Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Immune thrombocytopenia?

A

This is either an acute or chronic condition.

  • Acute - follows an URTI
  • IgG antibodies against GPIIb/IIIa

Symptoms:

  • epitaxis
  • menorrhagia
  • petechiae bruising
  • *normal spleen size

Labs:

  • low platelets
  • antibody screen positive
  • Megakaryocytes seen on bone marrow

Treatment:

  • prednisolone
  • Immunoglobulin therapy
  • Rituximab

Emergency:

  • platelet transfusion
  • Splenoectomy
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2
Q

What is:
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?

  • TTP
A

A type of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia.

  • acquired or congenital (ADAMTIS13 deficiency, allowing vWBF to promote platelet aggregation)

*causes multisystem thrombotic occulsions due to activation of the platelets

Most common in females following an URTI

Symtpoms:

Pentad:

  • Anaemia
  • Fever
  • thrombocytopenia
  • renal failure
  • CNS involement

Labs:

  • reduced platelets
  • LDH increased
  • Haptoglobin decreased
  • Clotting studies - normal
  • Blood smear - schiztosites

**test for shigella toxins as this may be haemolytic uraemic syndrome caused by E.Coli 0157

Treatment:

Haematological emergancy:

  • plasma infusion
  • plasma exhange
  • steroids
  • rituximab
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3
Q

Beta thalassamias:

A

Point mutations on chromosome 11. defects in beta globulin chain.

Beta thalasemia trait:

carrier state with one chain missing.
- usually symptomatic

Beta thalasemia Mjor

both globulin chain defects.

  • 1st year of life
  • severe anaemia
  • failure to thrive
  • skull bossing (extra medullary haematopoesis)
  • splenomegaly

Blood film:

  • HbA2

HbF

*no HbA

Treatment:

promote healthy lifestyle

folate supplements

2-4 weekly tranfusions *Iron overload is a problem often causes endocrine issues (hypothyroidism, hypocalaemia)

  • splenoectomy
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4
Q

What will 1 unit of packed RBCs equate to in blood volume?

A

1 unit = 350ml

1 unit = ~ 1g/L Hb in 70kg adult

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5
Q

How long a life span do platelets have in the bag?

A

5 days

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6
Q

What temperture must FFP be kept at?

how long does it take to thaw and when does it need to be used by?

A

-18Celius

20mins to thaw

2 hours

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7
Q

What drug can be used in sickle cell disease to help promote production of HbF?

A

Hydroxycarbamide

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8
Q

What drug can stimulate production of Von Williebrand in people who have Von Williebrand disease?

A

Desmopressin

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9
Q

What gene is associatted with Burkits lymphoma?

A

MYC gene with 8;14 translocation

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10
Q

List some causes of Haemolytic anaemias:

A

Acquired:

Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia:

  • Warm IgG
  • Cold IgM

Drug Induced

  • RBCs autoantibodies

Microangio haemolytic anaemias:

  • Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - E.Coli
  • TTP - ADAMST13

Infection:

  • Malaria

Paraoxysmal Notctual Haemoglobinuria:

Heridatiry:

Glucose - 6 - phosphate deficiency

Pyruvate deficiency

Heridatory spherocytosis

Sickle cell disease

Thalassaemias

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11
Q

What is Cryoprecipitate and when is it used?

A

Preperaed plasma contianign:

  • fibrinogen
  • von williebrand
  • factor VIII
  • Factor XIII

Medical emergancies for massive bleeding. Can be used in DIC

also used for haemophilae

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12
Q

What infective transmission may occur in blood transfusion and what steps have been put in place to reudce its spread?

A

vCJD

> 1999 donation have White cells removed

>1999 plasma sourced from abroad

>2004 recipitants of blood donation are excluded form giving blood

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13
Q

What anticoagulant can be used in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

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14
Q

If a male has explained Hb <110g/L what should be done?

A

Urgent endoscopy and colonoscopy

<2 weeks

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15
Q

Which DOAC can be used in the prevention of thromboembolism from AF?

A

Dabigatran

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for devleoping ALL?

A

Ionizing radiation
- especially during pregnancy

Down’s syndrome

Being young
- most common cancer in childhood

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17
Q

What is the classfication system used and how is the prognosis worked out in ALL?

A

Chromosomal and molecular analysis

Immuno-Phenotyping

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18
Q

What are some differentials for petechia bleeding?

A

*Leukaemia

*Vasculitis - Henock Scholien

*Microangio Haemylytic syndroes

  • TTP
  • E.Coli

*Menigitis
- N. menigitis

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19
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected leukaemia?

A
  • FBC
  • this should be done with 48 hours of suspected leukaemia.

*note young adults or children with ptechiae should be referred to hospital immediatley
- will usually see a high WCC (although they won’t be functioning WCs)

  • Blood film
  • looking at abnormal cells
  • LDH
  • this will show increased cellular turnover
  • Bone Marrow Biopsy
  • with phenotyping. this is definitive diagnosis
  • Chest x-ray
  • looking for mediastinal masses
  • CT/ PET CT
  • LP
  • if suspected CNS involvement
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20
Q

What is the treatment of ALL?

A

Support:

  • Blood transfusions
  • IV fluids

Allopurinol - tumour lysis syndrome

**insert hickman line

Prophylatic antibotics and antifungals

Neutropenic regieme

  • hygeine
  • high calorie intake
  • full barrier treatment
  • daily checks

Chemotherpay + steroids

  • remission induction
  • consolidation
  • Maintance

Marrow transplant

  • young adults
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21
Q

What are some symptoms seen in AML that help to distinguish it?

A

Anaemia
Bruising
Infections

Symptoms that help differentiate:

  • DIC
  • Gum hypertrophy / bleeding

*these infilatrate

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of CML?

A

Mostly chronic insideous symptoms.

weight loss

tiredness

fever

night sweats

Splenic enlargemnt
- abdominal discomfort

**often the spleen is massive in CML

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23
Q

What is the natural history of CML?

A
  • *Chronic phase**
  • last years
  • *Accelerated phase:**
  • increase in symptoms
  • increase in splenic size
  • *Blast Crisis:**
  • AML tranformation
  • features of leukaemia. death is likely
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24
Q

What is the most common leukaemia over all? and how does it often present?

A

CLL

Often CLL is asymptomatic and is found out by incidental finding.

Patient may be prone to:

  • infections
  • bleeding
  • large rubbery non tender lymph nodes.
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25
Q

What are some complications of CLL?

A
  1. Autoimmune haemolysis
    - over production of B cells leads to production of antibodies against RBCs.
    * - Warm IgG antibody anaemia*
  2. Hypogammaglobulinaemia
  3. Marrow failure
  4. Richter’s transformation
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26
Q

What is the natural history of CLL?

A

1/3 never progress
- or even regress

1/3 progress slowly

1/3 Progress rapidly into aggressive lymphoma called:

  • RIchter’s lymhoma

*majority die from infection or transformation

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27
Q

When is a blood transfusion indicated pre-operatively?

if a patient is unable to take oral Iron, then how should they be managed pre-operatively?

A

Hb: <8g/dL

IV Iron - ferric carboxymaltase 1g/ weekly

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28
Q

What is the most common type of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Nodular sclerosing

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29
Q

Any supcision of leukaemia in a young person should be managed how?

A

FBC within 48hours

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30
Q

What is the most important factor in deciding whether cyroprecipitate should be given?

A

Low fibrinogen level

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of lead poisoning?

A

Muscle weakness

Neuropychiatric symptoms

Anaemia

Blue gums
- mainly seen in children

Adbominal pain/ constipation

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32
Q

Outwith a high MVC, what other feature may pointi n the direction of megoblastic anaemia?

A

Hyper - segmented neutrophil polymorphs

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33
Q

Glucose 6 phosphate defiency is inherited by which means?

A

X linked

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34
Q

What can cause haemolysis Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

Infection

Fava beans

Drugs - nitrofurantoin

Acidosis

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35
Q

What disease is associated with stary sky appearance on H&E stain

A

Burkits lymphoma

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36
Q

Why is parvovirus worrying in sicklecell patients?

A

It can cause aplastic crisis, which is a poor response of the bone marrow to respond to the drop in Hb

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37
Q

What is the blood tranfusion cut off for patients without ACS and those who present with ACS?

A

Non ACS - <7g/dL

ACS - <8g/dL

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38
Q

If a patient presents with a painful swollen leg and meets the criteria of Well Score >2, what should the next course of action be?

A

Carry out leg ultrasound scan within 4 hours.

if the scan is negative D Dimers should be done. If these are positive the LMWH should be started

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39
Q

What type of infection is most likely to transmitted via platelets?

A

Bacterial

  • stored at room temperture making them more likely to devleop bacterial infections
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40
Q

What investigation should be done to estbalish polycaemthemia ruba vera?

A

JAK 2 mutation screen

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41
Q

At what level should platelets be transfused?

A

<30

42
Q

What is the most common thrombophilia inherited condition?

A

Factor V Leiden

  • Activated protein C resistance

prothrombin Gene mutation is second most common

43
Q

What is required to diagnose tumour lysis syndrome?

A

to diagnose tumour lysis syndrome you need both a clinical and laboratory result.

Lab results:

  • *Urate**
  • high
  • *K+
  • ** High
  • *Phosphate**
  • high
  • *Ca2+**
  • low

Clinically:

  • *Cardiac arrythmias**
  • K+ ^^
  • *Rasied creatinine**
  • renal failure

Seizure

44
Q

What cancer is CLL most likely to transform into?

A

Richter’s lymphoma

*not AML

45
Q

Name a medication used in cancer than increases risk of VTE?

A

Tamoxifen

46
Q

Which Drug should be avoided in people with G6PD deficiency?

A

anti- malarial prophylaxis

  • primaquine
47
Q

Which haematological cancer often causes tumour lysis syndrome? and what are the symptoms of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Muscle cramps, confusion

release of:

  • uric acid
  • phosphate
  • K+
48
Q

What is the most common type of lymphoma?

A

Diffuse large B cell

49
Q

Name some causes of Thrombocytosis:

A

Bleeding

infection

Malignancy

Chronic Inflammation

Trauma

Iron deficiency

Post surgery

50
Q

Name some causes of thrombocytopenia:

A

Chemotherapy

Radiation

Bone marrow failire

  • leukaemia
  • myeloma
  • Myelofibrosis

Autoimmune - ITP

DIC

TTP

Splenomegaly

Dilutional effect
- massive transfusion

51
Q

What are the investigations that should be done into sickle cell disease?

A
  • *FBC**
  • low stable Hb
  • *Blood films**
  • show’s evidence of hyposplenism

Sickle Solubility test

  • *Hb Electrophresis
  • ** Hb SS present
  • no HbA will be present if sickle disease
52
Q

What is the general management of sickle cell:

A

Prevention of triggering factors of sickling

  • *During attack:**
  • High O2
  • opoid medication
  • Transfusion

Propholyatic antibiotics

  • *Hydroxycarbamide**
  • increase HbF

Stem cell transplant

53
Q

What may cause thrombocytosis:

A

Splenectomy

Infection

Essential thrombocytosis

Inflammatory diseases

  • RA
  • IBD

Malignancy

recent surgery

54
Q

If a young person presents with signs of leukamia, when should they be referred to a specialist?

A

Immediately. This is the most urgent referral

55
Q

From the different types of transfusions, which is most likely to pass on a bacterial infection?

A

Platelets

56
Q

What is a metabolic risk of giving high amounts of RBCs?

A

Hyperkalamia

57
Q

What is the universal donor of FFP?

A

AB

**remember it is FFP that will contain antibodies towards the RBCs.

thus AB will have no antibody already produced against AB on the patient

58
Q

What are some causes to B12 deficiency?

A

Percinous anaemia
- intrinsic factor destruction

Reduced Gastric acid
- PPIs

Terminal ileum disruption
- Crohn’s disease

Reduced intake
- Vegan diet

59
Q

What labatory findings may be seen with reduced vitamin B12?

A

Increased homocystiene

>MVC

Pancytopenia

Hypersegmented neurtrophils

60
Q

What is the most common type of bleeding disoder, how is it transmitted, what will labatory results show and how is it treated?

A

Von Williebrand disease

Autosomonial dominant

Labs:

  • prolonged bleeding time
  • Prolonged aPTT
  • Normal platelet count
  • light transission agrregratory will be low

Treatment:

  • desmopressin
  • Transmexic acid
  • factor VIII
61
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Myeloma?

and how is it treated?

A

Diagnostic criteria:

*>10% blast cells
*Evidence of End organ damage (CRAB symptoms)

*Evidence of paraprotein/ bence jones proteins

Treatment:

Cancer:

  • chemo- induction therapy
  • stem cell transplant

Bones:

  • analgesia
  • Bisphosphonates
  • orthopedic procedures (vertoplasty)
  • localised radiotherpy

Anaemia:

  • EPO
  • Blood transfusion

Infections:

  • Immunoglobulins
  • antibiotics
62
Q

How is HUS investigaed and treated?

A

Investigated:

  • FBC (Anaemia, Thrombocytothenia)
  • Blood film (fragmented RBCs)
  • U&Es (AKI)
  • Stool culture

Treatment:

  • Fluids
  • Plasma exhange
  • Dialysis
63
Q

What are the bedside procedures for safe blood transfusion?

A

Taking blood for pre-transfusion testing

  • positvely idenitify the patient
  • Lable the sample tube and lable form at bedside
    *do not write any forms or lables in advance

Administering Blood:

  • Positively Identify Patient at beside
  • Ensure identification matches the blood pack
  • Check ABO and RhD groups
  • Check the bag of blood (damage)

Record keeping:

  • record in patients notes when giving etc

Observations:

  • Blood pressure, temp and pulse mesured 15mins
64
Q

What are the types of Haemopoietic stem cell transplantation?

A

Allogenic
- HLA matched

Autogenic
- self stem cells

Umbilical cord

65
Q

What investigations should be done into DIC and how is it treated?

A

Investgiation:

  • FBC - Platelets
  • Coagulation studies - PT high, aPTT, Fibrinogen loss
  • D-dimers (increased)

Blood film - Schistocyte

Treatment:

  • treat cause
  • Cryopercipitate or FFP
66
Q

If a patient has a unrpovoked P.E or DVT, following initial management, what additional tests should be done afterwards?

A

Cancer screening as this is a big risk factor for a clot. Investgiatiosn include:

  • Physcial examination
  • CXR
  • Blood test
  • Urine Analysis

*>40 it is recommened to go for a CT scan

67
Q

What drug is used in the treatment of a DVT?

A

LMWH

68
Q

What non- reactive (Haemolytic, alergic) side effects can come about from blood transfusion?

A

Infection

  • vCJD
  • HIV
  • Hep B

Tranfusion Associated Circulatory overload
- Hyertensive
- Pulmonary oedema
**HTN differentiates it from Acute Lung injury

69
Q

What test should be performed into polycythemia Ruba vera?

A

FBC
JAK2 Mutation
Serum Ferritin
Renal and LFTs

70
Q

How is Haemophilia A treated?

what are some complications?

A

Desmopressin - stimulated Von Williebrand Factor and increases levels of Factor VIII.

In needed times recombinant Factor VIII can be used.

Complications:
- Desmopressin - Fluid overload/ hyponatrarmia

Factor recominant VIII - Autoimmune auto-antibodies towards the factor.

Infection risk vCJD

71
Q

Which blood group physiologically has lower amounts of Von Williebrand factor?

A

Group O.

the antigens A and B are expressed on von williebrand reducing it from being proteolysed

72
Q

What are the types of MDS?

A

Primary
- idiopathy

Secondary

  • Radioation
  • chemotherpay
73
Q

What are the reversal agents for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

74
Q

In haemolytic anaemia - what would you expect to find in the urine?

A

Increased urobilinogen

  • due to increased reabsorption from the gut
75
Q

What is a potential finding on the blood smear in haemolytic anaemia? and why is this?

A

leucoerythroblastic blood film

  • immature red and white blood cells

this occurs because there can be such a stimulus to produce new cells that not only are the RBCs increased but so is the granulocytes. - both of which can be immature as they are pumped out into the circulation.

76
Q

List some causes of intravacular haemolysis, and what may be seen in the urine?

A

ABO incompatibility
Malaria
Clostridum perfringens

Trauma - heart vales

oxidative stres
- drugs. dapsone

  • *Haemoglobinuria**
  • can present as black urine (as seen in fulminant malaria)
  • *Haemosiderinuria**
  • in smaller amoutns of free haemoglobin the blood, the tubular cells can absorb it and store it. when these slough off the release their contents.
77
Q

Name a non-vascular related complication of increased Haemolytic anaemia:

A

Pigmented gallstones

foalte deficiency

78
Q

Management of splenectomy:

A

Pneumococcal vaccination every 5 years.

life long penicillin V propholyaxis

Education

Card to alert professionals to the overwhelming sepsis risk

79
Q

When is the indirect coomb’s test carried out?

A

Prior to blood transfusion

Pregnancy - Rhesus status to assess if maternal blood as developed antibodies against the fetus blood

80
Q

How is IgG haemolytic anaemia diagnosed and what is the treatment?

A

Direct Coomb’s test

Remove the causative agent
Steroids
Splenoectomy or Azathiprine (not preferred in children)

81
Q

What typical abnormal lab results do you get in tumour lysis syndrome? and what drug is used propholyatic for it?

A

Hyperkalamia

hyperphosphotaemia

Hypocalcaemia

Allopurinol

82
Q

What is the management of a sickling crisis, and what is the management of long term sickle cell disease?

A

Crisis:

  • oxygen
  • IV fluids
  • analgesia
  • Tranfusions
  • especially if aplastic anaemia is present
  • Antibiotics

Chronic:

  • Folic Acid
  • Pneumoccoal vaccination
  • Seasonal Influenza vaccination
  • hydroxycarbamide
  • Stem cell transplant
83
Q

What is the most important immunological compatibility needed for platelet/ FFP and Cryoprecipitate use?

A

RhD compatibility

ABO is not as strictly needed

84
Q

What are the broad classes of pancytopenia?

A

Bone Marrow Failure:

  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Idiopathic
  • Drugs (chemo, radiation)

Infiltrative causes:

  • Leukaemia
  • Myeloma
  • lymphoma
  • MDS

Infective causes:

  • HIV
  • EBV
  • CMV

Ineffective causes:

  • B12
  • Folate

Peripheral Blood Pooling

  • Hypersplenism
  • SLE
85
Q

What is the bone marrow of leukaemia usually like?

A

Hypercellular with excessive blast formation

86
Q

What is the general treatment regieme of Acute leukamia

A
Specific treatment (chemotherapy regiemes) \*RCHOP is usally used for ALL
- need prior preperation for this.

Specific treatment involves:

  • induction therapy
  • Consolidation therapy
  • Remission maintaince

*this can relaspe at any stage.

Stem cell transplant may be used following this.

(usually reserved for <60 years)

87
Q

Outwith FBC, blood smear and immunophenotyping, what other Investigations should be done into CLL?

A

Direct Coombs test
- risk of autoimmune haemolytic

Reticulocyte count

*typically Bone marrow is not needed for diagnosis

88
Q

What are the high grade lymphomas? and low grade:

A

High grade

Burkitt’s

Diffuse large B cell

Mantle

High Grade:

Small lymphocytic

Follicular

Marginal zone

89
Q

What investigations are done into Hodgekin’s lymphoma and how is it treated?

A
  • *Bloods**
  • FBC (normocytic anaemia)
  • LFTs (infiltration)
  • LDH (raised)
  • ESR (rasied)
  • *CXR**
  • mediastinal mass

Biopsy:
- done under radiological guiadance/ surgical removal of lymph node

Treatment:

1A - 2- radiation

>2 - Chemotherapy:
- ABVD (Doxirubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, Dacarbazine)

Review:

every 3 months for 1-2 years
6 months 3-5 years

Annual influenza

Breast screening programme

90
Q

What are the investigations and treatments for Non-hodgekins Lymphoma?

A
  • *Bloods**
  • FBC (normocytic anaemia)
  • LFTs (infiltration)
  • LDH (raised)
  • ESR (rasied)
  • HIV testing
  • *CXR**
  • mediastinal mass
  • *Biopsy:**
  • done under radiological guiadance/ surgical removal of lymph node
  • Important to establish cytogenetics for B or T cell

Bone marrow Aspiration + Biopsy (trephine biopsy)

Treatment:

Low grade:

  • radiotherapy
  • rituxumab

High grade:
- RCHOP

91
Q

What is done during a bone marrow biopsy and where are they typically done?

A

Bone marrow aspiration
- cellular film that can be analysed under microscope

Bone Marrow aspiration - Trephine

  • looks at archietecture, infilatration and bone marrow cellularity

Procedure on: Posterior of iliac Crest

92
Q

What score can be used to predict prognosis in neutropenic sepsis?

A

Multinational assessment for supportive care in cancer

  • MASCC

>21 is good

93
Q

What investigations should be done into Macrocytic anaemia?

A

FBC

Blood film
- macrocytic, hyerpsegemented neutrophils

B12/ folate levels

LFTs
- can cause macrocytic anaemia

Bone marrow

94
Q

What is the severe complication of Vitamin B12 deficiency?

What other “classical” neurological signs may be seen?

A

Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord

  • dorsal leminicus pathway degereration
  • corticospinal tract defects.

Classical signs:

  • up going plantars (UMN)
  • absent knee jerk (LMN)
  • Absent Achiels jerk (LMN)
95
Q

What are the clinical findings in ALL?

A

Petechia brusing
Epitaxis

Hepatomegaly

Splenomegaly

Testicular swelling

Bloods:

  • neutropenia
  • Anaemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
96
Q

What affect can Iron Deficiency and Megoblastic anaemia have on Hb1Ac scores?

A

It can exaggerate them - over estimating

97
Q

What are some causes of Low vitamin B12?

A

Dietary

Pernicious anaemia

Small bowel pathology
- Ileum segmentation

98
Q

What other cells outwith RBCs will demonstrate Macrocytosis in B12 defiency?

A

All proliferating cells will.

ones of obvious appearance are:

  • buccal mucosa
  • tongue
  • small intestines
  • cervix
  • vagina
99
Q

What are the clinical features and signs of megablastic anaemia?

A

Symptoms:

  • malaise
  • breathlessness
  • Poor memory
  • paraesthesiae

Signs:

  • smooth large beefy tongue
  • Skin pigmentation
  • Pyrexia
100
Q

Why is the LDH often markedely increased in megoblastic anaemia?

A

Cells during development in the bone marrow arrest and die, which induces a hypercellular marrow. This dying releases LDH and bilirubin.

*there will be no rise in reticulocytes like often seen in other haemolytic anaemias which also have similar biochemical findings

101
Q

If someone is seen to have a low folate level and you decide to supplement their folate, what else must you give?

A

Vitamin B12 because if this is also low it can worsen subacute combined spinal cord degeneration if