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Fire lieutenant > Hazmat > Flashcards

Hazmat Flashcards

1
Q

substances that possess harmful characteristics

A

hazardous materials

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2
Q

CBRNE

A

chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive

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3
Q

TRACEM

A

thermal, radiological, asphyxiation, chemical, etiological/ biological, mechanical

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4
Q

records have shown that most hazmat incidents involve the following products

A

-flammable/combustible liquids
-corrosives
-anhydrous ammonia
-chlorine

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5
Q

to meet criteria for bulk packaging one of the following must be met

A

-max capacity is greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a liquid
-max net mass is greater than 882 pounds or max capacity is greater than 119 gallons for a liquid
-water capacity is 1,001 pounds or greater as a receptacle for gas

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6
Q

any clothing saturated with a cryogenic material must be removed immediately. this action is particularly important if the vapor is

A

flammable or an oxidizer

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7
Q

cryogenic vapors can be extremely cold potentially causing

A

freeze burns, which are treated as cold injuries according to their severity

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8
Q

under the United Nations (UN) system, nine hazard classes are used to categorize hazardous materials:

A

Class 1: Explosives
Class 2: Gases
Class 3: Flammable Liquids
Class 4: Flammable solids
Class 5: Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides
Class 6: Toxic and infectious substances
Class 7: Radioactive materials
Class 8: Corrosive substances
Class 9: Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles

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9
Q

The ERG provides a key to the four digit id numbers in the

A

yellow bordered section

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10
Q

important facts related to placards

A

a placard is not required for shipments of infectious substances, or other regulated materials for domestic transport only (ORM-Ds), materials of trade (MOTs), limited quantities, small quantity packages, radioactive materials white label I or yellow label II, or combustible liquids in non bulk packaging

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11
Q

important facts related to placards

A

-some private agricultural and military vehicles may not have placards

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12
Q

The us department of transportation defines elevated temperature materials as one that when offered for transportation or transported in bulk packaging has one of the following properties

A

-liquid phase at a temperature at or above 212 F
-liquid phase with a flash point at or above 100 F that is intentionally heated and offered for transportation or transported at or above its flash point
-solid phase at a temperature at or above 464 F

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13
Q

the NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0-4. 0 indicates a minimal hazard, whereas the number 4 indicates a severe hazard. the rating is assigned to 3 categories:

A

health, flammability, and instability.

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14
Q

NFPA 704 system health rating is on a

A

blue background or any contrasting color and the number is represented by appropriate color (blue)

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15
Q

NFPA 704 system flammability hazard rating is on a

A

red background or any contrasting color and the number is represented by the color red

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16
Q

NFPA 704 system instability hazard rating is on a

A

yellow background or any contrasting color and the number is represented by the color yellow

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17
Q

NFPA 704 system special hazards are located in the 6 o’clock position and have no specified background color, however white is most commonly used. only two special hazard symbols are presently authorized for use in this position by the NFPA:

A

W indicting unusual reactivity with water, and OX indicating that the material is an oxidizer. If more than one special hazard is present, multiple symbols may be seen.

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18
Q

Relevent sections of SDS’s can be used to identify potential fire, explosion, and health hazards as well as precautions to be taken to protect responders and the public. Per OSHA, the list below describes SDS sections

A

-Section 1: identification
-Section 2: hazard(s) identification
-Section 3: composition/ information on ingredients
-Section 4: first aid measures
-Section 5: firefighting measures
-Section 6: accidental release measures
-Section 7: handling and storage
-Section 8: exposure controls/ personal protection
-Section 9: physical and chemical properties
-Section 10: stability and reactivity
-Section 11: toxicological information
-Section 12: ecological information
-Section 13: disposal considerations
-Section 14: transport information
-Section 15: regulatory information
-Section 16: other information

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19
Q

Physical actions are processes that do not change the elemental composition of the materials involved. Several indications of a physical action are as follows:

A

-rainbow sheen on water surfaces
-wavy vapors over a volatile liquid
-frost or ice buildup near a leak
-containers deformed by the force of an accident
-activated pressure relief devices
-pinging or popping of heat-or-cold-exposed vessels

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20
Q

Chemical reactions convert one substance to another. Visual and sensory evidence of chemical reaction include the following:

A

-heat
-unusual or unexpected temp drop (cold)
-extraordinary fire conditions
-peeling or discoloration of a containers finish
-spattering or boiling of unheated materials
-distinctively colored vapor clouds
-smoking or self igniting materials
-unexpected deterioration of equipment
-peculiar smells
-unexplained changes in ordinary materials
-symptoms of chemical exposure

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21
Q

symptoms of chemical exposure

A

-changes in respiration
-changes in level of consciousness
-abdominal distress
-change in activity level
-visual disturbances
-skin changes
-changes in exception or thirst
-pain

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22
Q

you can locate the appropriate initial action guide page in the ERG in several different ways

A

-identify the four digit un id number on a placard or shipping papers then look up the appropriate guide in the yellow bordered pages
-reference the name of the material involved in the blue bordered pages
-identify the materials transportation placard the reference the three digit code associated with the placard in the table of placards and initial response guide to use on scene located in the front or ERG
-reference the container profiles provided in the white pages in the front of the book

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23
Q

ERG yellow bordered pages provide a four digit UN/NA ID number index list in numerical order. the four digit ID number is followed by its

A

assigned three digit ERG number and the materials name

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24
Q

ERG green highlighting in the yellow bordered index indicates

A

that the substance releases gases that are toxic inhalation hazard. A “P” following the guide number indicates that a material polymerizes (a violent reaction that releases great amounts of heat and energy)

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25
Q

ERG blue bordered pages

A

provides an index of dangerous goods in alphabetical order by material name

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26
Q

ERG blue bordered pages with green highlighting indicates

A

the release of toxic inhalation hazard gases and P indicates the material polymerizes

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27
Q

ERG orange bordered section is the most useful because it provides

A

safety recommendations and general hazard information

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28
Q

the potential hazards section addresses two hazard types under separate headers: health hazards and fire or explosion hazards. the highest potential hazard is listed

A

first

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29
Q

a small spill (approx 55 gallons or less) involves a

A

single small package, small cylinder, or small leak from a small package

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30
Q

a large spill (more than 55 gallons) is one that involves a spill from a

A

large package or multiple spills from many small packages

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31
Q

the initial isolation and protective action distances list is further subdivided into daytime and nighttime situations because

A

atmospheric conditions are often different depending on the time of day and can significantly affect the size of a chemically hazardous area

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32
Q

as with the isolation distances provided in the orange bordered pages the initial isolation distances provided in the green bordered pages are the distance within which all persons should be considered for evacuation in all directions from an actual hazmat spill/ leak source. this distance will always be at least

A

100 feet

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33
Q

the ERG guidebook established separate initial isolation distances based solely on the involved products state of matter, they are

A

solids-75 feet
liquids-150 feet
gases-330 feet

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34
Q

the pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid in a closed container

A

vapor pressure

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35
Q

vapor pressure may use any of the following units

A

-pounds per square inch
-kilopascals
-bars
-millimeters of mercury
-atmospheres
-hectopascals (used on new GHS SDS)

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36
Q

be aware of the following facts regarding vapor pressure

A

-materials with vapor pressure over 760 mmHg will be gases under normal conditions
-the higher the temperature of a substance, the higher its vapor pressure will be

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37
Q

the higher the temperature of a substance

A

the higher its vapor pressure will be

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38
Q

the lower the boiling point of a material

A

the higher its vapor pressure will be

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39
Q

the weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure

A

vapor density

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40
Q

lighter than air gases

A

acetylene .9
ammonia .59
CO .96
diborane .96
ethylene .96
helium .14
hydrogen .07
hydrogen cyanide .95
hydrogen fluoride .34
illuminating gases .6
methane .55
neon .34
nitrogen .96

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41
Q

common materials with a vapor density greater than 1

A

propane
hydrogen sulfide
ethane
butane
chlorine
sulfur dioxide

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42
Q

in water expresses the percentage of a material (by weight) that will dissolve in water at ambient temperature

A

solubility

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43
Q

when a non water soluble liquid such as a hydrocarbon combines with water

A

the two liquids remain separate

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44
Q

when water soluble liquids such as a polar solvent combines with water

A

the two liquids mix

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45
Q

a flammable hazard depends on properties including its

A

-flash point
-autoignition temperature (autoignition point)
- flammable (explosive or combustible) range

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46
Q

the minimum temperature at which a liquid or volatile solid gives off sufficient vapors at its lower explosive limit (LEL) to form and ignitable mixture with air near its surface.

A

Flash Point

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47
Q

the temperature at which a liquid or volatile substance gives off enough vapors to support continues burning

A

Fire Point

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48
Q

the minimum temperature to which the fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source

A

autoignition temperature

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49
Q

the lowest concentration of a vapor or gas that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present

A

LEL or lower flammable (explosive) limit

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50
Q

some corrosives are neither acids nor bases

A

hydrogen peroxide

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51
Q

wood is not as prone to undergo rapid oxidation, as a highly flammable liquid such as

A

MEK

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52
Q

types of ionizing radiation

A

alpha
beta
gamma
neutron

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53
Q

alpha

A

energetic positively charged alpha particles emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay. rapidly lose energy when passing through matter. commonly emitted in the radioactive decay of some manmade and the heaviest radioactive elements such as uranium and radium. you may have to get close to source to detect particles. harmful if ingested or inhaled. can be stopped by sheet of paper.

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54
Q

beta

A

fast moving positively charged protons or negatively charged electrons emitted from the atoms nucleus during radioactive decay. penetrate further than alpha but cause less damage. more hazardous when inhaled or ingested. blocked by clothing, thin sheet of metal, or thick plexiglass.

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55
Q

gamma

A

high energy photons (like visible light and x-rays). gamma rays often accompany the emission of alpha or beta particles from the nucleus. they have neither a charge nor a mass but are penetrating. one source of gamma radiation in the environment is naturally occurring potassium-40. can easily pass through the human body or be absorbed by tissue. radaition hazard for the entire body. standard firefighting clothing does not protect against. earth concrete and lead may be used to shield against.

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56
Q

neutron

A

particles that have a physical mass but have no electrical charge. neutrons are highly penetrating. fission reactions produce neutrons along with gamma radiation. shielding from neutron radiation requires materials with high amounts of hydrogen, such as soil, water, and concrete.

57
Q

ALARA (as low as reasonably achievable)

A

using time, distance, and shielding to limit exposure to radiation.

58
Q

rickettsias

A

specialized bacteria that live and multiply in gastrointestinal tract of arthropod carriers (such as ticks and fleas). they are smaller than most bacteria but larger than viruses. like bacteria they are single celled organisms with their own metabolisms and they are susceptible to broad spectrum antibiotics.

59
Q

chemical hazards

A

divison 2.3

60
Q

blast pressure wave

A

rapidly released gases can create a shock tase that travels outward from the center. as the wave increases in distance, the strength decreases. primary reason for injuries. has positive and negative phase, both can cause damage.

61
Q

Small pieces of debris thrown from a container or a structure that ruptures during an explosion from containment or restricted blast pressure.

A

Shrapnel and fragmentation

62
Q

Vibration is similar to an earthquake. when a blast occurs at or near ground level the air blast creates ground shock or crater

A

Seismic effect

63
Q

Occurs during an explosion when thermal heat energy forms of fireball

A

Incendiary thermal effect

64
Q

ORM-Ds

A

Are consumer commodities that present a limited hazard during transportation due to their form quantity and packaging. No placards are required for ORM-D’s but they are otherwise subject to the requirements of hazardous material regulations

65
Q

MOT

A

A hazardous material other than a hazardous waste that is carried on a motor vehicle. MOTs do not require placards, shipping papers, emergency response information, forma record keeping, or formal training.

66
Q

Several emergency response centers such as _____ are not government operated

A

The chemical transportation emergency center CHEM-TREC

67
Q

Occurs in containers that are made of brittle material. The container suffers a general loss of integrity.

A

Disintegration

68
Q

Breaks the container into two or more relatively large pieces (fragmentation) or large tears. a crack develops in a container and continues to grow rapidly. this occurs in close containers such as drums tank cars or cylinders. Runaway linear cracking is commonly associated with BLEVEs

A

Runaway cracking

69
Q

May fail, open, or break off when subject to stress leading to a total failure of a container. When evaluating an attachment such as a pressure relief device discharge valve or other related equipment that failed, first responders should consider the entire system and the effect of failure at a given point.

A

Attachments closures open or break

70
Q

Occurs when foreign objects penetrate through a container such as forklift puncturing drums and couplers puncturing a rail tanker

A

Puncture

71
Q

Containers may also breach through a split, such as a welded seem on a tank or when a drum fails. Mechanical or a thermal stressors may cause splits or tears such as when I seen on a bag of fertilizer reps.

A

Split or tear

72
Q

Releases are classified according to how fast they occur. This is an Instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material. The duration of a detonation can be measured in hundreds or thousands of a second.

A

Detonation

73
Q

Releases are classified according to how they occur: this is an immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. this occurs within a timeframe of one second or less. A BLEVE is an example of this

A

Violent rupture

74
Q

Releases are classified according to how fast they occur: this is a fast release of a pressurized Hazardousmaterial through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds to several minutes

A

Rapid relief

75
Q

Releases are classified according to how they occur: this is a slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or usual openings/attachments. This can occur in a period lasting from several minutes to several days.

A

Spell/ leak

76
Q

The dispersion of a material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the hazardous material, energy, and container components depends on the type of release which include

A

-A solid, liquid, or gas/vapor
-Mechanical, thermal, or chemical energy and ionizing radiation
-Product characteristics in environmental conditions such as weather and terrain

77
Q

The shape and size of the dispersing hazardous material also depends on how the material emerges from its container whether as an instantaneous puff, a continuous plume, or a sporadic fluctuation. Common dispersion patterns

A

Hemispheric
Cloud
Plume
Cone
Stream
Pool
Irregular

78
Q

Common dispersion pattern: hemispheric

A

 Semi circular or dome shaped pattern of airborne hazardous material that is still partially in contact with the ground or water

79
Q

Common dispersion pattern: cloud

A

Ball shaped pattern of the airborne hazardous material that collectively rises above the ground or water. Gases, vapors, and finely divided solids that release quickly can disperse in cloud form under minimal wind conditions

80
Q

Common dispersion pattern: plume

A

Irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release

81
Q

Common dispersion pattern: cone

A

Triangular shape pattern of a hazardous material with a point source at the breach and a wide base down range

82
Q

Common dispersion patterns: stream

A

Surface following pattern of liquid hazardous material that is affected by gravity and topographical contours

83
Q

Common dispersion patterns: pool

A

Three-dimensional slow flowing liquid dispersion

84
Q

Common dispersion patterns: irregular

A

Irregular or indiscriminate deposit of a hazardous material such as that carried by contaminated responders

85
Q

Contacts or impingements are associated with the following general time frames

A

-Immediate-milliseconds, seconds
-short term- minutes, hours
-Medium term– days, weeks, months
-long term- years, generations

86
Q

_______ containers can experience any type of breach, although releases from pressure relief devices and/or damaged fittings are most common

A

Cryogenic containers

87
Q

Have operating pressures from 0.5 to 15 psi

A

Low pressure storage tanks

88
Q

Types of low pressure storage tanks Include

A

Dome roof tanks
spheroid tanks
noded spheroid tanks

89
Q

__________Typically contain flammable and combustible liquids with low vapor pressure such as solvents

A

Low pressure storage tanks

90
Q

What is the priority at incidents involving low pressure storage tanks yeah

A

Eliminating ignition sources

91
Q

Nonpressure/atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under a little or no pressure. the maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is

A

0.5 psi

92
Q

Common types of atmospheric tanks include

A

-Horizontal tanks
-Ordinary cone roof tanks
-Open and closed roof floating- roof tanks
-Lifter roof tanks
– Vapor dome roof tanks

93
Q

Transport hazardous and non-hazardous solids and liquids with a vapor pressures below 25 psi at 105°F to 115°F

A

Low pressure tank cars

94
Q

Often transport dry bulk materials such as grain, calcium carbide, ammonium nitrate, and cement

A

Covered hopper cars

95
Q

May carry coal, sand, gravel, or rocks

A

Uncovered or open top hopper cars

96
Q

Unloaded by air pressure and used to transport dry bulk loads such as ammonium Nitrate fertilizer, dry caustic soda, plastic pellets, and cement. Pressure ratings during unloading range from 20 to 80 psi

A

Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars

97
Q

This tank is the most common intermodal tank used in transportation. often called non-pressure intermodal tanks. These tanks may have pressures as high as 100 psi

A

Low pressure intermodal tank

98
Q

Tom containers my also contain products such as

A

Sulfur dioxide, anhydrous ammonia, or Freon refrigerant

99
Q

The type of packaging used to transport radioactive material is determined by the

A

Activity, type, and form of the material to be shipped

100
Q

Radioactive material is shipped in one of the following five basic types of containers listed in order of increasing level of radioactive hazard

A

-excepted
-Industrial
-Type A
-Type B
-Type C

101
Q

Radioactive material containers. 1 Excepted

A

This packaging is used to transport materials that have limited radioactivity such as articles manufactured from natural or depleted uranium or natural thorium. Expected packages are only used to transport materials with low levels of radioactivity and present no risk to the public or environment

102
Q

Radioactive material containers. 2 Industrial

A

This container design retains and protects its contents during normal transportation activities. Industrial packages contain materials that present a limited hazard to the public and the environment.

103
Q

Radioactive material containers. 3 Type A

A

This container design protects its contents and maintains sufficient shielding under conditions normally encounter during transportation. these packages must demonstrate their ability to withstand a series of tests without releasing their contents

104
Q

Radioactive material containers. 4 Type B

A

 These packages must not only demonstrate their ability to withstand test simulating normal shipping conditions, but they must also withstand severe accident conditions without releasing their contents. Radioactive materials that exceed the limits of type A package requirements must be shipped in type B packages

105
Q

Radioactive material containers. 5 Type C

A

These are rare packages used for high activity materials including plutonium transported by aircraft. These are designed to withstand severe accident conditions associated with air transport without loss of containment or a significant increase in external radiation levels

106
Q

NIMS- ICS involves five major organizational functions

A

-command
-operations
-planning
-logistics
-finance/ administration

107
Q

Once resources have been committed to an incident it is easier to reduce the isolation perimeter in size than it is to

A

Extend it

108
Q

Hazard control zones provide the scene control required at hazmat in terrorist incidents

A

-prevent interference by unauthorized persons
-Help regulate first responders movements within the zones
-minimize contamination
-Help ensure accountability of all personnel operating at large multi agency response incidents 

109
Q

At Terrorist incidents in the US the FBI establishes an evidence search perimeter ___ times the distance of the farthest known piece of evidence

A

1.5

110
Q

All terrorist activities share the following three commitments

A
  1. Using force that involves illegal activities
  2. Intimidation or coercion
  3. Supporting political or social objectives
111
Q

WMD threat spectrum from most likely to least likely

A
  1. Explosives
  2. Biological toxins
  3. Industrial chemicals
  4. Biological pathogens
  5. Radiological materials
  6. Military grade chemical weapons
  7. Nuclear weapons
112
Q

The following occurs in the positive pressure phase of an explosion

A

-The shock front leads the positive pressure wave, striking anything in its path with a hammering force
-The positive pressure wave continues upwards in an expanding radius until its energy diminishes
-The energy dissipates due to distance or because it transfers to objects such as buildings standing in its path

113
Q

After the initial expansion energy dissipates, negative pressure or suction phase is created when the following occurs

A

-displaced atmosphere rushes back in to fill the vacuum left at the center of the explosion
-Structures damaged in the initial blast can be further damaged in the negative pressure phase
-An Explosions negative pressure phase last about three times longer than the positive pressure phase

114
Q

Low explosive materials decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive affect unless they are confined. They deflagrate at a speed slower than the speed of sound. examples of low explosives are

A

Black powder, fireworks, and road flares

115
Q

Pipe bombs are the most common type of IED found in the United States. Characteristics of the pipe bomb and those of the pipe bomb manufacturers include following

A

-Length rates from 4 to 14 inches
-steel or polyvinylchloride pipe sections are filled with explosives and are capped at the ends or sealed
-Made with black powder or match heads
-Filled or wrapped with nails or other materials that will become shrapnel
-can’t throw shrapnel up to 300 feet with lethal force
-Detonate with a homemade fuse
-Explosive filler can get into the pipe threads making the device extremely sensitive to shock or friction

116
Q

Chemical attack indicators include multiple individuals exhibiting unexplained health problems such as

A

Pinpoint pupils (miosis)

117
Q

Two of the most common choking agents are

A

Phosgene and chlorine

118
Q

The most toxic chemical warfare agents

A

Nerve agents

119
Q

Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad

A

Wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods

120
Q

Examples of physical decontamination methods

A

-Absorption
-Adsorption
-Brushing and scraping
-Dilution
-Evaporation
-Isolation and disposal
-Washing
-Vacuuming

121
Q

Examples of chemical decontamination methods

A

-Chemical degradation
-Sanitization
-Disinfection
-Sterilization
-Neutralization
-Solidification

122
Q

Examples of instances where emergency decontamination is needed

A

-failure of protective clothing
-accidental contamination of emergency responders
-Immediate medical attention is required by emergency workers or victims in the hot zone

123
Q

Emergency decontamination has the following advantages

A

-Fast to implement
-Requires minimal equipment
-Reduces contamination quickly
-Does not require a formal contamination reduction corridor or decon process

124
Q

The process of picking up liquid contaminants with absorbents

A

Absorption

125
Q

The process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with (or is bound to) the surface of a sorbent material, such as activated carbon

A

Adsorption

126
Q

Uses large volumes of low pressure water, in a fog pattern, too quickly reduce the level of contamination.

A

Mass decon

127
Q

START

A

Simple triage and rapid treatment/transport

128
Q

Often, those conducting Decon are dressed in an ensemble classified ___ level below that of the entry team

A

One

129
Q

In some cases, if you are the first person working in the Decon line you may need to be dressed at ______ level as the entry team

A

The same

130
Q

The following factors are considered when choosing a decontamination site

A

-wind direction
-weather
-accessibility
-time
-terrain and surface material
-lighting (and electrical supply)
-drains and waterways
-water supply

131
Q

The following are causes of hazmat incidents

A

-human error
-mechanical breakdowns/ malfunctions
-container failures
-transportation accidents
-deliberate acts (chemical suicides, WMD incidents)

132
Q

Typically at the incident when it occurs, they perform limited defensive actions such as calling for help, evacuation of area, and securing the scene

A

Awareness level

133
Q

Are dispatched to the scene in order to mitigate the incident. These include firefighters, law enforcement, industrial response personnel. They are allowed to perform defensive actions but with some exceptions they are not expected to come into contact with the hazardous materials

A

Operations level

134
Q

Operations level responders may be trained beyond the set of core competencies to perform additional defensive tasks and limited offensive actions

A

Operations mission specific

135
Q

Performs offensive tasks, including controlling releases at hazmat incidents and may supervise the activities of operations level responders performing mission specific tasks

A

Hazmat technician

136
Q

Provides expertise in areas such as radiation, monitoring and detection equipment, or certain container types

A

Hazmat technician with specialty

137
Q

APIE process

A

Step 1: analyze the incident
Step 2: plan the initial response
Step 3: implement the response
Step 4: evaluate the progress

138
Q

Operations level responders are expected to identify the potential hazards at incidents including the following

A

-type of container involved
-hazardous material involved
-hazards presented by the material
-potential behavior of the material

Fire lieutenant (11 decks)

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