Chest and Abdominal Wall Reconstruction Flashcards
An otherwise healthy 47-year-old man comes to the office because of the recurrent ventral hernia shown. He does not smoke cigarettes. Physical examination shows “Swiss cheese–type” defects, which are confirmed by CT scan. He desires reconstruction. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
A) Component separation with mesh placement
B) Laparoscopic hernia repair with mesh placement
C) Open hernia reduction with bridging mesh placement
D) Open reduction with free tensor fascia lata flap
E) Total autologous component separation
A) Component separation with mesh placement
Given the size and history of the defect, the patient described has a significant chance of recurrence of his hernia. To optimize the chances of a functional recovery that is durable and has the lowest chance of recurrence, the component separation technique with mesh reinforcement (synthetic or biologic) is indicated.
Component separation technique overview
The component separation technique, originally described by Ramirez et al. in 1990, allows for recruitment of the rectus complex towards the midline to facilitate primary reapproximation (in the best-case scenario) or at least decrease the size of the residual defect.
Component separation allows for reduction of the hernia defect size after hernia reduction, and leads to lower recurrence rates versus hernia reduction and bridging mesh repair alone.
Mesh reinforcement: Overlay vs underlay
Studies have shown that reinforcement of hernia repairs with mesh decreases recurrence rates by 50 to 75%, even in secondary repairs. It is not clear, however, whether the mesh should be placed as an overlay or underlay. Nonetheless, mesh reinforcement leads to lower recurrence rates, especially if combined with component separation.
Tensor fascia lata flap for hernia repairs
A tensor fascia lata flap, originally described for large hernia repairs because it allows transfer of fascia to the abdomen, does not demonstrate superior results compared to available meshes. It also incurs donor site morbidity versus the mesh reinforcement techniques
A 24-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo correction of the defect shown in the photographs. Physical examination shows an elevated inframammary fold and herniation of breast tissue through the areolar complex. Which of the following is the most appropriate operative plan?
A) Latissimus dorsi musculocutaneous flaps and placement of silicone gel prostheses
B) Subfascial placement of silicone gel prostheses with mastopexy
C) Subglandular placement of silicone gel prostheses
D) Submuscular placement of silicone gel prostheses
E) Submuscular placement of silicone gel prostheses with mastopexy and scoring of the gland
E) Submuscular placement of silicone gel prostheses with mastopexy and scoring of the gland
Tuberus breast deformity
Tuberous breast deformity is a rare congenital condition that results in aberrant breast shape due to a constricting ring at the breast base. Abnormal development results in breast tissue deficiency, herniation of breast tissue into the nipple-areola complex, areolar enlargement, and breast asymmetry
Surgical correction of tuberous breast deformity
Surgical correction is challenging, but it can be achieved in a single-stage operation. This procedure should include submuscular placement of silicone or saline prostheses, mastopexy with areolar reduction, and scoring of the gland to relieve the constricting tissue.
An 18-year-old woman comes to the office because of a small area of titanium extruding through the skin overlying the sacrum 12 months after undergoing a successful posterior spinal fusion and an autologous bone graft for myelodysplasia and lumbosacral kyphotic deformity. Physical examination shows a midline scar with a 2 × 2-cm wound at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra with a visible screw. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stepin management?
A) Bilateral skin advancement flaps
B) Free rectus abdominis muscle flap
C) Gluteus maximus muscle flap
D) Negative pressure wound therapy and skin graft
E) Removal of the hardware
E) Removal of the hardware
The most appropriate next step in management of the exposed titanium isremoval of the hardware. The titanium rod or one of the screws likely loosened and subsequently migrated to extrude through the skin. The vertebral column is adequately fused 1 year following the procedure.
Although local skin flaps, skin grafts, regional muscle transfer, and free flaps will provide vascularized soft-tissue coverage over the exposed hardware, these options ultimately will fail. The exposed hardware is much stronger than any soft-tissue coverage and will extrude through a flap, especially when the patient is supine.
The vertebral column is adequately fused ________ following autologous bone graft posterior spinal fusion
1 year
A 45-year-old woman with rectal cancer is scheduled to undergo abdominoperineal resection and posterior vaginectomy following neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction of the posterior vaginal defect?
A) Free anterolateral thigh fasciocutaneous flap
B) Primary repair of the perineal and vaginal defects
C) Pudendal thigh (Singapore) flap
D) Skin grafting
E) Vertical rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
E) Vertical rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
Although the pedicled ALT flap has recently been described for vaginoperineal defects, the VRAM flap remains the gold standard. Primary repair, even if technically possible, would be associated with unacceptable risk of wound-healing problems.
Pros of a vertical rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
The vertical rectus abdominis myocutaneous (VRAM): ease of harvest, minimal donor-site morbidity, large skin paddle (which can resurface both the perineum and the vagina), reliable blood supply, and favorable arc of rotation (for vaginoperineal defects)
Gold standard for vaginoperineal defects
Although the pedicled ALT flap has recently been described for vaginoperineal defects, the VRAM flap remains the gold standard.
A 46-year-old woman undergoes breast reconstruction with a pedicled transverse rectus abdominis musculocutaneous (TRAM) flap. Weight is 185 lb (84 kg); BMI is 32 kg/m2. The donor site is reconstructed with mesh. Six months postoperatively, the patient develops a bulge at the donor site. Which of the following best represents the deepest layer of the anterior rectus sheath when it is harvested caudal to the arcuate line? A) External oblique aponeurosis B) Internal oblique aponeurosis C) Rectus abdominis fascia D) Transversalis fascia E) Transversus abdominis aponeurosis
E) Transversus abdominis aponeurosis
Rectus sheath
The rectus sheath is the semifibrous compartment that encompasses the rectus abdominis muscle and consists of an anterior and posterior sheath created by the aponeurotic extensions of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles.
Rectus sheath proximal to the arcuate line
Proximal to the arcuate line, which is located approximately at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine, the anterior rectus sheath comprises the aponeuroses of the external oblique and the anterior leaf of the internal oblique. The internal oblique has two leaves, the deeper of which contributes to the posterior rectus sheath along with the transversus abdominis and transversalis fascia.
Rectus sheath at the level of the arcuate line
At the level of the arcuate line, the posterior leaf of the internal oblique aponeurosis and the transversus abdominis aponeurosis travel superficially to the rectus abdominis, making the posterior sheath very weak. When the anterior rectus sheath is defective at this level, the likelihood for bulging or hernia is high.
The level of the arcuate line is not always clear from topographical landmarks, which can make the planning of a transverse rectus abdominismusculocutaneous (TRAM) flap more difficult and increase the risk for a hernia complication
An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man comes to the office because of a 10-year history of bilateral gynecomastia. Physical examination shows breast enlargement with skin redundancy and palpable glandular and fatty tissue. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Determination of 17-ketosteroid level in urine
B) Mammography
C) Referral to an endocrinologist
D) Surgical excision
E) Testicular ultrasound
D) Surgical excision
The most appropriate next step for the patient described, who is young with a long history of bilateral gynecomastia since puberty, is surgical excision. The onset of gynecomastia correlates with transient elevations of plasma estradiols prior to the completion of puberty so that the androgen-to-estrogen ratio is altered.
Most cases of gynecomastia present when?
Most cases of gynecomastia present at puberty, with an incidence as high as 65% in boys 14 to 15 years of age. The condition disappears during the late teens, with only 7.7% remaining at age 17 years. The incidence rises again with progressive age.
Severity/concern when gynecomastia is found
The condition is often a normal finding, even though it may be associated with a more serious disease in occasional cases
Systemic causes of gynecomastia
In certain cases, systemic causes —such as liver disease, lung carcinoma, testicular carcinoma, adrenal tumors, thyroid disease, testosterone imbalance, and Klinefelter syndrome —or drugs like marijuana, should be considered. For instance, a prepubescent boy presenting with gynecomastia would cause concern. Another example would be if an adult man presented with a 6-month history of unilateral gynecomastia. A work-up including liver function test, urine studies, testicular examination, endocrinology evaluation, and possibly mammography should be done if there is a possibility of cancer (ie, patients with Klinefelter syndrome).
A 17-year-old girl comes to the office for consultation regarding augmentation mammaplasty. Physical examination shows right-sided hypoplasia of the chest wall and breast. Absence of the pectoralis major muscle is noted. This patient is most likely to have which of the following hand anomalies? A) Micromelia B) Oligodactyly C) Phocomelia D) Polydactyly E) Syndactyly
E) Syndactyly
A 55-year-old man comes to the office because of the ventral hernia shown. History includes a sigmoid colectomy for diverticular disease using a midline incision 7 years ago. Postoperatively, an incisional hernia developed. He underwent mesh repair, which was unsuccessful. Physical examination shows a 28 (horizontal at the level of the umbilicus) by —25-cm (vertical) palpable fascial defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction of the abdominal wall?
A ) Component separation technique only
B ) Component separation technique with mesh repair
C ) Mesh repair only
D ) Tissue expansion and component separation technique with mesh repair
E ) Use of a pedicled tensor fascia lata flap
B ) Component separation technique with mesh repair
A component separation repair alone would be insufficient because the defect described is 28 cm wide. There would still be a persistent defect in the fascia. Therefore, component separation with supplemental mesh would be required to adequately close this defect. Component separation mobilizes functional muscle medially to help restore abdominal wall integrity and minimizes the amount of bridging that would be repaired with mesh.
Tissue expansion can be useful in situations where skin coverage may be lacking. Tissue expansion is unnecessary in the patient described because skin coverage is not an issue.
Components separation overview
Originally described by Ramirez et al. in 1990, the technique involves incising the external oblique fascia lateral to the rectus muscle. The external oblique is elevated off of the internal oblique muscle in a loose areolar plane that is largely avascular, except for the intercostal branches to the external oblique muscles that are located far posteriorly. The posterior rectus sheath can be incised longitudinally to provide an additional 1 to 2-cm mobilization if needed. The attachments of the internal oblique to the rectus muscle are preserved, as are the intercostal neurovascular bundles that supply the rectus muscle.
Function of the rectus muscle after components separation
The rectus muscle is kept innervated and functional.