Hand Tendons Flashcards
A 46-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the dominant right wrist. Examination shows a 6-cm-diameter wound on the dorsal surface of the wrist. Significant contamination of the wound and segmental tendon loss are noted. Neurovascular status is intact. The patient is unable to extend the index, long, and ring fingers. Which of the following is the most important next step in management?
A) Immediate coverage with a free flap and delayed tendon grafting
B) Irrigation and debridement of all contaminated and nonviable tissue
C) Placement of allograft tendons and skin substitutes
D) Primary repair of tendons
E) Primary single-stage tendon grafting and coverage with a groin flap
B) Irrigation and debridement of all contaminated and nonviable tissue
Severely contaminated wounds, open fractures, and joint capsule lacerations require emergent and thorough irrigation and debridement. Fractures and skin loss should be treated in the initial procedure when feasible. Fractures should be fixed rigidly enough to allow early dynamic splinting or active motion. For lacerations without associated injury, the extensor tendon can be repaired emergently or in a delayed primary fashion after irrigation, debridement, and loose closure of the wound. If the repair is delayed, it should be performed within 7 days before the tendon ends retract or soften.
Within what time frame should tendon repair be performed?
7 days
Favorable vs unfavorable zones of extensor tendon injury
Good results: Zones I, II, IV, V
Worse results: Zones III, VI
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a degloving injury to the dorsal aspect of the nondominant left hand in an all-terrain vehicle rollover. Physical examination shows loss of the soft tissues and the extensor tendons of the index, long, ring, and little fingers and an abnormal Allen test. Fractures of the second, third, and fourth metacarpal shafts are also present. Following serial debridements, the patient has a dorsal hand defect measuring 6 × 8 cm with obvious open fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the soft-tissue defect? A) Anterolateral thigh free flap B) Full-thickness skin grafting C) Rectus abdominis muscle free flap D) Reverse radial forearm flap E) Split-thickness skin grafting
A) Anterolateral thigh free flap
Dorsal hand defects with exposed bone cannot be safely reconstructed with a split-thickness skin graft and require durable coverage. Although more durable than split-thickness skin grafts, full-thickness grafts cannot be expected to take over a large area such as this defect with exposed bone. Appropriate choices include the anterolateral thigh free flap or other perforator flaps (thoracodorsal artery perforator flap) or muscle flaps.
Local flaps such as the reverse radial forearm flap can be used in the upper extremity, although advances in microsurgery have led to a decrease in use, so as to minimize the added morbidity of the already injured extremity.
Local flap vs free flap for maimed upper extremity
Local flaps such as the reverse radial forearm flap can be used in the upper extremity, although advances in microsurgery have led to a decrease in use, so as to minimize the added morbidity of the already injured extremity.
Appropriate coverage for dorsal hand defects with exposed bone
Appropriate choices include the anterolateral thigh free flap or other perforator flaps (thoracodorsal artery perforator flap) or muscle flaps.
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a deep laceration of his left dorsal hand. Physical examination shows a transverse 2-cm laceration over the dorsal metacarpal joint of the index finger with exposed extensor tendons. Radial nerve blockat the level of the wrist is planned before exploration. The needle should be inserted superficial to which of the following landmarks? A) Flexor carpi radialis tendon B) Lister tubercle C) Radial artery D) Second dorsal extensor compartment E) Styloid process of the radius
E) Styloid process of the radius
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius. It pierces the fascia approximately 5 cm (3 fingerbreadths) proximal to the radial styloid. The nerve then fans out proximal to the wrist and passes superficially to the radial styloid and first dorsal compartment.
Where does the sensory branch of the radial nerve arise?
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius.
Anatomical course of the sensory branch of the radial nerve
The sensory branch of the radial nerve arises between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis approximately 8 cm proximal to the styloid process of the radius. It pierces the fascia approximately 5 cm (3 fingerbreadths) proximal to the radial styloid. The nerve then fans out proximal to the wrist and passes superficially to the radial styloid and first dorsal compartment.
What anatomical landmark should be used for radial nerve block at the wrist?
The nerve should be inserted superficial to the styloid process of the radius
The FDS tendon flexes the ____ joint
PIP joint
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining a laceration of the palm of the left hand from a knife. He reports difficulty flexing the ring finger of the left hand. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to clinically assess the integrity of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon?
A) Hold the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring finger in extension and ask the patient to flex
B) Hold the index, long, and little fingers in extension and ask the patient to flex
C) Hold the long, ring, and little fingers flexed atthe metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and ask the patient to flex
D) Hold the MCP joints of the index, long, and little fingers in flexion and ask the patient to extend
E) Hold the ring finger extended at the MCP joint and ask the patient to flex
B) Hold the index, long, and little fingers in extension and ask the patient to flex
The flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon flexes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon can also flex the PIP joint, in addition to flexing the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. To confirm that the FDS tendon is flexing the PIP joint, FDP motion must be excluded.
FDS function
The flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon flexes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.
FDP function
In addition to flexing the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon can also flex the PIP joint.
How to confirm that the FDS tendon is functioning
To confirm that the FDS tendon is flexing the PIP joint, FDP motion must be excluded.
A 28-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation because of restricted movement of the little finger of his right hand 3 years after sustaining a Zone II flexor tendon injury. Active flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint is to 20 degrees; he is unable to actively flex the distal joint. Staged flexor tendon reconstruction is considered. Which of the following factors would prohibit consideration for tendon reconstruction?
A) Limited passive range of motion of the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Patient age
C) Poorly compliant patient
D) Scarred soft-tissue bed
E) Uncontrolled pain
C) Poorly compliant patient
Staged flexor tendon reconstruction is a challenging endeavor that should not be undertaken lightly. To reach a successful outcome, both the patient and the surgeon must make a commitment to extensive surgeries, therapy sessions, and the possibility that the outcome may not be ideal; in fact, the outcome may compromise some existing function (as in cases of secondary quadriga or infection).
Prerequisites for attempted surgical intervention include good passive range of motion of all joints involved; a healthy, well-vascularized soft-tissue bed for tendon gliding; and good patient compliance with postoperative therapy and wound care. In such a setting, staged flexor tendon reconstruction can be undertaken with a reasonably good chance of success. Patient range of motion can be controlled with therapy. With good compliance, patient age is not a factor. Uncontrolled pain can become controlled with appropriate medication and therapy
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he felt a “pop” followed by acute pain in his left ring finger while grabbing an opposing player’s jersey during a rugby match. Physical examination shows pain, tenderness, and swelling over the volar aspect of the finger, from the area of the distal interphalangeal joint flexor crease to the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint crease. The distal phalanx rests at neutral and no active flexion is possible. The patient can flex at the PIP with minimal discomfort. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) End-to-end flexor tendon repair
B) Flexor tendon reinsertion
C) Open reduction and pin fixation of the middle phalanx
D) Splinting, followed in 2 weeks by range-of-motion exercises
E) Tendon transfer
B) Flexor tendon reinsertion
The scenario described provides a classic example of a distal flexor tendon avulsion. Because of several potential factors, the ring finger is the most common finger to present with this type of injury. The flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger has a less robust insertion at the distal phalanx than the long finger, which is a tip-off in the vignette for this classic injury. Yet the ring finger is similarly involved in the type of hyperextension force, or resisted flexion force, which generates this injury. The little finger does not present as much with this injury either.Flexor tendon reinsertion is correct, because the indicated management is early operation and reinsertion, if possible, of the avulsed tendon. This can be accomplished in a variety of ways, but that discussion is not central to the question.
Why is the ring finger more often involved in jersey finger?
The flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger has a less robust insertion at the distal phalanx than the long finger, which is a tip-off in the vignette for this classic injury. Yet the ring finger is similarly involved in the type of hyperextension force, or resisted flexion force, which generates this injury.
A 25-year-old lawyer comes to the office because of a 1-year history of limited ability to extend the right long finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint with no limitation of flexion following a jammed finger after playing basketball. X-ray study shows a normal articular surface and no evidence of fracture or foreign body. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Dorsal collateral ligament contracture
B) Dorsal edema
C) Dupuytren contracture
D) Extensor adhesions
E) Flexor adhesions
E) Flexor adhesions
Previous injuries to a flexor tendon or canal can result in scar formation of the tendon to anadjacent structure. Other structures which can limit digital extension include volar plate contracture (including checkrein ligaments), collateral ligament contracture (true and accessory), scarring or insufficiency of the skin volar to the joint, and joint irregularity, arthrosis, or bony block.
What structures can limit extension at the PIPJ?
- Flexor adhesions
- Volar plate contracture (including checkrein ligaments)
- Collateral ligament contracture (true and accessory)
- Scarring or insufficiency of the skin volar to the joint
- Joint irregularity
- Arthrosis
- Bony block.
A 24-year-old man comes to the office three months after sustaining a crush injury to the volar aspect of the right forearm during the rollover of a motor vehicle. Fasciotomies were performed when he awoke from a coma two days after the initial injury. Physical examination shows the digits flexed into the palm. Tenodesis effect without fixed contractures is present. A modified Henry fasciotomy scar is noted on the right forearm; skin coverage is otherwise excellent. No peripheral nerve injury is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical procedure to correct this deformity? A ) Innervated free muscle transfer B ) Muscle slide C ) Resection of the intrinsic muscles D ) Tendon lengthening E ) Tendon transfers
D ) Tendon lengthening
The most appropriate surgical procedure for the correction of the deformity described is tendon lengthening.
The patient described would be classified as a Holden II, mild type, because his ischemia was caused by direct trauma and his muscle involvement is limited to the deep flexors at the site of theinjury. Z-plasty tendon lengthening and possible skin release and limited scarred muscle resection are sufficient.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures are categorized by:
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures are categorized by both the Holden and Tsuge classification systems.
Holden I injuries
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures:
In Holden I injuries, the arterial ischemia and venous stasis begin proximal to the forearm fascial compartment.
Holden II injuries
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures:
Holden II injuries are from direct trauma, and the ischemia begins at the site of the injury.
Tsuge classification
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures:
The Tsuge classification defines the extent of muscle involvement as mild, moderate, or severe.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures: Innervated free muscle transfers
Innervated free muscle transfers are reserved for Holden I or II, severe type, injuries. Often with nerve grafting in an attempt to establish protective distal sensation and other procedures, innervated free muscle transfers are utilized to provide both function and coverage in these patients with complete loss of muscle function after ischemic injury.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures: Muscle slide techniques
Muscle slide techniques are reserved for patients with Holden I, moderate injuries. These patients have ischemic changes affecting the entire muscle belly. Some of the muscles’ contractile units should be intact. Combined with other procedures, the muscle slide permits a reduction of the distal contractures while preserving the muscle’s residual contractile capabilities.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures: Resection of the dorsal intrinsic muscles
Resection of the dorsal intrinsic muscles and part of the adductor pollicis muscle is reserved for patients with ischemic contracture of the intrinsic muscles. Intrinsic ischemic contractures may accompany any ischemic Volkmann contracture; this will often present as the hand assuming the intrinsic-plus position following reconstruction of the extrinsic musculature.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures: Tendon transfers
Tendon transfers are used for patients with Holden II, moderate type, injuries. Proximal muscle slides are not usually performed because detachment of these healthy muscles will potentially diminish their functional capacity. Combined with other procedures, tendon transfers are used to augment any residual existing muscle function.
Patients with established ischemic forearm contractures: Tendon lengthening
Reserved for Holden II, mild type. Z-plasty tendon lengthening and possible skin release and limited scarred muscle resection are sufficient.
A 46-year-old man comes to the emergency department because he has pain in the index finger after falling on his outstretched right hand. He notes that the pain began immediately after the fall. Instability on isolated index to thumb key-pinch testing is noted. Radiographs show no obvious pathology. An injury to which of the following structuresis most likely? A ) First dorsal interosseous insertion B ) Lateral band of the extensor hood C ) Lumbrical insertion D ) Radial collateral ligament E ) Volar plate
D ) Radial collateral ligament
Isolated injury to the radial collateral ligament of the index finger occurs with forced ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. It can also occur in conjunction with injury to all of the structures surrounding the joint. In isolation, the findings of a complete tear of the ligament will be that of a flail joint. Attempted pinch will result in pain and ulnar deviation. MRI is needed for confirmation. solated injury to the lumbrical will not be demonstrable on examination, while an injury to the volar plate by itself would not cause instability on key-pinch testing. Injury to the insertion tendon of the first dorsal interosseous muscle will cause a weak pinch, but the joint will not be unstable to radial pressure. Finally, the extensor mechanism does not contribute to the stability of the MCPJ
How does injury to the radial collateral ligament of the index finger occur?
Isolated injury to the radial collateral ligament of the index finger occurs with forced ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. It can also occur in conjunction with injury to all of the structures surrounding the joint.
Clinical presentation following injury of the radial collateral ligament of the index finger
In isolation, the findings of a complete tear of the ligament will be that of a flail joint. Attempted pinch will result in pain and ulnar deviation.
A 34-year-old woman who is a concert pianist is brought to the emergency department because of a laceration on the volar aspect of the right index finger at the mid-proximal phalanx caused by a broken vase. Operative exploration shows complete laceration of the radial digital nerve and the profundus and superficialis tendons in the flexor tendon sheath. Which of the following is the most effective management of the flexor tendon injury?
A ) Excision of the superficialis tendon; repair of the profundus tendon; early active-motion protocol
B ) Excision of the superficialis tendon; repair of the profundus tendon; immobilization for three weeks
C ) Repair of the profundus and superficialis tendons; early passive-motion protocol
D ) Repair of the profundus and superficialis tendons; immobilization for three weeks
C ) Repair of the profundus and superficialis tendons; early passive-motion protocol
The most effective management is profundus and superficialis tendon repair with early passive-motion protocol. Repairing the superficialis tendon not only improves strength and function but also has been shown to increase circulation to the tendon repairs.
Early passive and active range of motion protocols
Many studieshave shown the strength and adhesion-prevention benefits of early passive-motion protocols. Some studies have advocated early flexion active-motion protocols, but none have found the results superior to the early passive-motion protocols.
Strength of tendon repair is proportional to:
Many studies have shown that a direct correlation exists between the strength of the tendon repair and the number of core sutures used across the repair (strength is proportional to the number of sutures).
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department four hours after sustaining an injury to the dominant right hand when he fell while skiing. He reports pain in the thumb. Examination shows swelling and no palpable mass on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the thumb. Application of radial stress to the joint shows 5 degrees of laxity; stress on the opposite thumb shows no laxity. Plain-film radiographs show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A)Arthroscopic reduction
(B)Immobilization of the thumb in a spica cast
(C)Movement and increased range of motion of the thumb as tolerated
(D)Open suture repair of the ulnar collateral ligament
(E)Percutaneous pin fixation of the joint
(B)Immobilization of the thumb in a spica cast
The patient described has sustained an injury to the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the MCP joint of his thumb. To select the appropriate therapy, the extent of the injury must be determined (ie, partial versus complete disruption of the UCL). In the patient described, 5 degrees of thumb MCP joint laxity compared to the opposite side indicates that he has sustained a partial tear of his UCL. It is generally accepted that incomplete tears may be treated successfully with immobilization; complete tears require operative treatment. A thumb spica cast provides adequate immobilization to allow healing of a partial tear of this patient’s UCL.
Clinical presentation of complete ulnar collateral ligament injury of the thumb
A thumb MCP joint with greater than 30 degrees of laxity, or greater than a 15-degree differential in laxity compared to the contralateral side, demonstrates clinical evidence of a complete disruption of the UCL.
Why would a completely immobilized complete tear UCL of the thumb MCP not heal?
With a complete tear of the UCL, a Stener lesion may result whereby the adductor aponeurosis interposes itself between the ends of the completely disrupted UCL, thus preventing ligamentous healing despite prolonged immobilization.
Treatment of a Stener lesion of the thumb MCP UCL
Complete tear of the UCL:
With a complete tear of the UCL, a Stener lesion may result whereby the adductor aponeurosis interposes itself between the ends of the completely disrupted UCL, thus preventing ligamentous healing despite prolonged immobilization. Both open suture repair of the UCL and arthroscopic reduction without suture repair of the UCL have been described as operative treatment modalities for Stener lesions.
How should a splint be fashioned for a complete tear of the UCL of the thumb MCP?
The splint could be fashioned to leave the interphalangeal (IP) joint free and allow active range of motion in the IP joint to prevent adherence of the extensor tendon to the injured MCP joint capsule
A 32-year-old man who works as a carpenter comes to the office for follow-up examination seven days after sustaining a 2-cm laceration to the dorsum of the left thumb proximal to the interphalangeal joint while using a knife. In the emergency department, the laceration was sutured, and the thumb was immobilized with a splint. On physical examination, the wound is clean. No infection is noted. Weak extension of the interphalangeal joint is noted. The patient cannot extend the thumb off the tabletop. Laceration of which of the following tendons is most likely? (A)Abductor pollicis longus (B)Extensor carpi radialis brevis (C)Extensor carpi radialis longus (D)Extensor pollicis brevis (E)Extensor pollicis longus
(E)Extensor pollicis longus
The patient described has an injury to the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon, which can be difficult to diagnose in the emergency department.
Often, a patient will have weak active extension at the interphalangeal joint. The thumb extensor mechanism receives fibers from the abductor pollicis brevis, adductor pollicis, the ulnar head of the flexor pollicis brevis, and the EPL. If the EPL is lacerated, there may be weak extension at the interphalangeal joint; however, the thumb cannot be actively lifted off a tabletop. The extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis longus, and extensor carpi radialis brevis do not contribute to the extension of the thumb off a tabletop.
The thumb extensor mechanism receives vibes from:
- Abductor pollicis brevis,
- Adductor pollicis
- Ulnar head of the flexor pollicis brevis
- Extensor pollicis longus
What muscle(s) contributes to lifting the thumb off a table top?
The EPL is the only muscle
If lacerated, there may be weak extension at the thumb IP.
A 42-year-old man comes to the office because he has a three-month history of significantly decreased grip strength of the dominant left hand since undergoing fusion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the long finger for traumatic arthritis of the joint. Fusion was performed with the PIP joint held in approximately 30 degrees of flexion. Radiographs show a well-healed fusion site. Physical examination shows a 25% decrease in grip strength of the left hand compared with the nondominant uninjured hand. Full active range of motion of the distal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints of the injured finger is noted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings? (A)Disuse atrophy (B)Extrinsic tightness (C)Flexor tendon injury (D)Intrinsic tightness (E)Quadriga effect
(E)Quadriga effect
The patient described is experiencing weakness caused by the quadriga effect imposed by the fusion of the PIP joint of the long finger.
What is a quadriga?
A quadriga (from the Latin quadria[four] and jungere[to yoke]) is a four-horse chariot that was raced in the Olympics and other sacred games.
PIP fusion of the index finger
PIP fusion is often well tolerated in the index finger because that finger’s relatively independent profundus function does not impose a significant quadriga effect on the other fingers during power grasp.
PIP fusion of the long finger
IP fusion of the long finger has been shown to decrease the excursion of all profundus tendons, reducing grip strength.
PIP vs DIP vs MCP fusion on the profundus
PIP fusion restricts profundus excursion to a greater extent than distal interphalangeal (DIP) or metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint fusion.
Limitation of PIP joint fusion before grip strength decreases
A significant decrease in grip strength occurs when the PIP joints of the index and small fingers are fixed at less than 45 degrees and when the long and ring fingers are fused in a position of less than 60 degrees of flexion.
A 36-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up examination four months after undergoing revision amputation at the distal interphalangeal joint of the left long finger to repair a partial traumatic amputation injury. Since undergoing the procedure, the patient has had difficulty making a fist. Physical examination shows extension of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint when the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is actively flexed. The patient has full active and passive range of motion of the PIP joint when the MCP joint is extended. Radiographs show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A)Dynamic flexion splinting
(B)Fusion of the PIP joint
(C)Injection of a corticosteroid into the area of the A1 pulley
(D)Surgical release of the lumbrical
(E)Tenolysis
(D)Surgical release of the lumbrical
The patient described has a lumbrical plus deformity. This deformity occurs following amputation when proximal migration of the profundus tendon results in contracture of the lumbrical muscle. This contracture can result in tightness of the lumbricals, which produces paradoxical extension of the PIP joint during active flexion of the MCP joint. The lumbrical muscle is a component of the intrinsic extensor mechanism, which is responsible for MCP flexion and PIP extension. The lumbrical plus deformity is treated most appropriately by division of the lumbrical tendon.
Lumbrical plus deformity: When does it occur
Occurs following amputation when proximal migration of the profundus tendon results in contracture of the lumbrical muscle.
Clinical manifestations of a lumbrical plus deformity
This contracture can result in tightness of the lumbricals, which produces paradoxical extension of the PIP joint during active flexion of the MCP joint.
The extensor mechanism is responsible for what movements (of the hand)?
MCP flexion and PIP extension.
Treatment of lumbrical plus deformity
Division of the lumbrical tendon
A 25-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding an injury to the left thumb (shown). During surgical repair of this injury, which of the following is the sequence in which anatomic structures will be encountered?
(A) Abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis longus, volar plate
(B) First dorsal interosseous, oblique pulley, volar plate
(C) Junctura tendineum, extensor pollicis longus, collateral ligament
(D) Sagittal bands, adductor aponeurosis, collateral ligament
(E) Skin, ulnar collateral ligament, volar plate
(D) Sagittal bands, adductor aponeurosis, collateral ligament
This patient has an ulnar collateral ligament injury of the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint. Although the indications for surgical repair are controversial, the pertinent anatomy is consistent. After the skin and subcutaneous tissue are divided, the sagittal bands are encountered. The sagittal bands stabilize the extensor pollicis longus over the MP joints of the thumb and travel from the lateral aspects of the tendon towards the flexor digital sheath. Repair of this structure is important to prevent subluxation of the tendon with thumb motion.
Sequential anatomy encountered during repair of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb
After the skin and subcutaneous tissue are divided, the sagittal bands are encountered.
The adductor for aponeurosis is readily visible under the sagittal bands.
Once the adductor aponeurosis is divided, the ulnar collateral ligament is readily visible and amenable to repair.
Sagittal bands (MP joint of the thumb)
The sagittal bands stabilize the extensor pollicis longus over the MP joints of the thumb and travel from the lateral aspects of the tendon towards the flexor digital sheath.
Why is it important to repair the sagittal bands during repair of a thumb UCL tear?
Repair of this structure is important to prevent subluxation of the tendon with thumb motion.
A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he sustained major injuries when he fell from a ladder. In addition to abdominal trauma, he sustained lacerations of the flexor carpi ulnaris tendons, ulnar artery, ulnar nerve, flexor digitorum profundus tendons, flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, flexor pollicis longus muscles, palmaris longus tendon, median nerve, radial artery, and flexor carpi radialis tendon of the right arm. During emergent exploratory laparotomy with general anesthesia, an upper arm tourniquet is inflated to 250 mmHg. Two hours later, when the laparotomy is completed, the tourniquet is still in place and the patient is asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the injuries to this patient’s hand?
(A) Release the tourniquet, close the skin, and repair the severed structures electively
(B) Release the tourniquet and repair the severed structures immediately
(C) Leave the tourniquet in place and repair the severed structures immediately
(D) Release the tourniquet for five minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
(E) Release the tourniquet for 20 minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
(E) Release the tourniquet for 20 minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
Continuation of the tourniquet would be dangerous to this patient; the upper limit of time for tourniquet use in the upper extremity is most frequently defined as two hours, after which muscle and nerve damage begins. Performing the surgery without tourniquet control is an option but is not the best option in a true spaghetti-like wrist, for which a bloodless field is best for meticulous preparation and identification of structures. Of the options listed, the best choice is to release the tourniquet for 20 minutes (5 minutes for every 30 minutes the tourniquet was in use) and to finish the case immediately.
Max amount of tourniquet time for the upper extremity
120 minutes
How long of a tourniquet break should be given if it must be reinflated, for the upper extremity?
5 minutes for every 30 minutes the tourniquet was in use
A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up examination after six weeks of splinting to correct a closed injury without fracture of the right index finger (mallet finger). Despite instructions to wear the splint at all times, the patient says she has been taking it off when she showers and when she types at work because it gets in the way. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Splinting for an additional six weeks
(B) Transarticular fixation with Kirschner wires
(C) Central slip tenotomy
(D) Open repair with direct suturing of the terminal tendon
(E) Fusion of the distal interphalangeal joint
(B) Transarticular fixation with Kirschner wires
This patient has a mallet finger deformity. No fracture was involved; therefore, it is considered a Type I mallet injury. Patients are sometimes noncompliant or not well instructed regarding how the splint is to be used. Both the Fowler tenotomy and open repair should be reserved for chronic cases of mallet finger. In fact, open repair with direct suture of the terminal tendon has shown poor results. Fusion of the distal interphalangeal joint is an extreme method of treating this condition and would not be indicated at this time. An additional six-week period of splinting would be appropriate in a compliant patient. One author has shown that mallet fingers that remain untreated for up to 12 weeks can be treated conservatively with six weeks of splinting. However, a noncompliant patient would benefit from transarticular fixation with Kirschner wires, which would be more difficult to manipulate versus splinting alone.
Noncompliant patient and Type I mallet injury
Kirschner wires if they won’t wear their splint - more difficult to manipulate
How to diagnose a Type I mallet injury
Clinical presentation + no fracture on xray
When can the Fowler tenotomy be used for mallet injury?
Both the Fowler tenotomy and open repair should be reserved for chronic cases of mallet finger.
When can open repair be used for mallet injury?
Both the Fowler tenotomy and open repair should be reserved for chronic cases of mallet finger. (Open repair has shown good results)
A 53-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of a flexion contracture at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the left long finger three months after he sustained a volar dislocation. Immobilization immediately after the injury and a subsequent trial of aggressive hand therapy were unsuccessful in restoring passive extension of the joint. On physical examination, the PIP joint is in 40 degrees of flexion and cannot be passively extended. Surgical release of the PIP joint is performedwith release of the checkrein ligaments and tenolysis of the flexor tendons. Postoperative examination shows a mild flexion deformity of the PIP joint and slight hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint. Which of following is the most likely cause of these findings?
(A) Adhesions of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon
(B) Adhesions of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
(C) Inadequate release of the checkrein ligaments
(D) Laxity of the extensor tendon
(E) Tightness of the ligament of Landsmeer
(E) Tightness of the ligament of Landsmeer
Fibrosis of the ligament of Landsmeer
The oblique retinacular ligament of Landsmeer passes volar to the axis of rotation of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, and when it is involved in a fibrotic process, it may produce hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Tightness of this ligament can result in contractural deformity resulting in a boutonnière deformity.
Inadequate release of the checkrein ligaments would result in:
Inadequate checkrein release would result in persistent flexion deformity at the PIP joint
A 25-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding an injury to the left thumb (ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb). During surgical repair of this injury, which of the following is the sequence in which anatomic structures will be encountered?
(A) Abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis longus, volar plate
(B) First dorsal interosseous, oblique pulley, volar plate
(C) Junctura tendineum, extensor pollicis longus, collateral ligament
(D) Sagittal bands, adductor aponeurosis, collateral ligament
(E) Skin, ulnar collateral ligament, volar plate
(D) Sagittal bands, adductor aponeurosis, collateral ligament
Clue to significant volar plate injury, for gamekeeper’s thumb
The volar plate may be injured in a gamekeeper’s type of injury and should be assessed. A clue to a significant volar plate injury requiring repair is volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx in relation to the metacarpal.
A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he sustained major injuries when he fell from a ladder. In addition to abdominal trauma, he sustained lacerations of the flexor carpi ulnaris tendons, ulnar artery, ulnar nerve, flexor digitorum profundus tendons flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, flexor pollicis longus muscles, palmaris longus tendon, median nerve, radial artery, and flexor carpi radialis tendon of the right arm. During emergent exploratory laparotomy with general anesthesia, an upper arm tourniquet is inflated to 250 mmHg. Two hours later, when the laparotomy is completed, the tourniquet is still in place and the patient is asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the injuries to this patient’s hand?
(A) Release the tourniquet, close the skin, and repair the severed structures electively
(B) Release the tourniquet and repair the severed structures immediately
(C) Leave the tourniquet in place and repair the severed structures immediately
(D) Release the tourniquet for five minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
(E) Release the tourniquet for 20 minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
(E) Release the tourniquet for 20 minutes, reinflate the tourniquet, and repair the severed structures
Release the tourniquet for 20 minutes (5 minutes for every 30 minutes the tourniquet was in use) and to finish the case immediately.
A 4-year-old girl has a fixed flexion deformity of the thumb of the dominant right hand as well as a palpable nodule at the volar metacarpophalangeal joint that has been present since birth. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate initial step?
(A) A1 pulley release
(B) Aspiration of the mass
(C) Biopsy of the nodule
(D) Injection of cortisone into the mass
(E) Transfer of the extensor indicis proprius tendon to the extensor pollicis longus tendon
(A) A1 pulley release
The first step in management of this deformity is A1 pulley release. The patient has a congenital trigger thumb, the most common cause of congenital thumb flexion deformity. The flexed position of the thumb can also be seen in patients with congenital clasped thumb, absent or aberrant extensor tendons, arthrogryposis, and spasticity. Patients with congenital trigger thumb commonly have thickening of the tendon, referred to as “Notta’s node.” In patients younger than age 3 years, the spontaneous resolution rate is 30%. Splinting and observation are options when the condition is diagnosed early, but most patients require surgery. During release of the pulley,no attempt is made to excise or reduce the nodule in the tendon. Aspiration is not appropriate for the nodule in the flexor tendon. `
Management of congenital trigger thumb
Release of A1 pulley
Most common cause of congenital thumb flexion deformity
Congenital trigger thumb
“Notta’s node”
Patients with congenital trigger thumb commonly have thickening of the tendon, referred to as “Notta’s node.”
Natural course of congenital trigger thumb in patients younger than 3 years old
In patients younger than age 3 years, the spontaneous resolution rate is 30%.