

Which of the following class of drugs improve diabetic nephropathy? Thiazide diuretic ACE inhibitor Statins

ACE inhibitor biomed8

Which of the following is an common adverse effect of ACE inhibitor? Myalgia Liver damage Dry cough

Dry cough biomed8

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitor? Myalgia Liver damage Dry Cough

Dry Cough biomed8

Calcitonin, which is released from the thyroid gland, _____blood calcium levels. Increases decreases

decreases biomed8

Calcitonin decreases blood calcium levels by _________ osteoclasts, ________ osteoblasts, and stimulating calcium excretion by the kidneys. Inhibiting, inhibiting Stimulating, stimulating Stimulating, inhabiting Inhibiting, stimulating

Inhibiting, stimulating biomed8

Which of the following hormones increase the blood calcium level by increasing absorption of calcium from food by intestines? Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone Melatonin Renin

Parathyroid hormone biomed8

What is the most common cause of scapular winging? Trapezius paralysis Levator scapulae paralysis Serratus anterior paralysis Rhomboid major paralysis

Serratus anterior paralysis biomed8

The most common cause of scapular winging is serratus anterior paralysis. This is typically caused by damage to the . Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) Long thoracic nerve Dorsal scapular nerve

Long thoracic nerve biomed8

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) acts as a cushion or buffer for the brain. CSF occupies the space and the ventricular system around and inside the brain and spinal cord. Epidural Subdural Subarachnoid

Subarachnoid biomed8

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap) can help diagnose all of the following EXCEPT: Meningitis Hydrocephalus Subarachnoid hemorrhage Epidural hematoma

Epidural hematoma biomed8

Which of the following is NOT a indication of oral corticosteroid? Asthma Rheumatoid arthritis Addison's disease Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis biomed9

The treatment for Addison's disease involves hormone replacement therapy to correct the levels of ______ hormones one's body is not producing. Steroid Thyroid Insulin

Steroid biomed9

Which of the following medications increases the risk of osteoporosis? bisphosphonates corticosteroid antibiotics NSAIDs anti-hypertensive

corticosteroid biomed9

_______ are a class of drugs that prevent the loss of bone density, used to treat osteoporosis. bisphosphonates corticosteroid antibiotics

bisphosphonates biomed9

A female patient presents to the office complaining that her upper eyelids appear droopy and she feels unilateral proximal muscle weakness at the end of each day. The most likely diagnosis is: Myasthenia Gravis Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome Multiple Sclerosis Guillain-Barre Syndrome Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

Myasthenia Gravis biomed9

A male patient presents with muscle weakness experienced at the end of each day. He also complains of ptosis and diplopia. History reveals that these complaints are usually not present for the first few hours of each morning. You suspect the patient has Myasthenia Gravis. Which of the following is the a great test to use at bedside for patients with ptosis? Edrophonium (Tensilon test) Ice-pack test Single-fiber electromyography Ach receptor antibodies

Ice-pack test biomed9

A female patient says that at the end of each day, her upper eyelids become droopy and she experiences proximal muscle weakness. Diagnosis confirms Myasthenia Gravis. The most likely pathophysiology is autoantibodies against: Pre-synaptic Calcium channel Post-synaptic Calcium channel Pre-synaptic acetylcholine receptor Post-synaptic acetylcholine receptor

Post-synaptic acetylcholine receptor biomed9

A 31-year old man complains that when he looks up to catch a baseball, he sees 2 balls and cannot make the catch. Exam shows ptosis and weakness in all extraocular muscles. He also complains of generalized fatigue. What is the most likely diagnosis? Strabismus Esotropia Exotropia Myasthenia Gravis

Myasthenia Gravis biomed9

Which of the following creatine kinase is a cardiac marker used to assist diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction? CK-BB CK-MB CK-MM

CK-MB biomed9

Which of the following is the most sensitive and specific test for myocardial damage? Troponin CK-MB Myoglobin Lactate dehydrogenase

Troponin biomed9

Which of the following cardiac enzyme is useful for diagnosis myocardial reinfarction? Troponin CK-MB

CK-MB biomed9

A 21-year-old primigravida at 30 weeks gestation is seen at the clinic for routine prenatal examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Physical exam reveals a mild ankle edema and blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg on repeat test. Urine dipstick reveals 2+ proteinuria. The most likely diagnosis is: HELLP syndrome Gestational hypertension Chronic hypertension Preeclampsia Eclampsia

Preeclampsia - since there is no seizures biomed9

A 23-year-old female at 33 weeks gestation who was diagnosed with preeclampsia at 24 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency room by her husband. He states that he witnessed a grand mal seizure a few minutes earlier. The most likely diagnosis is: Preeclampsia Eclampsia HELLP syndrome Hyperemesis gravidarum

Eclampsia bviomed9

A 2-year-old child is brought to your office for a bloody nose. On physical examination, you note unilateral nasal discharge with a foul smell. The most likely diagnosis is Bacterial sinusitis Viral sinusitis Cystic fibrosis Foreign body Nasal polyp

Foreign body biomed9

Which of the following is a first aid procedure used to treat upper airway obstructions by foreign objects? CPR Heimlich maneuver

Heimlich maneuver biomed9

A 2-year-old boy brought to you by a mother for sudden onset cough and wheezing started today while eating breakfast. Mother said that her older son has asthma and TCM treatment works well. The boy does not have rhinorrhea, fever, or Gl symptoms. Which of the following must be ruled out first? Foreign body aspiration Acute asthma attack Acute bronchitis

Foreign body aspiration

Foreign body aspiration is a common cause of mortality and morbidity in children, especially in those younger than years of age. One Two Three Four

Two biomed9

Before the 20th century, aspiration of an foreign body had a 24 percent mortality rate. With the development of modern techniques, mortality has fallen dramatically. Bronchoscopy Colposcopy Cystoscopy Endoscopy

Bronchoscopy biomed9

Which of the following pneumonia occurs when food, saliva, liquids, or vomit is breathed into the lungs or airways? Viral pneumonia Fungal pneumonia Bacterial pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia

Aspiration pneumonia biomed9

The _________ middle and lower lung lobes are the most common sites affected by aspiration pneumonia, due to the larger caliber and more vertical orientation of the right mainstem bronchus. Aspiration pneumonia Right Left

Right biomed9

The Trendelenburg gait pattern is an abnormal gait caused by weakness of the ________ muscles of the lower limb, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus. Abductor Adductor Flexor Extensor

Abductor biomed10

The Trendelenburg gait pattern is also known as Gluteus maximus lurch Gluteus medius lurch

Gluteus medius lurch biomed10

The gluteus medius muscles and gluteus minimus muscle are innervated by Inferior gluteal nerve Superior gluteal nerve

Superior gluteal nerve biomed10

The Trendelenburg gait is found in people with weak abductor muscles of the hip which are supplied by the Sciatic nerve Pudendal nerve Interior gluteal nerve Superior gluteal nerve

Superior gluteal nerve biomed10

TRENDELENBURG SIGN: If the patient has weakness of the RIGHT side of the pelvis and when the patient stands on RIGHT side, the pelvis on side will drop. RIGHT LEFT

LEFT biomed10

A positive Trendelenburg sign occurs when there is dysfunction of muscle and the body is unable to maintain the center of gravity on the side of the stance leg. Extensor Flexor Abductor Adductor

Abductor biomed10

A 42-year-old patient complains of unbalanced hip movement during walking, running, and jumping. Physical exam reveals Trendelenburg sign positive as picture shown below. Which of the following is the correct interpretation? (image: standing on right leg, left hip is tilted down when foot is raised) Right gluteus maxiums weakens Right gluteus medius weakness Left gluteus maximus weakness Left gluteus medius weakness

Right gluteus medius weakness biomed10

Many people on ketogenic diets and similar diets, such as the Atkins diet, report that their breath takes on a _______ smell because the ketone acetone is partly expelled via your breath. Bitter almonds Garlic Ammonia Fruity

Fruity biomed10

Ketoacidosis is most common in untreated Type 1 diabetes mellitus Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Type 1 diabetes mellitus biomed10

Ketoacidosis is a metabolic state associated with high concentrations of ketone bodies, formed by the breakdown of fatty acids and the deamination of amino acids. Ketoacidosis caused by Alcohol Starvation Diabetes All of the above

All of the above biomed10

if patient has vomiting, abdominal pain, deep gasping breathing (Kussmaul breathing), increased urination, weakness, confusion, and occasionally loss of consciousness, fruity breath. What is happening and what do you do?

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) Send to ER immediately biomed10

A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department because she was found by her roommate lying face down in her bedroom. At that time, she was difficulty to arouse and appeared very lethargic and confused. On arrival to the emergency room, the patient is unable to give medical history due to her mental state. Her roommate states that the patient has been losing weight and has been excessively tired. She states that the patient is a college student, and she does not believe that she has a history of drug or alcohol abuse. Patient presents with fruity breath odor, hyperpnea, nausea, abdominal pain, and excessive fatigue. Physical examination is within normal limits. Laboratory results are significant for sodium of 134 mEq/L, potassium of 5.8 mEq/L, chloride of 97 mEq/L, bicarbonate of 19.2 mEq/L, and glucose of 623 mg/dL. A urinalysis is significant for glucose and ketones. A urine drug screen is negative. The most likely diagnosis is: Drug abuse Diabetic ketoacidosis Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State Acute Pancreatitis

Diabetic ketoacidosis biomed 10

A 23-year-old patient brought to your office with complains of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and excessive fatigue. Patient appears extremely dehydrated. Patient's breath smells sweet and fruity. Patient present with deep and labored breathing. Blood pressure is 125/82 mmHg with heart rate 80. Blood glucose was 480 mg/dL measured by glucometer. What is the proper management for this patient? Needle Wei Guan Xia Shu with strong stimulation Prescribe Yu Quan Wan (Jade spring pill) Make an appointment with endocrinologist for the following week Send patient to emergency department

Send patient to emergency department biomed10

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS), also known as Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) is a dangerous condition resulting from very high blood glucose levels. HHNS can affect both types of diabetics, yet it usually occurs amongst people with diabetes. Type 1 Type 2

Type 2 biomed 10

Which of the following is the most important treatment goal for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)? To vigorously rehydrate the patient while maintaining electrolyte homeostasis To correct hyperglycemia To treat underlying diseases To monitor and assist cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, and central nervous system (CNS) functions

To vigorously rehydrate the patient while maintaining electrolyte homeostasis biomed10

Which of the following types of diabetes is due to autoimmune pancreatic beta cell destruction, leading to insulin deficiency and abnormal glucose metabolism? Type I Type II

Type I biomed10

Which of the following types of diabetes is a dysfunction in glucose metabolism due to varying degrees of insulin resistance in peripheral tissues that may ultimately lead to beta-cell failure and complete insulin dependence? Type I Type II

Type II biomed10

A 32-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. Physical exam reveals afebrile female in mild distress with tender nodularity on the uterosacral ligaments. Urine b-hCG is negative. The most likely diagnosis is: PCOS Endometriosis Ectopic pregnancy

Endometriosis biomed 11

What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of the above disease? Pelvic ultrasound Magnetic resonance imaging Laparoscopy CT scan of abdomen

Laparoscopy biomed11

A 29-year-old female is being evaluated for abdominal pain and fever on post-operative day two following an emergency cesarean section. She presents with a foul- smelling lochia. Vitals signs include a temperature of 101.7F, heart rate of 108 bpm and blood pressure of 110/77 mmHg. Physical examination reveals breast engorgement without pain. The fundus is firm and tender. Urinalysis is unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is: UTI Mastitis Endometriosis Endometritis

Endometritis biomed11

A 3-year-old boy with a past medical history of eczema presents with wheezing and labored breathing for one hour. He was diagnosed with acute asthma exacerbation. What is the first-line treatment? Albuterol (short acting beta-2 agonist) Salmeterol (long acting beta-2 agonist) Budesonide (inhaled steroid) Budesonide/Formoterol (steroid + LABA)

Albuterol (short acting beta-2 agonist) biomed11

The MMR vaccine is an immunization vaccine against all of the following EXCEPT Epidemic parotitis (mumps) Rubeola German measles Pertussis

Pertussis biomed11

A 10-year-old presents with a four day history of cough, coryza and conjunctivitis and several grey spots on the buccal mucosa. Today a maculopapular rash started on his face and is spreading to his neck. The most likely diagnosis: Measles Rubella Mumps Roseola

Measles biomed11

A 5-year-old child is brought to the office with fever, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis. On physical exam, you note an erythematous and maculopapular rash and blue-white spots on the buccal mucosa. Question 1 of 3 in set Which one below is the most likely diagnosis EXCEPT: Rubeola Measles 9-day measles German measles

German measles biomed11

Question 2 of 3 in set Which of the following treatments has shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in patients affected by this condition (measles)? Acyclovir Erythromycin Vitamin A MMR vaccine

Vitamin A biomed11

The patient (w measles) should be advised to Return to school 1 days after the onset of the rash Return to school 5 days after the onset of the rash Be placed in a new school

Return to school 5 days after the onset of the rash biomed11

A 5-year-old male presents with a maculopapular rash that started on his face and is spreading to his neck and extremities. He says that he has been experiencing a lot of "bone pain". On physical exam, you note suboccipital lymphadenopathy. Measles Rubella Mumps Roseola

Rubella biomed11

Which of the following viruses can cause severe birth defects if a pregnant woman becomes infected? Rubeola Rubella

Rubella biomed11

Which of the following infections does NOT belong to TORCH infections which is a acronym for a set of perinatal infections? Toxoplasmosis Syphilis, hepatitis, HIV Rubeola Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Herpes simplex (HSV)

Rubeola - Rubella not rubeola biomed11

During a medical relief trip to the Congo in Central Africa, a 3-year-old boy presents with right sided flaccid paralysis and absent deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following channels are used for this disorder EXCEPT: Yangming channel Shaoyang channel Taiyang channel Du channel Ren channel

Ren channel biomed11

Which of the following is the result from taking drugs or substance repeatedly? Tolerance Dependence Addiction All of the above

All of the above biomed11

It takes a higher dose of the drug to achieve the same effect as when the person first used it. Tolerance Dependence Addiction

Tolerance biomed11

When a person stops using a drug, their body goes through "withdrawal". Tolerance Dependence Addiction

Addiction biomed11

What is the correct terminology for "physical adaption to a drug which leads to the withdrawal and/or tolerance"? Physical dependence Psychological dependence

Physical dependence

What is the correct terminology for "behavioral drug-seeking adaption to a drug with impaired control over drug use"? Dependence Addiction

Addiction biomed11

Temporary maladaptive experience of behavioral or psychological changes due to the accumulation of the substance in the body. Substance intoxication Substance withdrawal

Substance intoxication biomed11

The group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. Substance intoxication Substance withdrawal

Substance withdrawal biomed11

Restlessness, insomnia, diuresis, muscle twitching, arrhythmias, psychomotor agitation. Caffeine intoxication Caffeine withdrawal

Caffeine intoxication biomed11

Headache, lethargy, depression, weight gain, irritability, craving. Caffeine intoxication Caffeine withdrawal

Caffeine withdrawal biomed11

Irritability, headache, anxiety, weight gain, craving. Nicotine intoxication Nicotine withdrawal

Nicotine withdrawal biomed11

Restlessness, insomnia, anxiety. Nicotine intoxication Nicotine withdrawal

Nicotine intoxication biomed11

Disinhibition/impaired judgement, emotional lability, slurred speech, ataxia, aggression, hypoglycemia, blackouts (retrograde amnesia), coma. Alcohol intoxication Alcohol withdrawal

Alcohol intoxication biomed11

Tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, malaise, nausea, seizures, Delirium Tremens, agitation, hallucination. May be life threatening and require hospitalization. Alcohol intoxication Alcohol withdrawal

Alcohol withdrawal biomed11

Irritability, anger, aggression, insomnia, disturbed dreams, decreased appetite, weight loss, depressed mood, shakiness/tremors, chills, headache. Marijuana intoxication Marijuana withdrawal

Marijuana withdrawal biomed11

Euphoria, slowed sense of time, impaired judgment, "heightened senses," social withdrawal, 1'appetite, dry mouth, diaphoresis, conjunctival injection, hallucinations, anxiety, paranoia, tachycardia, hypertension, amotivation. Marijuana intoxication Marijuana withdrawal

Marijuana intoxication biomed11

What are the correct symptoms for caffeine intoxication? Restlessness, insomnia, diuresis, muscle twitching, arrhythmias, psychomotor agitation. Restlessness, insomnia, anxiety. Impaired judgement, emotional lability, slurred speech, ataxia, aggression, hypoglycemia, blackouts, coma. Euphoria, slowed sense of time, impaired judgment, "heightened senses," 1'appetite, hallucinations, paranoia, tachycardia, amotivation.

Restlessness, insomnia, diuresis, muscle twitching, arrhythmias, psychomotor agitation. biomed11

What are the correct symptoms for alcohol withdrawal? Headache, lethargy, depression, weight gain, irritability, craving. Irritability, headache, anxiety, weight gain, craving. Tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, malaise, nausea, seizures, Delirium Tremens, agitation, hallucination. Anger, aggression, insomnia, disturbed dreams, decreased appetite, shakiness/tremors, chills, headache.

Tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, malaise, nausea, seizures, Delirium Tremens, agitation, hallucination. biomed11

Which one is NOT a symptom of opioids intoxication? CNS depression Respiratory depression Constipation Pupillary dilation

Pupillary dilation biomed11

Which of the following substances cause pupil constriction while intoxicated? Opioids (Percocet, Vicodin, oxycodone, heroin) LSD (mushrooms, acid) Cocaine

Opioids (Percocet, Vicodin, oxycodone, heroin) biomed11

A 77-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, COPD, and a 90-pack-year smoking history presents to your clinic for acupuncture treatment. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.5°F), BP is 82/54 mm Hg, pulse is 125/min, and RR is 16/min. A pulsatile abdominal mass is palpable just superior to the umbilicus. There is diffuse abdominal tenderness, although rebound tenderness and guarding are absent. There is also slight skin discoloration noted in the left lower back. What is your next course of action? Needle PC6 + SP4 combination Needle Four Doors: RN12, ST25, RN6 Cupping therapy on local region Send the patient to emergency department

Send the patient to emergency department AAA - Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm biomed12

A patient complains of abdominal pain with a pulsatile abdominal mass is palpable just superior to the umbilicus. Low back that's aggravated with defecation What is the diagnosis? Thoracic aortic aneurysms Abdominal aneurysm Pancreatitis Bowel obstruction

Abdominal aneurysm biomed12

A 62-year-old woman presents to the acupuncture clinic complaining of severe abdominal pain for the past 12 hours, first beginning as dull pain near the umbilicus but now localized to the right lower quadrant. She initially thought she was suffering from heartburn, but decided to come to the hospital because of the unrelenting pain. On examination the patient appears in distress secondary to pain, tachycardic, slightly hypotensive, and febrile at 39°C (102°F). She has a diffusely tender abdomen with point tenderness over her right lower quadrant, accompanied by guarding and rebound. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? Call 911 for emergent appendectomy Needle Lan Wei Xue Prescribe Da Huang Mu Dan Tang (Rhubarb and Moutan Decoction) Needle Lan Wei Xue and prescribe Da Huang Mu Dan Tang (Rhubarb and Moutan Decoction)

Call 911 for emergent appendectomy biomed12

Which of the following group of medications helps block excess acid production and provide longest relief? H2 blockers Proton Pump Inhibitor OTC Antiacids Beta 2 agonist

Proton Pump Inhibitor biomed12

Which of the following does NOT belong to Proton Pump Inhibitors? Omeprazole (Prilosec) Esomeprazole (Nexium) Pantoprazole (Protonix) Ranitidine (Zantac)

Ranitidine (Zantac) biomed12

Which one of the following does NOT belong to H2 blockers? Ranitidine (Zantac) Famotidine (Pepcid) Esomeprazole (Nexium) Cimetidine (Tagamet)

Esomeprazole (Nexium) biomed12

Which one of the following belongs to Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)? Famotidine Pantoprazole Tums Pepto-Bismol

Pantoprazole biomed12

Which group of medicines reduces the amount of acid produced by the cells in the lining of the stomach? H1 blockers H2 blockers H3 blockers H4 blockers

H2 blockers biomed12

Which of the following is a competitive H1 antagonist and is used for allergic reactions? Ranitidine (Zantac) Famotidine (Pepcid) Cimetidine (Tagamet) Loratadine (Claritin)

Loratadine (Claritin) biomed12

Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme expressed by various tissues and cell types. Clinically, creatine kinase is assayed in blood tests as a marker of damage of CK-rich tissue such as in myocardial infarction, rhabdomyolysis, muscular dystrophy, autoimmune myositides, and acute kidney injury. In a case of acute myocardial infarction, levels begin to rise begin to rise 5 to 6 hours after the onset of chest pain. CK-MM CK-MB CK-BB CK-HB

CK-MB biomed12

Assessing the active and passive range of motion are an important part of musculoskeletal physical exam. Which range of motion is attained by the examiner without the patient’s assistance? A. Active range of motion B. Assisted Active range of motion C. Passive range of motion D. A and B

C. Passive range of motion biomed12

Normally, _______is slightly greater than _____ because joints have a small amount of motion at the end range that is not under voluntary control. A. AROM, PROM B. PROM, AROM

B. PROM, AROM biomed12

Assessing and treating loss of knee extension range of motion is an important component for rehabilitation following any knee surgery. What is the normal range of motion of knee in full extension? A. 0 degree B. 90 degree C. 140 degree D. 180 degree

A. 0 degree biomed12

Degenerative joint diseases also known as ________, this type of arthritis is caused by breakdown and eventual loss of the cartilage of the joints. _______ is the most common type of arthritis and it usually affects the hands, feet, spine, and large weight-bearing joints, such as the hips and knees. Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Crystal arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis

Osteoarthritis biomed12

A 75-year-old males complains of right knee pain for the last 3 months. He states that he has trouble going up stairs due to pain. Physical exam revels decreased range of motion, crepitus, effusion, and tenderness on palpation at the joint line. There is no sign of redness and the joint is cool to touch. What is the diagnosis? Rheumatoid arthritis Septic arthritis Gout Degenerative Joint disease

Degenerative Joint disease biomed12

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless body fluid found in the brain and spinal cord. There is about 125 mL of CSF at any one time, and about 500 mL is generated every day. CSF occupies the __________ and the ventricular system and inside the brain and spinal cord. Epidural space Subdural space Subarachnoid space Subpia space

Subarachnoid space biomed12

Which of the following is caused by bleeding into the area between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater and causes thunderclap headache? Epidural hematoma Subdural hemorrhage Subarachnoid hemorrhage Intracerebral hemorrhage

Subarachnoid hemorrhage biomed12

Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of which of the following medications? Antipsychotics Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

Antipsychotics biomed12

Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, and multiple other biological effects. What is the side effect of Vitamin D when it is overdosed? considered non-toxic rough skin, hair loss burning flush on face and hands nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, constipation

nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, constipation biomed12

MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA is an anemia that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production and is characterized by red blood cells that are larger than normal. It's known that ____ or FOLATE deficiency causes MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA. Alcohol abuse Vitamin B12 Vitamin C Vitamin D

Vitamin B12 biomed12

Secondary hypertension is a type of hypertension which by definition is caused by an identifiable underlying primary cause. Which organ disease is a well known cause of secondary hypertensions? Pulmonary disease Hepatic disease Renal disease Gastrointestinal disease

Renal disease biomed12

A 63-year-old male who was diagnosed with large central disc herniation last year complains of lumbar and buttock pain, lower limb weakness, and perianal discomfort. Patient also reports bowel retention, urinary incontinence, and sexual dysfunction. Physical exam reveals saddle anesthesia including the back of the leg, buttocks, and soles of the feet. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? Needle UB40, DU3, UB23 Cupping on the lower back and buttock region Send patient home with Du Huo Ji Sheng Tang (Angelica Pubescens and Sangjisheng Decoction) Refer the patient to neuro surgery

Refer the patient to neuro surgery biomed12

The Babinski sign can indicate lesion constituting damage to the corticospinal tract. A. Upper Motor Neuron B. Lower Motor Neuron C. Interneuron D. Sensory neuron

B. Lower Motor Neuron biomed13

The Babinski reflex is one of the __________ reflexes in infants. The Babinski reflex occurs after the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked. The big toe then moves upward or toward the top surface of the foot. A. normal B. abnormal

A. normal biomed13

What part of the knee acts as shock absorbers to cushion the lower part of the leg from the weight of the rest of the body? A. anterior/posterior cruciate ligaments B. medial/lateral collateral ligaments C. medial/lateral menisci D. Patella

C. medial/lateral menisci D. Patella biomed13

The ______ is a rotational maneuver of the knee that is frequently used to aid in the diagnosis of meniscal tears. A. Lachman’s test B. Anterior drawer test C. Pivot shift test D. McMurray’s test

D. McMurray’s test biomed13

The VALGUS STRESS test, is a test for damage to the MEDIAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT of the knee. It involves placing the leg into extension, with one hand placed as a pivot on the knee. The VALGUS STRESS test is also called: A. Lateral stress test B. Medial stress test C. Anterior stress test D. Posterior stress test

B. Medial stress test biomed13

Name the following knee deformities Genu Varum (Varus knee) Genu Valgum (Valgus knee) Genu Recurvatum

Genu Varum (Varus knee) - bowed Knee Genu Valgum (Valgus knee) - knocked Genu Recurvatum - backed knee biomed13

The UNHAPPY TRIAD injury occurs due to a ______ force to the knee causing the rupture in three structures of the knee. A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Medial

C. Lateral biomed13

Which of the following structures does NOT belong to the UNHAPPY TRIAD injury? A. Anterior cruciate ligament B. Posterior cruciate ligament C. Medial collateral ligament D. Medial meniscus

B. Posterior cruciate ligament biomed

Which drug is a beta 2 agonist and is used to prevent and treat wheezing and shortness of breath caused by asthma or COPD? A. Metoprolol B. Propranolol C. Albuterol

C. Albuterol biomed13

Which drug can reduce heart rate by antagonizing the beta 1 receptor and may increase the risk of bradycardia if it is overdosed? A. Metoprolol B. Propranolol C. Albuterol

A. Metoprolol biomed13

Which drug is a non-selective beta blocker and could precipitate severe bronchospasm in patients with asthma, especially at high doses? A. Metoprolol B. Propranolol C. Albuterol

B. Propranolol biomed13

Propranolol (Inderal®) is the that has been used and studied the most when it comes to MIGRAINE PREVENTION. A. Alpha agonist B. Beta agonist C. Alpha blocker D. Beta blocker

D. Beta blocker biomed13

The effects on smooth muscle cause dilation of bronchial passages and they are primarily used to treat asthma and other pulmonary disorders, such as Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A. Alpha agonist B. Beta agonist C. Alpha blocker D. Beta blocker

B. Beta agonist (beta2) biomed13

For a patient with unexplained weight loss, fatigue, and persistent low-grade fever, which one of the following diseases is the most important to rule out? A. Spleen Qi deficiency B. Kidney Yin deficiency C. Cancer D. Stress

C. Cancer biomed13

A 52-year-old male presents to the office with a 3-day history of copious hemoptysis. History reveals that the patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes per day for the past 15 years. Physical examination is remarkable for decreased breath sounds on the left. What is your next course of action? A. Moxa at LU6 B. Give Bai He Gu Jin Tang (Lily Bulb Decoction to Preserve the Metal) C. Cupping on UB13 and UB43 D. Send the patient to Emergency Room

D. Send the patient to Emergency Room biomed13

Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) is an enzyme that is found in many organs throughout the body, with the highest concentrations found in the . Elevated serum GGT level remains the most widely used marker of . A. liver, alcohol abuse B. lung, tobacco abuse C. lung, alcohol abuse D. kidney, opioid abuse

A. liver, alcohol abuse biomed13

A 40-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her daughter complaining of partial visual loss in the right eye. History reveals that last year, she experienced parasthesia in her lower extremities for two days that was relieved without treatment. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Myasthenia gravis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

C. Multiple sclerosis biomed13

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease, is a disease that causes the death of neurons controlling voluntary muscles. ALS can present with muscle stiffness, overactive reflexes, muscle atrophy, and muscle twitches (fasiculation). ALS also called motor neuron disease, affects: A. upper motor neuron B. lower motor neuron C. both motor and sensory neurons D. both upper and lower motor neurons

D. both upper and lower motor neurons biomed13

A 56-year-old woman begins discussing a medical condition socially with a physician who she meets at a banquet. The discussion includes medical treatments of the condition. The physician's duty to exercise reasonable care arises only: upon first physical contact the physician has with the patient when the patient schedules an appointment to see the doctor when the patient sends an e-mail to the doctor requesting medical advice once the patient is examined, diagnosed, treated, or an agreement to do so is made

once the patient is examined, diagnosed, treated, or an agreement to do so is made biomed13

Clinicians are required by law to report suspected abuse. Which of the following abuse cases are required to report even if the victim requests against it? A. Child abuse B. Elderly abuse C. Spousal abuse D. All of the above E. A and B only F. A and C only

E. A and B only biomed13

A male patient presents to the office complaining of muscle weakness experienced at the end of each day. He also complains of drooping eyelid and double vision. History reveals that these complaints are usually not present for the first few hours of each morning. The most specific diagnostic modality is Myasthenia gravis Guillain-Barre syndrome Multiple sclerosis Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Myasthenia gravis biomed13

A patient with a drooping eye is suspected of Myasthesia Gravis. Which non-invasive test can be done by an acupuncturist? A. Acetylcholine receptor antibody test B. Ice pack test C. Repetitive nerve stimulation D. Single-fiber electromyography

B. Ice pack test biomed13

The ICD-10 code published by the World Health Organization is for the classification of: A. disease or medical conditions B. consultation C. diagnostic procedures D. surgical procedures

A. disease or medical conditions biomed13

The Bakody Sign is used to assess: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. De Quervain syndrome C. Cervical radiculopathy D. Meningitis

C. Cervical radiculopathy biomed13

The Bakody sign is the test for cervical nerve root pain in C4-C6. The Bakody sign is positive if pain ______ when the patient places his or her hand on top of his or her head. A. increases B. decreases

B. decreases biomed13

A 65-year-old female patient worries about risk of fracture due to her family history. Which of the following imaging modalities is a common technique used to measure bone density? DEXA MRI X-RAY CT SCAN

DEXA biomed14

A patient underwent a DEXA scan and her T-score results show -3.0 on the spine. This patient has: Osteomalacia Normal bone density Osteopenia Osteoporosis

DEXA biomed14

A 45-year-old women has been wearing a high-heeled shoes for a long time. She feels like she has a pebble in her shoe or a fold in a sock. She also complains of a sharp, burning pain and numbness in the ball of her foot as well as the third and fourth metatarsal joint. What is most likely diagnosis? Gout Morton’s neuroma Ankle sprain Plantar fasciitis

Morton’s neuroma biomed14

A 45-year-old triathlete complains of burning pain in the ball of his foot and feels like he has a pebble in his shoe. He was diagnosed with Morton’s neuroma. Where is the most common area for Morton’s neuroma? Between 1st and 2nd toe Between 2nd and 3rd toe Between 3rd and 4th toe Between 4th and 5th toe

Between 3rd and 4th toe biomed14

A 45-year-old female found a cytological abnormality on her Pap smear. A Colposcopy is recommended by her gynecologist. Colposcopy is the medical diagnostic exam for: Ovary Uterus Cervix Vulva

Cervix biomed14

Which medical diagnostic procedure is used to examine a magnified view of the cervix to detect cervical cancer or precancerous lesions? Colonoscopy Colposcopy Cystoscopy Uteroscopy

Colposcopy biomed14

Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of the Niacin (vitamin B3). Symptoms include EXCEPT: Dermatitis Diarrhea Dementia Flushing

Flushing biomed14

A patient presents with diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis. Which vitamin deficiency most likely caused these symptoms? Vitamin B1 deficiency Vitamin B2 deficiency Vitamin B3 deficiency Vitamin B12 deficiency

Vitamin B3 deficiency biomed14

Which diet is characterized by eating very low-carb and high-fat? Paleo diet Atkins diet Vegan diet Ketogenic diet

Ketogenic diet biomed14

_______ is a natural metabolic state. It involves the body producing ketone bodies out of fat and using them for energy instead of carbs. One can get into by following a very low-carb, high-fat diet. Gluconeogenesis Ketosis

Ketosis biomed14

A 50-year-old male was recently had a COVID-19 infection and was diagnosed with Bell’s Palsy. Which cranial nerve is involved with Bell’s Palsy? Cranial Nerve 5 Cranial Nerve 7 Cranial Nerve 9 Cranial Nerve 12

Cranial Nerve 7 biomed14

A 50-year-old male was recently had a viral infection and was diagnosed with Bell’s Palsy. Which of the following does NOT indicate RIGHT side Bell’s Palsy? Inability to close eyes on the RIGHT Loss of nasolabial folds on the RIGHT Dropping of the mouth on the RIGHT Wrinkles on the forehead on the RIGHT

Wrinkles on the forehead on the RIGHT biomed14

MYXEDEMA is a term used synonymously with severe _________ . Symptoms of myxedema include thickening of the skin and other symptoms associated with _______, including fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, depression, dry skin, and brittle hair, among others. Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism biomed14

THYROID STORM is a life-threatening health condition that is associated with untreated . Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism

Hyperthyroidism biomed14

HASHIMOTO THYROIDITIS is an autoimmune condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland and it is the most common cause of _____ . Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism biomed14

GRAVES’ DISEASE is an autoimmune disorder that causes . The resulting signs may include bulging eyes (exophthalmos), anxiety, hand tremor, heat sensitivity, weight loss and enlarged thyroid. Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism

Hyperthyroidism biomed14

pulse diagnosis on a 74-year-old man reveals irregularly irregular heartbeat. The patient denies chest pain, palpitation, headache, or any other symptoms. What is the best course of action? Send the patient to emergency room immediately Use 8 extra combination: PC6 + SP4 Tell patient to take Zhi Gan Cao Tang (Honey-Fried Licorice Decoction) Provide acupuncture treatment including PC6 and refer patient to primary physician

Provide acupuncture treatment including PC6 and refer patient to primary physician biomed14

Which of the following drug is used for an A-fibrillation patient? Thrombolytics Antiplatelet Anticoagulants

Anticoagulants biomed14

The linear burrow tracks and intense itching between the fingers or genital region are characterized by: Allergic reactions Ringworm Syphilis Scabies

Scabies biomed14

Human scabies is caused by an infestation of the skin by the human itch (Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis). Mite Flea Tick Lice

Mite biomed14

Scabies is most often spread during a relatively period of direct skin contact with an infected person such as that which may occur during sex or living together. Short Long

Long biomed14

Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of arthritis in which there is a long-term inflammation of the joints of the spine. Onset is typically in: Male, early adulthood Male, elderly Female, early adulthood Female, elderly

Male, early adulthood biomed14

A 20-year-old male complains of chronic dull back pain in the lower back and gluteal region combined with stiffness of the lower back. The patient also complains of fatigue, fever and weight loss. X-ray shows bamboo spine appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis? Psoriatic spondyloarthritis Reactive arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis Arthritis associated with Irritable Bowel Disease

Ankylosing spondylitis biomed14

What is the most common complaint of people taking STATIN? Nephrotoxic Neurotoxic Psychosis Myopathy

Myopathy biomed14

A patient is on multiple medications. His Primary care physician recently increased his dose of Statin, Tizanidine, Ibuprofen and Fluoxetine. The Patient started having muscle aches one week after increasing the doses of the drugs. What is most likely cause of the muscle aches? Tizanidine Statin Ibuprofen Tylenol

Statin biomed14

An enlarged spleen is usually detected during a physical exam. Which part of the abdomen do you need to palpate? Right upper abdomen Left upper abdomen Right lower abdomen Left lower abdomen

Left upper abdomen biomed14

Which of the following disorders is a set of symptoms due to elevated androgens in females and associated with irregular menstrual periods, excess body and facial hair, acne, pelvic pain, infertility, obesity, and type 2 diabetes? Hypothyroidism Ovarian tumors Polycystic ovarian syndrome Cushing syndrome

Polycystic ovarian syndrome biomed14

Sildenafil (Viagra®) acts by blocking phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE-5), an enzyme that promotes breakdown of cGMP, which regulates blood flow in the penis. Which of the following is the side effect of Sildenafil? Tachycardia Pulmonary hypertension Hypertension Hypotension

biomed14

The vasodilating action of sildenafil affects both the arteries and the veins. Reported side effects in the normal healthy population are usually associated with vasodilation. These include: A 67-year-old male is taking a drug for his erectile dysfunction. What is the side effect of the drug? Hypotension Hypertension

Hypotension biomed14

Sildenafil (Viagra®) and ______ both cause the muscles that control the size of blood vessels to relax. When these muscles relax, the vessels enlarge in diameter and, as a result, blood pressure drops. When Sildenafil and are taken together, the effects are greater than when either one is used alone. Midodrine Nitrates

Nitrates biomed14

Bulimina Nervosa can cause which of the following electrolyte imbalance? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperchloremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypermagnesemia

Hypokalemia biomed15

Which of the following diseases is caused by inflammation of the inner ear due to viral or bacterial infection and manifest with severe vertigo and nystagmus? A. Labyrinthitis B. Meniere’s disease C. Presbycusis D. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

Labyrinthitis biomed15

Which of the following diseases is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by episodes of feeling like the world is spinning, ringing in the ears and hearing loss? A. Labyrinthitis B. Meniere’s disease C. Presbycusis D. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

Meniere’s disease biomed15 (Ban Xia Bai Zhu Tian Ma Tang)

Which of the following terminology indicates age-related hearing loss? A. Labyrinthitis B. Meniere’s disease C. Strabismus D. Presbycusis

Presbycusis biomed15

A medical triad is a group of three signs or symptoms. Which of the following is the triad of Meniere’s disease? Hypertension + Edema + Proteinuria Dementia + Wide gait + Urinary incontinence Deafness + Vertigo + Tinnitus Headache + Fever + Neck rigidity

Deafness + Vertigo + Tinnitus Biomed15

Anorexia nervosa and Bulimia nervosa are both eating disorders in which a person tries to lose weight in unhealthy ways. Which eating disorder involves significant weight loss of 15% or more of ideal body weight due to self-starvation? A. Anorexia Nervosa B. Bulimia Nervosa

A. Anorexia Nervosa biomed15

Which of the following is the medical triad of meningitis? Low back pain + Saddle anesthesia + Bowel/bladder dysfunction Headache + Fever + Neck rigidity Urethritis + Conjunctivitis + Arthritis Dysmenorrhea + Dyspareunia + Dyschezia

Headache + Fever + Neck rigidity biomed15

What is the medical triad for Unhappy Triad (knee)

ACL, MCL, medial meniscus biomed15

What is the medical triad for Cauda Equina Syndrome?

Low Back pain, Saddle Anesthesia, Bowel or Bladder dysfunction biomed15

What is the medical triad for Meningitis?

Headache, Fever, Neck stiffness biomed15

What is the medical triad for Reactive arthritis?

Urethritis (can't pee) Conjunctivitis (can't see) Arthritis (Can't climb a tree) biomed15

What is the medical triad for Meniere's Disease?

Hearing loss, Vertigo, Tinnitus biomed15

What is the medical triad for Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

Dementia (wacky) Wide Gait (Wobbly) Urinary Incontinence (wet) biomed15

What is the medical triad for Pre-Eclampsia?

Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria biomed15

What is the medical triad for Endometriosis?

Dysmenorrhea, (Menstruation) Dyspareunia (uncomfortable sex), Dyschezia (difficult bowel) biomed15

What is the medical triad for Ectopic Pregnancy?

Abdominal pain, Amenorrhea, Vaginal bleeding biomed15

Which of the following group of drugs has an anti-pyretic effect? NSAIDs Antibiotics Antivirals Antifungal

NSAIDs biomed15

Which of the following does NOT belong to the four cardinal signs of inflammation? A. Redness B. Swelling C. Heat D. Loss of function

D. Loss of function biomed15

A 34-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of pelvic pain, menstrual cramps, pain with sexual intercourse and painful bowel movement. Physical examination reveals an afebrile female in mild distress with tender nodularities on the broad ligament. The most appropriate diagnosis is: A. Endometriosis B. Endometritis C. Mittelschmerz D. Menopause

A. Endometriosis biomed15

A 33-year-old female comes to the emergency department complaining of pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia and dyschezia. History reveals regular monthly cycles with her last menstrual period 28 days prior. Physical examination reveals an afebrile female in mild distress with tender nodularities on the uterosacral ligaments. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate to diagnose this patient’s disease? A. Colposcopy B. Laparoscopy C. Cystoscopy D. Hysteroscopy

Laparoscopy biomed15

A 25-year-old female with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presets with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual periods was 8 weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Endometriosis B. Appendicitis C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Urinary tract infection

C. Ectopic pregnancy biomed15

A 25-year-old female with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presets with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Vitals signs reveal a BP of 85/55 mmHg and a heart rate of 110. Physical exam reveals guarding and rebound tenderness. What is the best course of action? Needle SP6, RN3, ST29, Zi Gong, Ti Tuo Use Dan Shen 15g, Chi Shao 9g, Tao Ren 9g, Ru Xiang 9g, Mo Yao 6g, San Leng 6g, E Zhu 6g Tell the patient to call her gynecology office and make an appointment Send the patient to the emergency room immediately

Send the patient to the emergency room immediately biomed15

All of the below vitamins act as antioxidants EXCEPT for? A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C D. vitamin E

B. vitamin B

All of the below trace minerals act as antioxidants EXCEPT for? A. Calcium B. Copper C. Selenium D. Zinc

A. Calcium Biomed15 (macro)

A 52-year-old female presents to your office after noticing a rapid change in the appearance of one breast, over the course of several weeks. Physical examination reveals dimpling on the skin of the affected breast similar to an orange peel as well as a red and bruised appearance of breast. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Fibrocystic changes B. Mastitis C. Breast Cancer D. Trauma

C. Breast Cancer biomed15

In a woman over 50, a mammogram should be performed at least every ____ years. A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10

B. 2 biomed15

___ enzymes can be inhibited or induced by drugs, resulting in clinically significant drug-drug interactions that can cause unanticipated adverse reactions or therapeutic failures. Interactions with warfarin, antidepressants, antiepileptic drugs, and statins often involve the ________ enzymes. A. Cytochrome P100 B. Cytochrome P200 C. Cytochrome P365 D. Cytochrome P450

D. Cytochrome P450 biomed15

______ decreases the activity of the cytochrome P450 enzymes that are responsible for breaking down many drugs and toxins. When a person who takes STATIN eats large amounts of _______, the STATIN level in their blood can increase, raising the possibility of side effects such as muscle aches. A. Grapefruit B. Grape C. Lemon D. Orange

A. Grapefruit biomed15

______ is a popular herbal product used to treat depression but it has been implicated in drug interactions. The predominance of clinical reports indicates that increases the activity of the cytochrome P450 enzyme and reduces plasma concentrations of certain drugs such as warfarin, digoxin, cyclosporine, HIV drugs, etc. _______ is also known to interact with selective SSRIs, in the same way as serotonergic drugs by further increasing the serotonin level in the brain. A. Black cohosh B. Milk thistle C. St. John’s wort D. Saw palmetto

C. St. John’s wort biomed15

The CDC recommend that all U.S. health care workers get vaccinated annually against . A. HPV B. Influenza C. Tetanus D. Hepatitis

B. Influenza biomed15

Korotkoff sounds are the "tapping" sounds heard with a stethoscope as the cuff is gradually deflated. The systloic pressure is defined as: A. The first clear tapping sound B. The soft swishing sound C. The Blowing sound D. Silence

A. The first clear tapping sound biomed15

The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is the rate at which red blood cells in anticoagulated whole blood descend in a standardized tube over a period of one hour. It is a common hematology test, and is a non-specific measure of _________ . A. kidney function B. anemia C. inflammation D. infection

C. inflammation biomed15

The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are both biomarkers for inflammation and they are often ordered as a pair for laboratory testing A. Specific B. Non-specific

B. Non-specific biomed15

Which of the following class of drugs can be used for Hyperthyroidism or Thyroid storm? A. Diuretic B. Anticoagulant C. Anti-histamine D. Beta-blocker

D. Beta-blocker biomed15

Active myofascial ____ points are one of the major peripheral pain generators for regional and generalized musculoskeletal pain conditions. Myofascial _____ points are also the targets for acupuncture and/or dry needling therapies. Current evidence shows that spontaneous electrical activity at myofascial ______ point originates from the extrafusal motor endplate. A. Trigger B. Tender

A. Trigger biomed15

A father of a 13-year-old patient requests a health care provider to obtain a copy of his child’s health record including laboratory reports, x-rays and prescriptions. Which of the following is correct? Provide the child’s health care record Do not provide the child’s health care record

Provide the child’s health care record biomed15

A 15-year-old married female presents to the office without her parents complaining of a three day history of cough. The patient lives with her parents, denies alcohol or drug use, and has a 3-month-old son whom she supports with her husband. The patient should: not be treated because this is not drug or alcohol related not be treated because this is not related to sexually transmitted diseases be treated because this complaint is not emergent be treated because she is married

be treated because she is married biomed15

A 5-year-old with acute abdominal pain is brought to the emergency department by her nanny. Suspecting acute appendicitis, you would like to order a CT-scan. Meanwhile, both the nanny and emergency room staff have made several attempts to reach the child's parents without success. Can you treat this child without parental permission? No. Parental consent is always required before treating children this young. You may treat the child without parental consent but only if you have treated the child previously. In this instance, you may proceed without parental consent. Because the parents cannot be reached, you should first obtain a court order before treating the child.

In this instance, you may proceed without parental consent. biomed15

A 19-year-old male presents to the office for a pre-employment physical examination. Laboratory values reveal a red blood cell count of 1.79, hemoglobin of 3.4 and hematocrit of 10.4. You recommend a transfusion and the patient refuses on the grounds that he is a Jehovah's Witness. On a second visit the patient loses consciousness in the waiting area. It is ethically permissible to: Treat the patient with a blood transfusion anyway because if not he will certainly die Not to treat the patient with a blood transfusion, but use any other life saving measures to stabilize him Call the legal department and have the patient declared "incompetent" so that you can make healthcare decisions for him and proceed with the blood transfusion Transfer the patient immediately to another facility equipped to handle critical care patients.

Not to treat the patient with a blood transfusion, but use any other life saving measures to stabilize him biomed15

Lung sounds can be auscultated across the anterior and posterior chest walls with a stethoscope. What is the optimal systemic way to listen to the lung sounds? A. Use the ‘stepladder’ approach to compare one side of the chest with the other B. Alternate anterior lung position and posterior lung position on each level of the intercostal spaces

A. Use the ‘stepladder’ approach to compare one side of the chest with the other biomed16

The Trendelenburg test is a quick physical examination that can assist clinicians in assessing hip dysfunction. A positive Trendelenburg test usually indicates weakness in the which of the following hip abductor muscles? A. Gluteus maximus + Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus + Gluteus medius C. Gluteus medius + Gluteus minimus D. Gluteus maximus + piriformis

C. Gluteus medius + Gluteus minimus biomed16

Which of the following urinary tract infections manifest with upper back and flank pain, high fever, shaking and chills, nausea and vomiting? A. Pyelonephritis B. Ureteritis C. Cystitis D. Urethritis

A. Pyelonephritis biomed16

Costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as CVA tenderness or Murphy's punch sign, is a medical test in which is positive in people with an infection of the: A. Pancreas B. Kidney

B. Kidney biomed16

Cystitis is an inflammation of the ______ and it is the cause of ____ urinary tract infection (UTI). A. urethra, lower B. bladder, upper C. kidney, upper D. bladder, lower

D. bladder, lower biomed16

Which one of the following belongs to LOWER respiratory tract infection? A. Sinusitis B. Pharyngitis C. Tracheobronchitis D. Laryngitis

C. Tracheobronchitis biomed16

_________ is a disorder of the blood caused by an inherited abnormal hemoglobin.African patients experience chronic hemolytic anemia and vaso-occlusive episodes due to clustering of crescent-shape red blood cells. A. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia B. Anemia of chronic disease C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Sickle cell anemia

D. Sickle cell anemia biomed16

The esophagus is the tube that connects the throat to the stomach. The trachea is the tube that connects the throat to the windpipe and lungs. The ______ runs behind the ____ and heart, and in front of the spine. A. trachea (wind-pipe), esophagus (food-pipe) B. esophagus (food-pipe), trachea (wind-pipe)

B. esophagus (food-pipe), trachea (wind-pipe) biomed16

Pharynx and larynx are two structures found in the neck region. Both AIR and FOOD pass through the ________. A. Pharynx B. Layrnx

A. Pharynx biomed16

What type of hernia is a condition in which the upper part of the stomach bulges through an opening in the diaphragm? A. Umbilical hernia B. Incisional hernia C. Hiatal hernia D. Inguinal hernia

C. Hiatal hernia biomed16

Many drugs alter the coupled cellular responses of osteoclasts and osteoblasts, leading to clinically evident osteopenia or osteoporosis. Which one of the following drugs does NOT lead to osteoporosis? A. Synthetic glucocorticoids (Prednisone) B. Alendronate (Fosamax) C. Proton pump inhibitors (Omeprazole) D. Antiepileptic drugs (Phenytoin)

B. Alendronate (Fosamax) biomed16 (treats osteoporosis)

Opportunistic infections (OIs) are infections that occur more frequently and are more severe in people with weakened immune systems, including people with HIV. The lower the CD4 count, the higher the risk of OIs. Which one of the following OIs is associated with CD4 count less than 200 cells/mL EXCEPT for? A. Oral candidiasis B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia C. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Disseminated Mycobacterium Avium Complex (MAC)

A. Oral candidiasis biomed16

A 40-year-old otherwise healthy gardener presents with several subcutaneous nodules on his right hand, where he had cut himself on rose thorns. Physical exam reveals several erythematous fluctuant lesions. What is most likely diagnosis? A. Tinea pedis B. Onychomycosis C. Yeast infection D. Sporotrichosis

D. Sporotrichosis biomed (every rose has its thorn)

A 68-year-old female patient states that she has jaw pain when she is chewing food. She also complains that the right side of her scalp aches when she combs her hair. After completion of your physical exam, you note tenderness on the scalp just above the right ear. 4 What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tension headache B. Migraine headache C. Giant cell arteritis D. Cluster headache

C. Giant cell arteritis biomed16

A 68-year-old female patient states that she has jaw pain when she is chewing food. She also complains that the right side of her scalp aches when she combs her hair. After completion of your physical exam, you note tenderness on the scalp just above the right ear. Which one of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis? A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) B. Temporal artery biopsy C. C-reactive protein (CRP) D. Monitor response to NSAID

B. Temporal artery biopsy biomed16

A 68-year-old female patient states that she has jaw pain when she is chewing food. She also complains that the right side of her scalp aches when she combs her hair. After completion of your physical exam, you note tenderness on the scalp just above the right ear. What is the appropriate medical treatment? A. High dose corticosteroids B. Low dose corticosteroids C. 100% oxygen D. Sedate left GB38, sedate right LV2

A. High dose corticosteroids biomed16

A 29yearold male complains of a unilateral sharp, stabbing, periorbital headache that occurs when he sleeps, especially in the winter. He states that his eyes are also “watery” when he experiences theses headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cluster headache B. Migraine headache C. Temporal arteritis D. Tension headache E. Chronic daily headache

A. Cluster headache biomed16

29-year-old male complains of a unilateral sharp, stabbing, periorbital headache that occurs when he sleeps, especially in the winter. He states that his eyes are also “watery” when he experiences theses headaches. While obtaining his history and physical, the patient has an episode of the headache he is describing. What is the appropriate medical treatment? A. verapamil B. ibuprofen C. corticosteroid D. 100% oxygen

D. 100% oxygen biomed16

What is the key term for each of these headaches: Cluster HD Migraine HD Tension HD Temporal Arteritis

Cluster HD - ipsilateral lacrimation, pressure around eyes Migraine HD - phonophobia, photophobia, Tension HD - most common, vise like constant pressure, Temporal Arteritis - pain in the temples biomed16

A 23-year-old woman presents to the office complaining of a two-hour history of headache. The patient describes a sharp, right-sided headache which she rates as 8/10 on the pain scale. The pain is made worse by loud noise and bright light. She also has associated nausea and vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Cluster headache B. Migraine headache C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Tension headache

B. Migraine headache biomed16

Which headache is mostly caused by stress, inadequate sleep as well as poor posture and often described as feeling like tight band around the head? A. Cluster headache B. Migraine headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Tension headache

D. Tension headache biomed16 (liver QI stagnation)

A 65-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain when she applies makeup. She describes the pain as burning and stabbing and rated 10/10 in severity when pressure is placed on the face. The pain is otherwise 0/10 or 1/10. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Temporal arteritis C. Migraine headache D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A. Trigeminal neuralgia biomed16

A 46-year-old male presents to the acupuncture clinic with a complaint of headache that started abruptly about an hour ago. He has an episode of vomiting in the clinic. In addition, the patient states he has never experienced a headache with such severity before. He denies smoking, illicit drug use and alcohol. He does not recall any traumatic events. 4 What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Subdural hematoma B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Epidural hematoma D. Meningitis

B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage biomed16

A 46-year-old male presents to the acupuncture clinic with a complaint of headache that started abruptly about an hour ago. He has an episode of vomiting in the clinic. In addition, the patient states he has never experienced a headache with such severity before. He denies smoking, illicit drug use and alcohol. He does not recall any traumatic events. What is the best course of action? Needle LU7, the command point of head and neck Call his wife and tell her that her husband is having the worst headache in his life because of her Tell the patient to make an appointment with a neurologist Send the patient to the emergency room

Send the patient to the emergency room biomed16 - bleeding in meningis

A 46-year-old male presents to the acupuncture clinic with a complaint of headache that started abruptly about an hour ago. He has an episode of vomiting in the clinic. In addition, the patient states he has never experienced a headache with such severity before. He denies smoking, illicit drug use and alcohol. He does not recall any traumatic events. The most appropriate diagnostic test to order is: A. CT scan with contrast B. MRI C. CT scan without contrast D. Skull X-ray

C. CT scan without contrast biomed16

A 30-year-old female is brought to the hospital with confusion and slurred speech. Physical examination reveals miosis, respiratory depression, and hypoxia. After treating the patient’s hypoxia, the most appropriate treatment is: Diazepam B. Haloperidol C. Naloxone D. Morphine

C. Naloxone biomed16

What do elevated CPK show? 3 types, 1 MAJOR one

MI (Myocardial infarction) EtOH (ethanol, alcohol) Skeletal Muscle disease

What does elevated RBC possibly show?

Polycythemia (blood stagnation) CardioVascular disease Pulmonary disease Renal disease

What does low RBC possibly show?

Anemia Hodgkin's leukemia Sickle cell disease

What are the 4 shoulder muscle names?

Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Subscapularis Teres Minor

What is the name of the location where the nerve connects to the muscle

motor end plate

What disease has the following: cervical adenopathy, fatigue, and weight loss

Lymphoma

What is a drug to treat hyperlipidemia?

HME-CoA reductase inhibitors

What are the causes and signs/symptoms of Cushing's ?

Excess cortisol levels causing Weight gain in the face (moon face) Fatty lump between the shoulders pink and purple stretch marks

What is the hormone involved with a moon face and buffalo hump? ACTH TSH Growth hormone Thyroxine

ACTH Cushing's

Chronic venous insufficiency signs

Skin looks like leather, turns reddish-brown discoloration