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Board Review > Biomedicine > Flashcards

Biomedicine Flashcards

1
Q

Man with acute chest pain, resulted in myocardial infarction, which drug for initial treatment?

A

NTG - Nitroglycerin

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2
Q

CAB in CPR

A

Compression, Airway, Breathing

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3
Q

CPR in Adult: Compression to breaths

A

30:2

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4
Q

Pericarditis-
Where’s the pain?
How can you alleviate it?
When does it get worse?

A

may travel to left shoulder and neck.
Sitting up and leaning forward can ease the pain
Often intensifies when you cough, lie down or inhale deeply.

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5
Q

CPK levels indicate?

A

Creatine Kinase (CPK)
Heart damage

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6
Q

Beta blockers are used for what?

A

Hyperthyroidism
Hypertension
Cardiovascular disease, prevent migraine headache

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7
Q

What pharmaceuticals treats migraines?

A

Beta Blocker

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8
Q

Beta blockers prevents

A

Headache

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9
Q

Beta-adrenergic Blockers treat what?

A

Thyroid Storm
Hyperthyroidism

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10
Q

Which drug can relax smooth muscle and lower vessel resistance

A

Alpha blocker cause vessel dilation: ACEI/ARB, CCB, direct vasodilator, nitrates

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11
Q

Calcium channel blockers
- Purpose
- Side effect

A

Relax vessels
- for hypertension, arrthmia, angina
- side effect: hypotension, AV block

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12
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers CCH) Toxicity

A

Rapid progression of hypotension, Brady dysrhythmia, cardiac arrest

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13
Q

Diuretics can cause a loss of

A

Potassium

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14
Q

Complication of ACE inhibitors?

A

early: cough
late: renal damage
Si Eff: dry cough, hyperkalemia (high Potassium)

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15
Q

ACE inhibitors risk and uses

A

Hypertension, dry cough

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16
Q

Renin-Angiotensin System (RAS)

A

regulates blood pressure and fluid balance

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17
Q

Medicine for hypertension:

A

Beta Blockers, Thiazide, Diuretics, ACE In or CCB (Calcium Channel blockers)

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18
Q

What is the primary cause for Hypertension?

A

too much salt intake

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19
Q

Primary cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Renal and endocrine disease

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20
Q

Which drug can treat high cholesterol?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (-statin) & Niacin (B3)
- inhibits enzyme responsible for cholesterol biosynthesis

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21
Q

Which category of drugs has muscle aches (myalgia) as a side effect?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (-statin)
- lipitor
- may cause renal failure, muscle pain (most common) & fever & heart failure

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22
Q

The generic name of medications that lower the cholesterol level often end in:

A

-statin

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23
Q

What are the Fat Soluble vitamins?

A

D A K E

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24
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins?

A

B C H (Biotin)

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25
Q

Q10 (Coenzyme Co10) function

A

Reduce Blood Pressure
- Congestive Heart Failure
- Parkinson’s disease
- Statin- induce myopathy
- Migraines
- Raise energy

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26
Q

Which vitamins should Old people with rickets (osteomalacia) take?

A

Vitamin D
- bone fragility
- muscle weakening
- Dental problems
- Growth retardation
- Enlargement of LV/SP

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27
Q

When improving diet and increasing exercise, which LDL or HDL improves?

A

HDL

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28
Q

Which vitamin is used to raise HDL?

A

Niacin (B3)

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29
Q

Which vitamin deficiency will cause dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis and death (pallagra)

A

Niacin (B3)
Overdose: liver damage
Si Eff: flushing

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30
Q

A patient comes to you complaining of night blindness, which vitamin deficiency could she have:

A

vitamin A

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31
Q

Which vitamin is antioxidant?

A

A, C, E & Selenium

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32
Q

Which mineral is antioxidant?
Calcium
Iron
Magnesium
Selenium

A

Selenium

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33
Q

What are the side effects of overdosing on Vitamin E?

A

Nausea & Diarrhea

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34
Q

What causes elevated ketone bodies?

A

High fat/low carb diet (Atkins diet)

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35
Q

If a patient has Renal Failure, what diet should they have

A

Low protein, Low salt

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36
Q

Long term use of laxatives & mineral oil will cause a deficiency in which vitamins?

A

K, A, D, E

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37
Q

Orange colored palms indicateL

A

Carotenemia

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38
Q

The most common allergy

A

Peanut

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39
Q

Patients comes in for abdominal pain, diarrhea, abdominal bloating after eating Pizza. What is the cause?

A

Lactose

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40
Q

Celiac sprue or disease is hereditary digestive disorder that involves intolerance to?

A

Gluten - celiac disease : Vit B12 def -> RBC formation, Anemia

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41
Q

Elevated PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen), which supplement is bad?

A

American ginseng, siberian ginseng, gui zhi, ma huang, cordyceps

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42
Q

Mc. Burney’s Sign

A

Tender point in Right Lower Abdomen of a patient with appendicitis

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43
Q

Patient with lower right quadrant abdominal pain

A

Appendicitis

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44
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Inspiratory arrest due to pain in right hypochondriac region, suggesting acute cholecystitis

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45
Q

Women with right upper quadrant pain, worse with eating greasy food.

A

cholecystitis

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45
Q

How to palpate splenomegaly

A

Start RLQ to LUQ

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46
Q

34 years old female complaints lower left quadrant pain, diarrhea, fever, fatigue, after you examination what is the possible disease?

A

Diverticulitis - LLQ (Answer)

Cholecystitis - RUQ
Appendicitis - RLQ
Pancreatitis - LUQ

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47
Q

Diverticulitis case study: which tests would you use to diagnose this?

A

CT Scan

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48
Q

Laparoscopy used to visualize what?

A

Abdominal and pelvic organs when a pathologic condition is suspected.

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49
Q

Exam for lower GI Tract (colon, rectum and small bowel - Entire colon from rectum to cecum and often portion of the terminal ileum

A

Colonoscopy

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50
Q

Barium enema visualizes (characteristics)

A

of the colon

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51
Q

Which lab exam to check patient who has abdominal pain?

A

Xray

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52
Q

Patient has abdominal pain (or low back pain) and is aggravated when defecating

A

Cystitis (Answer)

Urethritis
Aortic Aneurysm
Herniated Lumbar Disc

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53
Q

18 years old college student has acute onset of severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, nausea, abdominal cramping pain for 2 days after her camping trip. What pathogen possibly caused these symptoms?

A

Giardia (answer)
Borrelia
Rhinovirus
Trichomonas

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54
Q

Symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea - relieved with defecation

A

IBS (answer)

Crohn’s disease
Ulcerative colitis

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55
Q

What are the symptoms of IBS

A

Colicky abdominal pain relieved by bowel movement, clear or white mucus and blood in stool.

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56
Q

Patient has diarrhea and constipation, stool shows mucus and blood. What is the diagnosis?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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57
Q

Pus and blood w diarrhea for 6 months. What is the Diagnosis?

A

Ulcerative colitis`

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58
Q

Patient has lower left abdomen pain and has diarrhea with pus

A

Ulcerative colitis

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59
Q

Polyps removed from colon, what other signs would indicate colon cancer?

A

Painless bleeding

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60
Q

High level of Alpha-fetaprotein suggests

A

Liver cancer

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61
Q

Abdominal pain, worse by spicy food and alcohol, nausea, loose stool, no blood in sthool, anemia, amenorrhea, weight loss, no mention of stress or emotional problems.

A

Crohn’s Disease (answer)

IBS (stress)
Gastritis

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62
Q

Patient long term use drug for pain, and has anemia symptoms. Which one is the reason that caused this problem?

A

Bleeding intestine (NSAID) (answer)

Hematemesis
Hematochezia

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63
Q

Side effects of ibuprofen (NSAID -non steroidal anti-inflammatory drug)

A

GI (peptic ulcer, stomach upset, GI track bleeding)

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64
Q

Which drug category will you select if you want to reduce gastric acid in the stomach?

A

Histamine blocker (answer)

Proton pump activator
antacids

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65
Q

What drug is used for acid reflux?

A

Antacid, proton pump inhibitors, anti-H2 receptors

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66
Q

What drug for peptic ulcer is used to decrease secretion of gastric acid

A

PPI, H2 blocker

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67
Q

If the patient has been taking antacids and there is no relief of heart burn. Which drug category:

A

Proton Pump Inhibitor

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68
Q

If the patient has GERD, which procedure would you use to evaluate the condition?

A

Endoscopy

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69
Q

What are the symptoms for GERD?

A

burning sensation in chest (HT burn)usually after eating, might be worse at night
Chest pain
Difficult swallowing
Regurgitationi of food or sour liquid
Sensation of a lump in your throat

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70
Q

Postmenopausal woman with uterine bleeding, soft abdomen not tender, what is the diagnosis?

A

Endometrial carcinoma

Ovarian carcinoma
chocolate cyst
Endometriosis

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71
Q

Right lower abdomen limited tender, female, young, regular period, abdomen pain

A

Ovary Cyst (answer)

Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
PCOS

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72
Q

Female patient has symptoms of fatigue, dimpled skin (look like orange peel) in the breast area, no galactorrhea or other symptoms, also her skn near breast area is

A

Breast cancer

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73
Q

Unilateral/bilateral lactation in non lactating woman, lump changes size 5-7 days after menstruation. Upper outer quadrant pain.

A

Fibrocystic changes (Fibrocystic breast disease)

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74
Q

Endometrial polyps found by?
A. Transvaginal Ultrasound
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Curettage
D. Laparoscopy

A

Hysteroscopy

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75
Q

Endometrial Polyps

A

Grow in response to circulating estrogen

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76
Q

Primary dysmenorrhea is caused by?

A

Prostaglandin

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77
Q

What structure can be viewed with hysteroscopy to visualize the endometrial cavity, with an abnormal Pap smear dysfunctional uterine bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding

A

Uterine Cavity (Endometrium)

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78
Q

What test is used to confirm diagnosis of endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

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79
Q

What test is performed after an abnormal pap smear

A

Colposcopy (for cervix & vagina)

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80
Q

Colposcopy is applied to visualize which structure(s)?

A

Vagina & Cervix

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81
Q

Pregnancy confirmed by

A

hCG hormone (human chorionic gonadotropin)

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82
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy Symptoms:

A

Abdominal pain, the absence of menstrual periods (amenorrhea) and vaginal bleeding or intermittent bleeding (spotting)

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83
Q

Pregnant women with hypertension and preeclampsia, what test should be done regularly?

A

Urine Protein

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84
Q

Leukemia may have an issue with what?
A. Hemophilia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Thrombus/Clot
D. Leukocytosis

A

Leukocytosis

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85
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is

A

Cancer of the lymph nodes

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86
Q

Fatigue, night sweats, weight loss

A

Need R/O cancer

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87
Q

67 years old man with cachexia, what does it suggest?

A

Probably Cancer

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88
Q

Polycythemia

A

Increased RBCs

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89
Q

Abnormally increased large number of Red Blood Cells

A

Polycythemia

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90
Q

Reasons for EPO increase
A. Anemia
B. Diminished # of RBCs
C. Lower Oxygen levels

A

Lower Oxygen levels

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91
Q

Which hormone increases red blood cells production?

A

Erythopointin

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92
Q

14 year old girl with blood deficiency sign, what tests should be done?

A

CBC - Complete Blood Count

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93
Q

What is Pernicious Anemia?
A. Malabsorption of B12
B. Iron Deficiency
C. Folic acid deficiency
D. Deficiency of B12 from diet

A

Malabsorption of B12

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94
Q

Alcoholic need to be supplemented with
A. Vitamin C
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin B12
D. Potassium

A

C.Vitamin B12, excessive alcohol more than 2 weeks decrease vitamin B12 absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.

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95
Q

What is the problem with chronic Alcoholism?
A. Ketoacidosis
B. Macrocytic Anemia
C. Inflammatory Bowel Disease

A

B. Macrocytic Anemia (B12 def)

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96
Q

CAGE questions are:

A

Diagnose alcoholism
Cut down, Annoyed by criticism, Guilty feeling, Eye opener

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97
Q

Characteristics of Iron deficiency anemia:
A. Hct (low Hematocrit test)
B. Hg levels (low Hyperemesis gravidarum)
C. MCV small (mean corpuscular volume)

A

MCV small
Iron defiency Anemia (IDA)

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98
Q

Which vitamin helps Iron to be absorbed?

A

Vitamin C

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99
Q

S&S (Serious and Sudden) Iron overdose effects
A. GI upset, constipation/nausea
B. GI upset, constipation, weakness
C. GI upset, diarrhea, nausea/vomiting

A

GI upset, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting

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100
Q

Ingestion of Iron will cause?
A. Diarrhea
B. Acid Reflux
C. Vomiting/nausea
D. Constipation

A

Vomiting/nausea

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101
Q

Which tests are used to monitor the effects of iron therapy

A

Hemoglobin and reticulocyte levels

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102
Q

Which of the following iron related blood test is the most accurate indicator of iron deficiency?

A

Ferritin - blood cell protein that contains iron, and shows the amount of iron stored in body

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103
Q

Sickle cell anemia causes:
A. Nutrition deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Hemolytic Anemia
D. Aplastic anemia

A

Hemolytic Anemia - sickle cell disease causes a chronic hemolytic anemia, caused by homozygous inheritance of HBs

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104
Q

Which one of these is a risk factor blood clots?
A. Alcoholism
B. Pregnancy
C. Renal Failure
D. Hemophilia
E. Leukemia

A

B. Pregnancy

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105
Q

Taking Coumadin (blood thinner) and B12 is bad because

A

might increase risk of clotting

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106
Q

Vitamin D deficiency can result in what?
A. Anemia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hemophilia

A

B. Hemorrhage

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107
Q

Coumadin (Warfarin) with B12 & K (deficiency bleeding) may cause?

A

Clotting

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108
Q

Coumadin (Warfarin) with Vitamin E (deficiency: Anemia)

A

Bleeding

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109
Q

If taking anticoagulant, avoid which supplement?

A

Vitamin K

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110
Q

Vitamin K is produced by

A

Large Intestinal Bacteria (& Liver)

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111
Q

A patient has blood clotting problem, the disease?

A

Thrombopenia or thrombocytopenia

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112
Q

Cephalosporins are antibiotics that

A

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis

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113
Q

One of the most common first signs of infectious mononucleosis is

A

Severe sore throat

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114
Q

A young teen with swollen lymph nodes, fever, sore throat and fatigue, what is the disease?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Leukemia

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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115
Q

20 yo college student presents with fever, sore throat, and faitgue. Upon examination enlarged lymph nodes are found in the poster lateral neck. What is the most likely medical diagnosis?
A. Palatine tonsillitis
B. Cervical tuberculosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Streptococcal pharyngitis

A

C. Infectious mononucleosis

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116
Q

Mononucleosis presents with what?

A

Spleanomegally - Anorexia - Fever

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117
Q

Most common STD in the US:

A

Chlamydia

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118
Q

Case: 17 yo girl with fever, amenorrhea, clear discharge, burning sensation during urination. probably:
A. Chlamydia
B. Bacteria Virginitis

A

Chlamydia

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119
Q

Most common pathogen for PID (Pelvic inflammatory Disease)

A

Chlamydia and Gonorrhea

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120
Q

Chlamydia/gonorrhea co infected rate is

A

50%
- 50% of People with gonorrhea have chlamydia

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121
Q

Case: woman with infertility issues and blocked fallopian tubes:

A

Post chlamydia infection

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122
Q

Patient comes in with cryptosporidiosis and esophageal candida. What is most likely cause?
A. Immune deficiency (HIV and AIDS)
B. Syphilis
C. Herpes
D. Thrush

A

A. Immune deficiency

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123
Q

How is HIV/AIDS diagnosed?

A

Gum Swab (& Blood test)

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124
Q

What is the risk of getting HIV from needle stick with contaminated blood?

A

0.3%

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125
Q

What is the % that an infected hypodermic needle stick will transmit HIV?

A

0.3%

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126
Q

Which are the primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B

A

Blood, sex and syringes

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127
Q

What is the risk of getting Hepatitis B from needle stick with contaminated blood?

A

30%

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128
Q

What is higher % transfer of infected needle?
A. HIV
B. HAV (Hep A)
C. HBV (Hep B)
D. HCV (Hep C)

A

HBV

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129
Q

Which of these statements about Hep is true?
A. Hep A is blood borne
B. Hep B Oral-Fecal
C. Hep C is the most common cause of Liver Cancer

A

Hep C - most common liver Cancer

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130
Q

Wearing a mask in the waiting room prevents

A

HAV, Chicken pox, Polio

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131
Q

Exposure to HBV will show what symptoms?
A. 2-6 months, fatigue, fever, flu-like symptoms
B. 4-6 months, flu like symptoms
C. 1 month flu-like symptoms
D. Within 2-3 months, flu-like symptoms

A

A. 2-6 months, fatigue, fever, flu-like symptoms

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132
Q

A patient has just returned from Mexico and has nausea and vomit. What should you ask?

A

Does he have a Hep A vaccine?

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133
Q

Which vaccination is highly recommended for acupuncturists?

A

Flu shots

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134
Q

OSHA - Hep B shot should be offered after the worker has received the required bloodborne pathogen training and within how many days of initial assignment to a job with occupational exposure.

A

10 days

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135
Q

CNT main focus on what?
A. Clean field
B. Hand washing
C. Disposable needles
D. Sharps container

A

all are correct, however the most important is hand washing to prevent cross-infection

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136
Q

CNT procedure: hand washing time?

A

15-20 seconds
CDC: 20sec

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137
Q

What best defines CNT?
A. Sterile procedure
B. Aseptic procedure
C. Clean procedures

A

C. Clean procedures

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138
Q

How full can sharpts container be?

A

3/4 full

139
Q

The regulation for sharps container:
A. Big enough to put the long needles
B. Has to be labeled with the universal biohazard symbol and the word “biohazard” or be color-coded red
C. Made from a variety of products from cardboard to plastic

A

A. Big enough to put the long needles.
doesn’t have to be red
made from plastic, not cardboard

140
Q

Catching disease from contaminated object in environment, ex: treatment table is
A. Indirect contact transmission
B. Direct contact transmission

A

Indirect contact transmission

141
Q

Who must be given bloodborne pathogen training and universal precaution training?

A

A. All emplyees with occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens

142
Q

CNT: Universal Precautions should be taught to:

A

All emplyees with occupational exposure, including part-time and temporary employees

143
Q

During treatment, you accidentally cut your finger, what should you do next?
A. Wear gloves
B. Wash and dress the cut with bandage
C. Cancel treatment

A

B. Wash and dress the cut with bandage

144
Q

A single cotton swab can be used to clean more than one point on the same patient if:
A. A single cotton swab can only be used to prepare a single point
B. The points are in the same general area
C. The points are in different areas and there are no signs of inflammation, disease or broken skin
D. 90% isopropyl alcohol is used to prepare the patient’s skin

A

B. The points are in the same general area

145
Q

All of the following tatments about the use of needle guide tubes are true EXCEPT:
A. Guide tubes should be sterile at the beginning of each treatment on each patient
B. When using bundled needles, it is considered acceptable to use the guide tube more than once on the same patient as long as it’s unsoiled and uncontaminated.
C. If a guide tube is used for more than one needle, it’s better to drop the needle into the tub handle-end first rather than point-end first
D. If guide tube are used, they should not be placed on the clean field between uses, since they are no longer sterile.

A

D. If guide tube are used, they should not be placed on the clean field between uses, since they are no longer sterile.

146
Q

Needles can be used on the same patient from different parts of the body if
A. It is kept in the clean field
B. Immediately put into cotton swab
C. No because bacteria transfer/different areas with different immunities.

A

C. No because bacteria transfer/different areas with different immunities.

147
Q

Change bed sheets between patient’s treatment. How should they be washed?

A

Launder with hot water & detergent. Add hypochlorite (bleach) solution to the wash provides an extra margin of safety

148
Q

Excessive production of growth hormone
is caused by which gland? Which hormones?

A

Caused by pituitary adenoma
GH up: child - gigantism, adult -acromegaly
ACTH: Cushing disease

149
Q

Patient comes in with Type1 Diabetes (side effect) for 10 years. What is a reasonable expectation of reatment?
A. Reduce dependency on insulin
B. treat diabetic circulatory problems

A

B. treat diabetic circulatory problems

150
Q

Diabetes mellitus 20 years, mot serious complication?

A

Peripheral neuropathy (B12)

151
Q

Chronic diabetic patient testing to check blood sugar level
A. HbA1C hemoglobin
B. FBS (fasting sugar)
C. Oral glucose tolerance test

A

A. HbA1C hemoglobin

152
Q

Which hormone when high can cause hypercalcenia?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating
D. Pitocin

A

B. Parathyroid hormone

153
Q

What hormone helps absorb calcium in intestines?

A

PTH

154
Q

Calcitonin is a hormone involved in the regulation of calcium metabolism, is secreted by the?
A. Pineal Gland
B. Thymus Gland
C. Thyroid Gland
D. Parathyroid Gland

A

C. Thyroid Gland

155
Q

Goiter is caused by

A

A. Iodine deficiency

156
Q

Older women 60s, fatigue, pale and puffy, dry skin and hair. What disease?
A. Grave’s
B. Myxedema (hypothyroidism)
C. Hashimoto’s

A

B. Myxedema (hypothyroidism)

157
Q

Potassium deficiencies with high BP

A

Aldosterone is too high because of Adrenal cortex tumor (Adenoma)
Conn’s Syndrome

158
Q

What and where does Aldosterone come from?

A

Raises blood pressure, released by adrenal cortex

159
Q

DHEA - natural steroid hormonoe produced from cholesterol in which organs?

A

Adrenal glands, gonads and brain

160
Q

What medicine is a risk for osteoporosis?

A

Steroids

161
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Adrenal insufficiency
Aldosterone: hypotension, metabolic acidosis
Cortisol fatigue, low blood sugar

162
Q

A young female patient, who has suffered from an autoimmune disease, and is being treated with a glucocorticoid, shows the appearance of a moon shape face, buffalo hump, truncal obesity.
A. Graves Disease
B. Addison’s Disease
C. Turner’s Syndrome
D. Cushing’s Syndrome

A

D. Cushing’s Syndrome

163
Q

Oral contraceptive Pills (OCP) feeback

A

Inhibition on LH and FSH
- regulates production of estrogen and progesterone
- release in the anterior pituitary
- FSH: stimulates follicle development in ovaries, stimulates sperm formation
LH: triggers ovulation in females, stimulates testosterone production in males

164
Q

What hormone spikes during ovulation?

A

LH

165
Q

What hormone is elevated in menopause?

A

FSH

166
Q

50 yo woman present with irregular menstrual period, hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings and insomnia. A preliminary diagnosis of perimenopausal syndrome is made. Which hormones are expected to have an elevated level?

A

LH and FSH
(estrogen and progesterone decreased)

167
Q

Progesterone is released from where after ovulation?

A

Corpus Luteum

168
Q

What should you look for in a women taking estrogen therapy?

A

Shortness of breath

169
Q

Patient has PCOS, infertility, she is overweight, w/irregular periods what other symptoms
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Dyspareunia
C. PID
D. Insulin Resistance

A

D. Insulin Resistance

170
Q

Which hormone level is high in PCOS?

A

Testosterone

171
Q

Female patient 28, hysteria pain, increased testosterone. Probably has:
A. PCOS
B. Pituitary lesion
C. Adrenal lesion

A

A. PCOS

172
Q

43 years old female patient has symptoms of high level of adrogen, irregular menses and ovarian polyps, what test should be done to confirm the diagnosis (PCOS)
A. hysteroscopy
B. Ultrasound
C. X-Ray

A

B. Ultrasound

173
Q

Patient injured his calf, it’s red, swollen. What do you do?

A

Apply ice, let it rest

174
Q

Which disorder is most likely to cause sleep disturbances?
A. MS
B. Lupus
C. Amyloidosis
D. Fibromyalgia

A

D. Fibromyalgia

175
Q

Motor part enters muscle fiber, most electrically excitable part of muscle?
A. Trigger point
B. Reflect Point
C. Motor Point
D. Sensory Point

A

C. Motor Point

176
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is linked to which specific HLA Antigen

A

HLA-B27 (Human Leukocyte Antigen)

177
Q

Restless leg syndrome symptoms
A. Pain, sting and worsen after long time standing
B. Cramping, needling pain worsen in the evening
C. Tingling, numbness and worsen after long time standing
D. Anxiety, shaking leg and worsen in the evening.

A

D. Anxiety, shaking leg and worsen in the evening.

U - Urge to move
R - rest induced
G - get better with activity
E - Evening and night gets worse

Willis-Ekbom Disease (WED)
Urge to move, usually due to uncomfortable sensation, worsening of symptoms by relaxation, worse in evening

178
Q

MRI can confirm
A. Avascular Necrosis
B. Soft Tissue injury

A

A. Avascular Necrosis
B. Soft Tissue injury
Soft tissue, spinal cord, cancer, muscle, ligament

179
Q

What does DEXA (Dual Energy Xray)

A

Bone scan, bone density osteoporosis

180
Q

What is the cause for avascular necrosis at the head of the femoral?

A

Trauma, blood clots, inflammation, alcohol or steroid use

181
Q

What does CT scan do?

A

Brain bleeding, organ bleeding, rupture, tumor

182
Q

What does Xray confirm?

A

bone fracture, penumonia, initial survey

183
Q

A patient has a skate board accident, possible skull fracture and subarachnoid hemorrhage: Diagnostic test used:

A

A Head CT (efficienty)
or MRI (slower bu accurate and costly)

184
Q

Patient has abdominal pain (my test said low back pain) and is aggravated when defecating?
A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Aortic aneurysm (pulsating sensation near umbilicus)
D. Herniated Lumbar Disc

A

D. Herniated Lumbar Disc

185
Q

Patient felt pain when doing straight leg test. What is the diagnosis?

A

Intervertebral disc herniation

186
Q

What is Lasegue’s sign?

A

low back pain wht underlying herniated disc (L5)

187
Q

Patient has lower back pain, positive raising leg sign. What would be the ‘initial’ imaging test to do?
A. CT
B. MRI
C. Xray
D. PET

A

C. Xray

188
Q

Patient with pain in his back but all the tests for nerve damage are negative. What do you do?

A

Refer for MRI

189
Q

Patient is referred to you for lower back pain, abduction and lateral rotation, recreate/irritate pain, flex hip to 45 degrees and gets pain. What does it mean?
A. herniated disc
B. Referred pain
C. Radiculopathy
D. Sacroiliac Joint Dysfunction

A

Patrick’s Test (FABER test)
D. Sacroiliac Joint Dysfunction

190
Q

Positive Trendelenburg’s sign (seen in patients with weak or paralyzed hip abductor muscles) indicates what muscles are affected?

A

Hip abductors - gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

191
Q

20 years old boy played some game, stand a lot and rotated his food a lot yesterday. He showed up symptoms like can’t bear his weight, fatigue, fever, pain on legs. What problem does he have?
A. Collateral ligament injury
B. Anterior cruciate ligament Injury
C. Medial Meniscus Tear
D. Patella Muscle rupture

A

C. Medial Meniscus Tear

192
Q

The abduction (Valgus) stress test checks for:

A

Medial collateral ligament injury

193
Q

Adduction (Varus) stress test checks for:

A

Lateral Collateral Ligament Injury

194
Q

The Apley’s test checks for:

A

Meniscus Tear (similar to McMurray’s)

195
Q

What are the McMurray and Apley tests for?

A

Check meniscus injury (medial & lateral)

196
Q

What knee joint exams check meniscus (medial and lateral) injury?

A

Mc Murray & Apley’s test

197
Q

Case: Patient has ski week and complains of knee pain, positive Apley test.

A

Meniscus injury

198
Q

What are the 3 ACL test?

A

Lachman’s Test
Anterior Drawer Test
Lateral Pivot Shift Test

199
Q

What are the Meniscus Test?

A

Apley Compression Test
McMurray Test

200
Q

Lady went on vacation and hiked 40 miles. Pain in the lateral forefoot, swelling, no bruising
A. Morton’s neuroma
B. Stress Fracture
C. Plantar Fasciitis

A

B. Stress Fracture
Hairline fracture, fatigue-induced fracture of the bone caused by repeated stress over time

201
Q

Painful arc 60-120 deg abducting arm, painful when washing hair, which muscle or tendon is most affected?

A

Supraspinatus, the most common muscle affected in Rotator Cuff Syndrome

202
Q

An acute supraspinatus tendinitis (rotator cuff) movement are usually not limited but there is painful arc between.

A

60-120degree of abduction of the arm

203
Q

Shoulder joint pain palpated on Deltoid, Teres minor area and subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus area and patient did repetitive motion of a sports activity, What is the diagnosis?
A. Rotator cuff syndrome
B. Frozen Shoulder (adhesive capulitis)

A

A. Rotator cuff syndrome
SITS: Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis

204
Q

Winged Scapula, which muscles are injured?
A. Serratus anterior (boxer’s muscle)
B. Teres major
C. Supraspinatus

A

A. Serratus anterior (boxer’s muscle)
Long Thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior

205
Q

Winged scapula is a condition in which the shoulder blade protrudes from a person’s back in an abnormal position. The most common cause is the serratus anterior muscle paralysis due to an injury to the?
A. Axillary nerve
B. Long Thoracic nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Spinal accessory nerve

A

B. Long Thoracic nerve

206
Q

Case: Practitioner raised patient’s arm and can’t feel the radial pulse, and patient has neck, shoulder and arm pain, numbness or impaired circulation to the affected areas, what is the problem?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Angina

A

A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- wright’s test- hyperabducting the arms over the head with some extension
loss or radial pulse
- pain does not happen or increase when walking while the pain of angina

207
Q

woman who is 7 months pregnant comes into clinic with a left side headache and right arm paresthesia and neck pain. What is the condition?
A. Heart attack
B. Preclampsia
C. Gestational Diabetes
D. Cervical Radiculopathy (pinched nerve)

A

D. Cervical Radiculopathy (pinched nerve)
cause: repetitive & excessive load on the spine
- incluce heavy manual labor requiring lifting of more than 25 lbs, smoking and driving

208
Q

Bony nodules called Bouchard’s nodes (middle joint) or Heberden’s nodes (fingertip)

A

Osteoarthritis
Bouchard - PIP
Heberden’s (DIP)

209
Q

A patient has both hand pain when constantly typing on the keyboard, what is the disorder?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
D. Osteomyelitis

A

B. Osteoarthritis

210
Q

How to differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?

A

RA - Joints are painful, swollen and stiff
- Morning stiffness, lasts longer than 1 hour
Frequent fatigue
- Relatively rapid over weeks to month
OS
- Slow progression
- Joints ache and may be tender but have little or no swelling
- Stiffness returns at end of day, or period of activity
- not whole body

211
Q

To evaluate joint range or motion, what’s the correct order?

A

Active ROM -> passive ROM -> resistant isometrics

212
Q

The initial step in joint examination is to evaluate
A. Isotonic muscle contraction
B. Isometric muscle contraction
C. Active range of motion (ROM)
D. Passive range of motion

A

C. Active range of motion (ROM)

213
Q

Passive ROM is used for what:
A. Muscles
B. Joints
C. Bursa
D. Nerves

A

B. Joints

214
Q

Difference between Isotonic and Isometric muscles?

A

Isotonic: same tension; changing length

Isometric: Same length, changing tension

215
Q

Parasympathetic response?
A. Pupil constriction (miosis)
B. Bronchioles dilates
C. Heart rate increases

A

A. Pupil constriction (miosis)

  • heartbeat slows
  • Constricts bronchi
  • contracts bladder
216
Q

Sympathetic nervous system B receptors cause all of the following except the following physiological response

A

Pupil constriction
Accelerate heartbeat
Convert glycogen to glucose
Inhibits peristalsis and secretion in digestion
Inhibits saliva flow

217
Q

Early Signs of Opiate withdrawal

A
  • Anxiety
  • Dehydration
  • Fatigue
  • Hot/cold flashes
  • Sweating
  • muscle aches
218
Q

Late signs of Opiate withdrawal

A

Late symptoms
- Dilated pupils
- Goosebumps
- Nausea
- Vomiting

219
Q

A young man has anxiety, nausea/vomiting, “goose bump” with dilated pupils. What substanes(s) did the patient use?
A. Alcohol
B. Opiates
C. Cocaine

A

B. Opiates

220
Q

Patient came to the clinic, agitated with dilated pupils what substanes did the patient use?
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Opioid
D. Heroin
E. Amphetamine

A

A. Cocaine
E. Amphetamine

221
Q

Beta Endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins, which drug binds to these receptors?
A. Opioids
B. Antidepressants

A

A. Opioids

222
Q

26 yo mad with headache, nausea and PHOTOSENSITIVITY. Most likely type of headache:

A

Migraine (vascular)

223
Q

A patient comes in with a headache that is very painful and has lacrimation and runny nose, what type of headache is this?
A. Classic migraine
B. Common migraine
C. Cluster headache
D. Neuromyalgia headache

A

C. Cluster headache

224
Q

What is cachexia?

A

weakness and wasting of the body due to chronic illness

225
Q

Complete blood count include?

A

platelet count, RBC count, WBC count, hemoglobin, hematocrit

226
Q

What is the Phalen test?

A

Putting top of hands together in opposite prayer hands. Testing the carpal tunnel syndrome, median nerve.

227
Q

What is Leukopenia and what is associated with it?

A

Decreased WBC count associated with bone marrow failure, radiation therapy, drug toxicity, autoimmune, steroids, chemotherapy

228
Q

What are the worse cancer in terms of death, top 4

A

pancreatic, breast, colon and finally worse: lungs

229
Q

How is HIV/AIDS diagnosed?

A

Gum Swab

230
Q

What is the risk of getting HIV from needle stick with contamincated blood?

A

0.3%

231
Q

What is % that an infected hypodermic needle stick wtill transmit HIV?

A

0.3%

232
Q

Which are the primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B?

A

Blood, sex, Syringe

233
Q

What is risk of getting Hep B from needle stick with contaminated blood?

A

30%

234
Q

What is higher % transfer of infected needle?

A

HBV

235
Q

Which of these statements about Hep is true?
Hep A is bloodborne
Hep B Oral-Fecal
Hep C is the most common cause of Liver cancer

A

Hep C is the most common cause of Liver cancer

236
Q

Expsosure to HBV will show what symptoms?
2-6 months, fatigue, fever, flu-like symptoms
4-6 months, flu-like symptoms
1 month, flu-like symptoms
within 2-3 months, flu-like symptoms

A

2-6 months, fatigue, fever, flu-like symptoms

237
Q

A patient has just returned from Mexico and has nausea and vomit what should you ask?

A

Does he have a Hep A vaccine?

238
Q

Which vaccination is highly recommended for acupuncturist?

A

Flu Shot (HBV shot was NOT an option)

239
Q

OSHA - Hep B shot should be offered after the worker has received the required bloodborne pathogens raining and within XX days of initial assignment to a job with occupational exposure.

A

10 days

240
Q

CNT main focus on waht?
Clean Field
Hand Washing
Disposable needles
Sharps container

A

Hand Washing

241
Q

CNT procedure: hand washing time?

A

15-20 sec to prevent cross infection

242
Q

What best defines CNT?
Sterile procedure
Aseptic procedure
Clean procedure

A

Clean procedure - Aseptic technique

243
Q

How full can sharps container be?

A

3/4 full

244
Q

The regulation for sharps container
-Big enough to put the long needles
-Has to be labeled with the universal biohazard symbol and the word “biohazard” or be color-coded red
- Made from a variety of products from cardboard to plastic

A

Big enough to put the long needles

245
Q

Catching disease from contaminated object in environemnt, ex.treatment table is:
- Indirect contact transmission
- Direct cotnact transmission

A
  • Indirect contact transmission
246
Q

Who must be given bloodborne pathogen training and universal precaution training?

A

ALL employees

247
Q

CNT: Universal Precautions should be taught to:

A

All employees

248
Q

During treatment, you accidentally cut your finger, what should you do next?
- Wear gloves
- Wash and dress the cut with a bandage
- Cancel treatment

A

Wash and dress the cut with a bandage

249
Q

Single cotton swab can be used to clean more than one point onthe same patient if:
- A single cotton swab can only be used to prepare a single point
- The points are in the same general area
- The points are in different areas and there are no signs of inflammation, disease or broken skin
- 90% isopropryl alcohol is used to preapare the patient’s skin

A
  • The points are in the same general area
250
Q

All of the following statements about the use of needle guide tubes are true EXCEPT:
- Guide tubes should be sterile at the begining of each treatment on each patient
- When using bundled needles, it is considered acceptable to use the guide tube more than once on the same patient, as long as it’s unsoiled and uncontaminated
- If a guide tube is used for more than one needle, it’s better to drop the needle into the tube handle-end first rather than point-end first.
- If guide tube are used, they should not be placed on the clean field between uses, since they are no longer sterile

A

If guide tube are used, they should not be placed on the clean field between uses, since they are no longer sterile

251
Q

Needles can be used on the same patient from different parts of the body if
- it is kept in the clean field
- Immediately put into cotton swab
- No because bacteria transfer/different areas with different immunities

A

No because bacteria transfer/different areas with different immunities

252
Q

Change bed sheets between patient’s reatment. How should they be washed?

A

Launder with hot water and detergent, add hypochlorite(bleach) solution to the wash provides an extra margin of safety.

253
Q

What is hyperpituitarism?

A

Excessive production of growth hormone (acromegaly or gigantism)
GH up (acromegaly)
PRL up (infertility)
ACTH up (cushing)

254
Q

Patient comes in with Type 1 Diabetes (side effect) for 10 years. What is a reasonable expectation of treatment?
- Reduce dependency on sinsulin
- Treat diabetic circulatory problems

A
  • Treat diabetic circulatory problems
255
Q

Diabetes mellitus 20 years, most serious complication?

A

Peripheral neuropathy (B12)

256
Q

Chronic diabetic patient testing to check blood sugar level:
- HbA1C hemoglobin
- FBS (fasting sugar)
- long term monitor blood sugar
- Oral glucose tolerance test

A
  • HbA1C hemoglobin
257
Q

Which hormone when high can cause hypercalcemia
- calcitonin
- parathyroid hormone
- thyroid stimulating
- pitocin

A
  • parathyroid hormone
258
Q

What hormone helps absorb calcium in intestines?

A

PTH

259
Q

Calcitonin, a hormone involved in the regulation of calcium metabolism, is secreted by the?
- Pineal gland
- Thymus gland
- Thyroid Gland
- Parathyroid Gland

A
  • Thyroid Gland
260
Q

If Ca2+ levels are too HIGH, which gland releases hormone to manage Ca2+?

A

Thyroid releases calcitonin, which increases Ca2+ deposits in bones, decrease uptake in intestines, decrease reabsorption from urine

261
Q

If Ca2+ levels are too LOW, which gland releases hormone to manage Ca2+?

A

Parathyroid releases PTH, which decreases Ca2+ deposits in bones, increase uptake in intestines, increase reabsorption from urine

262
Q

Goiter is caused by?

A

Iodine deficiency
(hyper - graves), hypo - hashimoto

263
Q

Older woman 60’s, fatigue, pale and puffy, dry skin and hair. What disease?
- Grave’s
- Myxedema (hypothyroidism)
- Hashimoto’s

A
  • Myxedema (hypothyroidism)
264
Q

Potassium deficiencies with high BP

A

Aldosterone is too high because of adrenal cortex tumor (adenoma)

265
Q

What does aldosterone and where does it come from?

A

Raises blood pressure; released by adrenal cortex

266
Q

DHEA - natural steroid hormone produced from cholesterol in which organs?

A

Adrenal glands, gonads and brain

267
Q

What medicine is a risk for osteoporosis?

A

Steroids

268
Q

What id Addison’s disease

A

Adrenal insufficiency
aldosterone (down) hypotension
Cortosol (down) fatigue
ACTH (up)-hyperpigmentation

269
Q

Young female patient, who has suffered from an autoimmune disease, and is being treated with a glucocorticoid, shows the appearance of a moon shape face, buffalo hump, and truncal obesity. This is typical case of?

-Graves disease
-Addison’s Disease
-Turners Syndrome
-Cushing’s syndrome

A

-Cushing’s syndrome

270
Q

Oral contraceptive Pills (OCP) feedback

A

Inhibition on LH and FSH

271
Q

What hormone spikes during ovulation

A

LH - basal body temp up

272
Q

What hormone is elevated in monopause?

A

FSH

273
Q

50 year old woman present with irregular menstrual period, hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, and insomnia. A preliminary diagnosis of perimenopausal syndrome is made. Which hormones are expected to have an elevated level?

A

LH and FSH (estrogen and progesterone decrease)

274
Q

Progesterone is released from where after ovulation?

A

Corpus Luteum

275
Q

What should you look for in a women taking estrogen therapy?

A

Headache, Nausea, breast tenderness

276
Q

Patient has PCOS, infertility, she is overweight, w/ irregular periods what other symptoms
- Dysmenorrhea
-Dyspareunia
-PID
-Insulin Resistance

A

-Insulin Resistance

277
Q

Which hormone level is high in PCOS?

A

Testosterone

278
Q

patient 28, hysteria, pain, increased testosterone. Probably has:
- PCOS
-Pituitary lesion
-Adrenal lesion

A
  • PCOS
279
Q

43 years old female patient has symptoms of high level of androgen, irregular menses, and ovarian polyps, what test should be done to confirm the diagnosis (PCOS)?
- hysteroscopy
-ultrasound
-Xray

A

-ultrasound

280
Q

Patient thinks he injured his calf, theyare red, swollen. What do you do?

A

Let it rest
Apply Ice

281
Q

Which disorder is most likely to cause sleep disturbances?
MS
Lupus
Amuloidosis
Fibromyalgia

A

Fibromyalgia

282
Q

Motor part enters muscle fiber, most electrically excitable part of muscle?
Trigger point
Reflex point
Motor point
Sensory point

A

Motor point

283
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is linked to which specific HLA (human leukocyte antigen)

A

HLA - B27

284
Q

Restless leg syndrome symptoms:

A

pain, sting & worsen after long time standing
cramping, needling pain worsen in he evening
Tingling, numbness and worsen in the evening.

285
Q

MRI is used to confirm

A

Soft Tissue injury
Avascular necrosis

286
Q

DEXA (DUal Energy Xray Absorptionmetry)

A

Osteoporosis

287
Q

A patient has skate board accident, possible skull fracture & subarachnoid hemorrhage: diagnostic test used:

A

Head CT (efficient) or MRI (slower but accurate and costly)

288
Q

Patient has abdominal pain and is aggravated when defecating?

A

Herniated Lumbar Disc

289
Q

Patient felt pain when doing straight leg test. What is the diagnosis?

A

Intervertebral disc herniation

290
Q

Patient has lower back pain, positive raising leg sign. What would be the initial imaging test to do?

A

Xray

291
Q

Patient with pain in his back but all the tests for nerve damage are negative, what do you do?

A

Refer for MRI

292
Q

Patient is referred to you for lower back pain, abduction and lateral rotation, recreate/irritate, flex hip to 45 def and gets pain what does this mean? (FABER test)

A

Sacroiliac Joint Dysfunction

293
Q

Positive Trendelenburg’s sign indicates what muscles affected?

A

Hip abductors - gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

294
Q

20 yrs old played some game, stand a lot and rotated his foot alot yesterday, he showed up with symptoms like can’t bear his weight, fatigue, fever, pain on legs. what problem does he have?

A

Collateral ligament injury

295
Q

The abduction (Valgus) stress test test for

A

Medial Collateral Ligament Injury (MCL)

296
Q

The Adduction (Varus) Stress Test test for :

A

Lateral Collateral Ligament Injury (LCL)

297
Q

The Apley’s Test test for:

A

Meniscus Tear (MCL)

298
Q

What are McMurray and Apley tests used for?

A

Meniscus injury, (medial and lateral)

299
Q

What knee joint exams check meniscus injury?

A

McMurray & Apley’s test

300
Q

Patient has ski week and complains of knee pain, positive Apley test. Your diagnosis:

A

Meniscus injury

301
Q

Lady went on vacation and hiked 40miles. Pain in the lateral forefoot, swelling, no bruising

A

Stress Fracture (hairline fracture)

302
Q

Painful arc 60-120deg abducting arm, painful when washing hair, which muscle or tendon is most affected?

A

Supraspinatus - most common muscle affected in Rotator Cuff Syndrome

303
Q

An acute supraspinatus tendinitis, movement are usually not limited but there is painful arc between?

A

60-120 deg of abduction of the arm

304
Q

Shoulder joint pain palpated on Deltoid, Teres minor area and supraspinatus, infraspinatus area, and patient did repetitive motion of a sports activity what is the diagnosis?

A

Rotator Cuff Syndrome

305
Q

Winged scapula - which muscle has injury

A

Serratus anterior (boxer’s muscle)

306
Q

Winged scapula is a condition in which the shoulder blade protrudes from a person’s back in an abnormal position. The most common cause is the serratus anterior muscle paralysis due to an injury to the?

A

Long Thoracic Nerve

307
Q

Case STudy: Practitioner raised patient’s arm and can’t feel the radial pulse, and patient has neck, shoulder, and arm pain, numbness or impaired circulation to the affected area, what is the problem?

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (wright’s test)

308
Q

A woman who is 7 months pregnant comes into clinic with a left side headache and right arm paresthesia and neck pain, what is the condition?

A

Cervical Radiculopathy

309
Q

Swan neck in fingers, boutonniere deformity

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

310
Q

Bony nodules called Bouchard’s nodes (middle joint) or Heberden’s nodes (fingertip) seen in:

A

Osteoarthritis

311
Q

A patient has both hand pain when constantly typing on the keyboard, what is the disorder?

A

Osteoarthritis

312
Q

How to differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis?

A

RA - joint are painful, swollen and stiff. Symmetrical on both joints, morning stiffness > 1hr
Osteo - Joints may ache, but no swelling, morning stiffness lasts less than 1 hour

313
Q

To evaluate joint range of motion, what’s the correct order”

A

Active ROM -> passive ROM -> resistant isometrics

314
Q

The initial step in the joint examination is to evaluate

A

Active range of Motion

315
Q

Passive ROM is used for what?

A

Joints

316
Q

Parasympathetic response?

A

Pupil constriction (miosis)

317
Q

Sympathetic nervous system B receptors?

A

Opiod

318
Q

Signs of Opiate withdrawal:

A

Early :
Anxiety, Dehydration, Fatigue, Sweating
Late:
Dilated pupils, goosebumps

319
Q

A young man has anxiety, nausea/vomiting “goosebump” with “dilated pupils”, what substances did the patient used?

A

Opiates

320
Q

Patient came to the clinic, agitated, with dilated pupils, what substances did the patient use?

A

Amphetamine, Cocaine

321
Q

Beta Endorphin, enkephalins, dynorphins, which drug binds to these receptors?

A

Opiods

322
Q

26 year old man with headache, drunk, nausea, and photosensitivity. Most likely type of headache:

A

Migraine

323
Q

A patient comes in with a headache that is very painful and has lacrimation and runny nose, what type of headache is thi?

A

Cluster Headache

324
Q

What are differences with the following headaches:
Migraine
Tension-type headache
Cluster headache

A

Migraine - Duration: hours. Nausea, photophobia, phonophobia + eye redness/tearing runny nose
Tension Type HA - Location - top of head - Duration for weeks
Clsuter HA - Side of face and eyes. ONly eye redness, sharp pain, last a few mins

325
Q

Patient who is 78 years old has a hitory of hypertension and comes in today complaining of excruciating headache, he has never had a headache of this type. Which type of headache does this patient have?

  • Cluster
  • Sinus
  • Migraine
  • Hormonoal
  • Thunderclap
A

Thunderclap HA - grabbing your attention like a clap of thunder.

326
Q

On one side limbs are weak with slurred speech. Where is the stroke?

A

On opposite side and in cerebral cortex (not cerebellum)

327
Q

Patient got stroke 2 weeks ago, what should you closely pat attention?

A

Blood pressure

328
Q

Patient has right hemisphere cerebral vascular accident (CVA), which area is affected?
- Right face / right body
- Right face / left body
- Left Face / Left body
Left Face / Right Body

A

Left face /left body

329
Q

Discriminative nerve findings: Left arm 1 + right 2+ left arm muscle weakness (during discrimination point find 2 better discrimination points on R arm) which side is lesion on:
- Right cerebral cortex
- Left cerebral cortex
- Right Cerebellum
- Left Cerebellum

A

Right Cerebral cortex

330
Q

Restless LEg Syndrome (RLS) is associated with:
- Iron deficiency
- Vitamin D
- Magnesium deficiency

A

Iron Deficiency

331
Q

A pap smear is recommenede at what age?

A

21

332
Q

Dr may recommend a colposcopy if this test is abnormal
- urinalysis
- pap smear
- IQ test
- Testicular test

A

Pap smear

333
Q

Describe symptoms and the positive signs to Bakody’s sign.

A

Patient abduct the artm and place on the head. A positive sign gives relief of symptoms.
Cervical radiculopathy at the C4-C6

334
Q

What are the antioxidant vitamins and their corresponding minerals?

A

A - Lutein
C - Lycopene
E - Selenium

335
Q

What is HbA1c used for?

A

Hemoglobin that carries oxygen. This one is specifically reflective of Blood Sugar (Diabetes)

336
Q

How often should a patient be tested with an HbA1C?

A

about once every 3 months

337
Q

What is the pre-diabetic range for A1C?

A

5.7 - 6.4 (6 is the middle +- 0.4)

338
Q

Name the SSRI drugs?

A

E(ffective) : Escitalo-pram
F(or) : Fluoxetin
S(adness) : Sertraline
P(anic) : Paroxetine
C(ompulsion) : Citalo-pram

339
Q

What are the adverse effects of SSRI?

A

Stomach Upset
Sexual Dysfunction
Serotonin Syndrome

340
Q

Causes for Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Commonly placed with other pharmaceuticals:
SSRI + SSRI
SSRI + MAOI
SSRI + SNRI (venlafaxine)

341
Q

What are the symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome?

A

delirium, agitation, tachycardia, diaphoresis, diarrhea, seizures

342
Q

Treatment for Serotonin Syndrome?

A

STop the offending medications, IV fluids, Cyproheptadine (serotonin production down)
Benzodiazepine (muscle rigidity down)

343
Q

What foods should you avoid with the following drugs:
- MAOI
- Gout

A

MAOI - Tyraminie-rich (cheese, pickled foods, wine)
Gout: Purine-rich foods (anchovies, sardines, alcohold)

344
Q

What are the overdose symptoms for the following psychotics?
- LIthium
- Antipsychotics
- SSRI
- MAOI

A

Litium - Lithium Toxicity
Antipsychotics - Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
SSRI - Serotonin Syndrome
MAOI -induced Hypertensive Crisis

345
Q

Causes of high ESR

A

N (eoplasia)
A (nemia, autoimmune)
P regnancy
K idney disease
I infection, inflammation
N eoplasm

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