Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

How is VWF inherited? What are the levels of platelets, bleeding time, PT and APTT

A

Autosomal Dominant

Normal platelets (number not affected)
Prolonged bleeding time
Normal PT but prolonged APTT

Nb// Reduced Factor 8 level slightly (but not as much as Haemophilia A)

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2
Q

What do you do if patient is on warfarin and there is bleeding, with INR >5

A

stop warfarin. IV Vit K.
Prothrombin complex concentrate (contains factors 2,7,9,10)

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3
Q

what to do if on warfarin and INR 5-8? No bleeding

A

Stop warfarin, oral vitamin K

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4
Q

How do you monitor response to haemachromatosis Mx (i.e. venesection)?

A

Monitor ferritin and transferrin saturation

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5
Q

What nerve is usually injured when the lateral aspect of knee/head of fibula is injured?

A

Common peroneal nerve

(the sciatic nerve divides into common peroneal nerve and tibial nerve)

The common peroneal innervates dorsiflexion and ankle eversion.

Therefore you get foot drop.

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6
Q

What can be a trigger of ITP?

A

Infection

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7
Q

Management of ITP?

A

Prednisolone

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8
Q

At what threshold are platelet transfusions indicated?

A

If bleeding >30
If no bleeding <10

If pre-op, and surgery high bleeidng risk, transfuse to aim >100

medium risk aim 50-75

low risk aim >50

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9
Q

Which blood product carries the most infection risk?

A

Platelets, as they can’t be refrigerated

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10
Q

Do you have to stop the COCP prior to surgery?

A

Yes, 4 weeks before
(DVT risk)

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11
Q

Which bacteria commonly implicated in neutropenic sepsis?

A

Staph Epidermidis

(due to indwelling lines commonly seen in cancer patients)

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12
Q

Why do you get anaemia in CKD?

A

1) decreased EPO
2) increased hepcidin which impairs iron absorption gut

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13
Q

What is the management of ITP?

A

Only needs treatment if severe bleeding or platelets less than 10

Otherwise, no treatment needed
Resolves by itself in 6 months

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14
Q

What happens in tumour lysis syndrome and which cancers are high risk for it?

How can you reduce risk of it?

A

breakdown of tumour when treated, causing
HIGH K
HIGH Ph
HIGH URIC ACID
LOW Ca

Leukaemia and lymphoma

Reduce risk with IV Fluids and Allopurinol

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15
Q

How do you reverse each of the anticoagulants?

A

Heparin - protamine
Warfarin - Vit K +/- PCC
Apixaban/Rivaroxaban (both 10a inhibitors) - adnexet alpha (10a)

Dabigatran (monoclonal antibody)

Edoxaban - there isn’t one licensed :/

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16
Q

Which malignancies is EBV associated with?

A

Burkett’s lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

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17
Q

How often should patients with sickle cell receive pneumococcal vaccine?

A

Every 5 years

18
Q

Slightly raised APTT, normal platelets, slightly low Factor 8

Bleeding

What’s diagnosis?

A

Von Willebrand Disease

(inherited)

19
Q

Which virus causes aplastic anaemia (pancytopenia) in those with haem issues (e.g sickle cell)?

A

Parvovirus B19

ie. 5th disease (slapped cheek syndrome)
- rash over face

20
Q

Which Hb rises in compensation in B thalassaemia trait?

21
Q

Which Hb is dominant in B thalassaemia major?

22
Q

What is HSP and what is the triad of symptoms?

A

IgA vasculitis following URTI

Abdominal pain, haematuria, joint pain (+purpuric rash/petechiae on buttocks)

23
Q

What happens to clotting factor levels in liver disease? What happens to PT and APTT?

A

Clotting factors all fall, except factor 8 (made throughout body)

APTT and PT both raised

However also at risk of thrombus as well as bleeding because natural anticoags (protein c, s, antithrombin) fall

24
Q

What are the criteria in Well’s score?

A

-Entire leg swollen
-Tender along deep venous system
-One leg 3cm more dilated than other
-Immobility in last 3 days or surgery requiring GA in last 12 weeks
-Previous DVT
-Active cancer
-Paralysis or casting of leg
-Pitting oedema on that leg only

-2 points of Other diagnosis as likely

25
Q

How to use Well’s score in suspected DVT?

A

Score 1 or 0 (DVT less likely) = d-dimer. If positive, do USS. If not available in 4hrs, start treatment.
2 or more (DVT more likely) = do USS

If USS going to delay more then 4hrs, start treatment and ensure USS done within 24hrs

26
Q

What to do in suspected DVT if d-dimer positive but USS negative?

A

Stop anticoagulation
Offer repeat USS in 6-8 days

27
Q

Most commonly inherited thrombophilia?

A

Factor V Leiden

28
Q

What is CML and what are the symptoms?

A

Increased granulocytes at different stages of maturation
Increased WCC +/- increased platelets
Low Hb - anaemia

Massive splenomegaly -> abode discomfort

Occurs due to Philadelphia chromosome (9:22 translocation, forming BCR:ABL fusion gene which produces overly active tyrosine kinase protein -> cell proliferation)

29
Q

What is the management of CML?

A

1st line = imatinib (TKI)

30
Q

What are the causes of massive splenomegaly?

A

CML
Myelofibrosis

31
Q

Management of beta thalassaemia major?

A

Regular bloods transfusions
(they don’t have HbA - instead increased A2 and F)

But need also desferioxamine to prevent iron overload

32
Q

What are the official diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma?

A

Need 1 major and 1 minor Orr 3 minor

major: plasmacytoma identified on biopsy, plasma cells >30% in BM, elevated M proteins blood/urine

minor: plasma cells 10-30% BM, slightly elevated M protein blood/urine, osteolytic lesions, low non-cancer antibody levels in blood

33
Q

What is the management of sickle cell patients long term?

A

Hydroxyurea to prevent attacks

And they should have the pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years

34
Q

How should you manage antiphospholipid patients when they’re pregnant?

A

Stop warfarin

Start aspirin from 12 weeks (to prevent pre-eclampsia)
Start LMWH once fetal heartbeat detected

They are at increased risk of VTE especially during pregnancy!!

35
Q

Indications for warfarin as 1st line anticoagulant?

A

Metallic heart valve, valvular AF
Antiphospholipid syndrome

36
Q

Coeliac disease + splenomegaly = WHY?

What do you see on blood film as a consequence?

A

Coeliac disease causes functional hyposplenism

You may see Howell Jolly bodies (RBC remnant) and target cells on blood film - basically cos spleen isn’t working as well to remove abnormal blood stuff

37
Q

Effect of EBV on FBC?

A

Lymphoyctosis and neutropenia (the former can precipitate recurrent infections)

38
Q

NB// FERRITIN IS ACUTE PHASE REACTANT AND WILL BE RAISED WHEN UNWELL (so can be deceivingly normal or high in someone with IDA when they’re acutely unwell!)

39
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

1) Iron deficiency is most common (in females, think GI loss vs menorrhagia)

2) Thalassaemia

40
Q

When should you transfuse platelets?

A

If no bleeding, <10

if significant bleeding <30
(i.e. malaenia, haematemesis, prolonged epistaxis)