Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UKMLA > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What would presence of spherocytes on blood smear indicate?

A

Hemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What antiglobulin test is positive in hemolytic anaemia?

A

Direct antiglobulin testing
IgG antibodies present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What condition produces bite cells in blood smear?

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are howell jolly bodies present?

A

Splenic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are rouleaux cells present?

A

Malignant lymphoma and multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which cells are seen in hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Reed sternberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What chromosome is important in development in chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is wrong with the Philadelphia chromosome in CML?

A

Reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is light chain deposition?

A

are blood cell disorder that occurs when the body deposits too many light chains in organs, damaging them and causing disease. Light chains are fragments of immunoglobulins that the body uses to fight infection. The kidneys normally clear light chains, but in LCDD, they build up and cause disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which disease is associated with light chain deposition and why can it cause renal failure?

A

Multiple myeloma
Causes renal failure by causing tubular toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction?

A

Due to acute reaction to plasma proteins - as long as temp is below 38.5 and patient is asymptomatic transfusion ca be temp stopped then continue with regular observations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which factor is haemophilia A vs B caused by?

A

A - Factor Viii
B - Factor ix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is haemophilia?

A

Deficiencies in clotting factors of viii and ix which are part of coagulation cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is diagnositc method for haemophilias?

A

Factor assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can minor bleeds in haemophilia A be managed medically? and how does it work?

A

Desmopressin - increases factor Viii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For major bleeds in haemophilia A and B what is treatment?

A

Recombinant factor viii and vi respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What complication in haemophilia A can arise following factor viii treatment?

A

Boy can develop inhibitor to factor viii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is inheritance pattern of haemophilia?

A

X linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes beta thalassaemia major?

A

Defect causing a ceasing in beta chain production - therefore no HbA is produced so HbF is continued to be produced to compensate for this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does beta thalassaemia major present?

A

First year of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does HbF normally stop being produced?

A

At 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What symptoms can present with beta thalassaemia major?

A

RBC being produced in abnromal locations like spleen - causing splenomegaly and skull - causes frontal bossing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which ethnicity of patients are usually affected by beta thalassaemia major?

A

Mediterranean or far eastern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is inheritance of thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is cause of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Non functioning copies of four alpha globin gene on chromosome 16
Inheritance of 2 - is asymptomatic
3- symptomatic : haemoglobin H disease - microcytic anaemia , splenomegaly
4: hydrops fetalis - incompatible with life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What puts a patient at risk of vitamin K deficiency?

A

Alcoholism
Poor nutrition
GI disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Widespread activation of coagulation pathways and subsequent depletion of platelets and coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Sepsis
Haematological malignancies
Organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens to the PT in DIC?

A

Prolonged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

chronic blood cancer that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What symptoms would present with polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Red cell mass
Fatigue
Headache
Visual disturbance
Increased risk of thrombosis and haemorrhage
Tinnitus
Itching post hot bath
Facial plethora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What gene is mutated in polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK-2 v617F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is management principles of polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Venesection
Cytoreductive therapy - suppresses erythropoiesis
Aspirin daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What symptoms is classic post bath in polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Itching after a hot bath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What antibodies can be developed with phenytoin use?

A

Antibodies to factor Viii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What would be expected of the APTT with mixing studies in congenital factor viii deficiency?

A

Corrected APTT if it does not correct it means the bleedig disorder is due to antibody action rather than failure to produce clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is serum erythropoietin levels in primary vs secondary polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Primary: low serum erythropoietin because through feedback loop body tries to lessen erythropoietin so no more further erythrocytosis.
In secondary polycythaemia the erythrocytosis is not driven by erythropoietin so the serum erythropoietin is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is plummer vinson syndrome?

A

Triad of oesophageal webs
Microcytic anaemia
Glossitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who does Plummer Vinson usually affect?

A

Middle aged women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are ferritin levels like in Plummer Vinson?

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is treatment of Plummer Vinson?

A

Iron replacement
Endoscopic dilation of oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which proteins are found in urine electrophoresis in multiple myeloma?

A

Bence jones proteins - M proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is primary myelofibrosis?

A

Chronic progressive myeloproliferative disorder - low production of RBC , WBC and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are risk factors for primary myelofibrosis?

A

Old age
Industrial solvents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What cells are seen on peripheral blood film in myelofibrosis?

A

Tear drop shaped RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are symptoms of primary myelofibrosis?

A

Weight loss
Night sweats
Low grade fever
Fatigue
Cachexia

47
Q

What causes acute haemolytic reaction?

A

ABO/ rhesus incompatibility

48
Q

What are the symptoms of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Agitation
Pyrexia
Hypotension
Flushing
Abdo /chest pain
DIC

49
Q

What is pathophysiology o von willebrands?

A

Von willerbrand protein helps platelets stick to damaged area and stabilises factor 8. Therefore is there is deficiency in VWP then there is lack of this clotting and a greater bleeding time

50
Q

What is treatment of vitamin b12 deficiency?

A

IM 1mg hydroxocobalamin on alternate days until improved then maintenance therapy of 1mg every two months

51
Q

In anaemia of chronic disease what happens to the total iron binding capacity and the ferritin levels?

A

TIBC decrease
Ferritin levels increase. This is opposite to iron deficiency anaemia

52
Q

What type of anaemia is b12 deficiency cause?

A

Macrocytic

53
Q

In a patient on warfrin with INR between 5-8 what is the management?

A

Hold warfarin for a few days

54
Q

What is heparin induced thrombocytopenia and how does it present?

A

Immune mediated reaction causing thrombocytopenia - presents 5-14 days after starting heparin therapy (e.g. dalteparin)

55
Q

What cells can be present in IDC?

A

Schistocytes - fragmented RBC due to excess fibrin strands haemolysing passing RBC

56
Q

What is the difference between VWB type 1 , 2 and 3?

A

1 is most common and least severe, 2 and 3 are more severe. Type 3 is caused by almost complete deficiency of VWF

57
Q

Which medication suppresses the production of BRC by controlling erythocytosis?

A

Hydroxycarbamide

58
Q

What is target INR for patients with recurrent VTE and on warfarin?

A

3-4

59
Q

What is INR target for mechanical mitral valves?

A

3.5

60
Q

What is target INR for Antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

2.5

61
Q

What are some symptoms of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A

Prolonged gum bleeding
Menorrhagia
Epistaxis

62
Q

What cells are precursors to mature RBC?

A

Nucleated RBC

63
Q

When are nucleated RBC seen?

A

Bone marrow is working hard to produce RBC quickly e.g. in a haemolytic crisis

64
Q

What is medical treatment for von willebrand?

A

Desmopressin which stimulates release of VWF

65
Q

What is treatment for beta thalassaemia major?

A

2-4 weeks blood transfusions

66
Q

Folate deficiency can cause pancytopenia

A
67
Q

Which one of the following structures contains white and red pulp, and functions to trap foreign substances carried in the blood?

A

Spleen

68
Q

Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?

A

Splenic sinusoid

69
Q

What is transfusion haemosiderosis?

A

Repeated blood transfusions lead to iron deposition in endocrine organs and heart - indication for chelation. If irreversible then heart failure and needs a transplant. Can be a complication of thalassaemia major treatment

70
Q

What is first line for DVT treatment? unless?

A

LMWH unless bad renal function - if so give them apixaban

71
Q

What is a paraproteinaemia?

A

Overproduction of a monoclonal immunoglobulin or fragment of the antibody which are present in serum or urine - can be pre-malignant or malignant

72
Q

What is definition of partial remission in acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

Blasts greater than 5% otherwise all good

73
Q

What is significance of large number of baasophils in CML?

A

Means there is accelerated phase of disease

74
Q

When are rouleaux found?

A

Multiple myeloma

75
Q

What is a common cause of AKI in sickle cell patients?

A

Renal papillary necrosis - sickled RBC cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae

76
Q

Which antimalarial should be avoided in g6PD deficiency?

A

Primaquine

77
Q

How should iron tablets be taken with levothyroxine?

A

Iron when taken with levothyroxine can reduce levothyroxine absorption so the levothyroxine should be taken 4 hours before or after levothyroxine

78
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Sufficient iron but infective erythropoiesis causing microcytic anaemia and deposition of iron in organs

79
Q

What will be seen in bone marrow in sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Ring sideroblasts

80
Q

What is management of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Avoid alcohol
Chelation therapy to reduce iron overload
B6
Blood transfusion
Stem cell transplant

81
Q

What level must platelets be below to give them to a non bleeding patient?

A

Below 10

82
Q

For hyperkalaemia treatment what should be given first then next?

A

Calcium gluconate
then… insulin and dextrose
The calcium gluconate protects the heart as it stabilises the myocardial membranes

83
Q

Which substance regulates clotting by breaking down fibrin and fibrinogen - inhibiting thrombin activity?

A

Plasmin

84
Q

Why does ciprofloxacin lead to an increased levels of warfarin?

A

It’s a cytochrome p450 inhibitor - thus increasing warfarin’s affect

85
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

High red cell distribution width - lots of variation in size of RBCs

86
Q

Which antibodies are usually found with intrinsic factor antibodies?

A

Parietal cell antibodies

87
Q

Which translocation is Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Reciprocal translocation 22 and 11

88
Q

Which virus is associated with aplastic crisis in sickles?

A

Parovirus b19

89
Q

What is splenic sequestration crisis?

A

Acute splenomegaly
Drop in haemoglobin
Raised reticulocyte count

90
Q

What is the most common cause of inherited aplastic anaemia?

A

Fanconi anaemia

91
Q

How many days bed rest is a risk factor for VTE?

A

More than 5

92
Q

Surgery within how many weeks is a risk factor for VTE?

A

8 weeks

93
Q

What initiates the intrinsic pathway?

A

When blood comes into contact with collagen on an injured vessel wall

94
Q

What are symptoms of pernicious anaemia?

A

Cognitive impairement
jaundice
neurological symptoms: neuropathy , balance, sensation and coordination

95
Q

Which clotting factors are inhibited production by warfarin?

A

ii, vii, ix, x
2 + 7 = 9 and 10

96
Q

Which test is useful in diagnosis of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Coombs test

97
Q

What does coombs test test for?

A

Presence of antibodies against circulating RBC which can induce hemolysis

98
Q

What is characteristic presentation of idiopathic autoimmune disorder?

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia

99
Q

What is management of idiopathic immune thrombocytopenia?

A

Usually watch and wait if fine but oral pred if platelet count is less than 30

100
Q

In which non hodgkin lymphoma are IgM papaproteinaemia found?

A

Waldenstorm macroglobulinaemia

101
Q

Which clotting disorder is assocaited with turner’s?

A

Haemophilia A

102
Q

What is first line for primary autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Corticosteroids

103
Q

Why would you get a dry tap from bone marrow?

A

If patient has primary myelofibrosis as bone marrow has fibrosed

104
Q

Which UTI drug is common to trigger a haemolytic crisis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Nitrofurantoin

105
Q

Which cellular bodies are found in haemolytic crisis in g6pd deficiency?

A

Heinz bodies

106
Q

If the question prompt mentions abnormal proliferation of megakaryocytes what should you start thinking?

A

Myeofibrosis

107
Q

What can henoch schonlein prupura present with?

A

After an URTI
Abdo pain
Arthritis
Glumerulonephritis

108
Q

How can anabolic steroid use affect RBC?

A

Increase erythropoiesis - causing secondary polycythaemia

109
Q

What is first line diagnostic test for non hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Excisional biopsy

110
Q

What do smudge cells indicate?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

111
Q

How is aplastic crisis in sickles managed?

A

Conservatively unless symptomatic anaemia in which case blood transfusion is needed

112
Q

Who should hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea) be given to sickle cell patients?

A

Two or more crises

113
Q

Which immune cell accumulate abnormally in multiple myeloma?

A

Monocytes

114
Q
A

UKMLA (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions