Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AMC MCQ > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Normal Hb levels

A

Male: 130 - 180 g/L|13.8 to 17.2
Female: 115 - 165 g/L | 12.1 to 15.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Normal serum ferritin level

A

men: 24 -336 mg/L
women: 11 - 307 mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mean corpuscular count

A

80 - 100 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Platelet count

A

150 - 400 x 10^9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bleeding time

A

2 - 8.5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Prothrombin time (pt)

A

10 - 13 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

A

25 - 35 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autosomal dominant

A
  • spherocytosis
  • hemorrhagic telangiectasia
  • Von Willebrand disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Autosomal recessive

A
  • Factor 5 diseases
  • Fanconi’s anaemia
  • haemochromatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X-linked recessive

A

Haemophilia A
Haemophilia B
- Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

rise in platelet count causes

A

– Polycythemia vera.
– Hyposplenism due to splenectomy.
– Iron deficiency anemia.
– Correction of vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

microcytic anemia + . Seizures
+ peripheral neuritis + dermatitis

A

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

vegan vegetarian deficiency

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vitamin B12 bsorbed by binding to

A

intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

B12 deficiency causes what type of anaemia

A

pernicious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

B12 deficiency conditions

A
  • Autoimmune gastritis
  • Terminal ileum disease
  • Gastrectomy
  • Metformin therapy
  • Coeliac disease
  • H.pyelori infection
  • Crohn disease
  • Postgastrectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

weakness + fatigue + dizziness + palpitations + exercise intolerance + craving of ice/clay

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

increased MCV + neutropenia + thrombocytopenia + history of alcohol abuse + hypersegmentation of
the neutrophils

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cheilosis + glossitis+ a variety of ocular problems + hx of biliary atresia/hepatitis

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

px around 70 + fatigue + tiredness + macrocytic anaemia

A

myelodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

myelodysplasia investigation

A

Bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of macrocytic anemia

A

High MCV

megaloblastic anemias
- Vitamin B12 (cobalamin )
- folate deficiency
- myelodysplasia
vigorous reticulocytosis,
hypothyroidism,
chronic liver disease,
myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common causes of microcytic anemia

A

Low MCV

iron deficiency
thalassemia,
anemia of chronic disease
sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

difference between hemolytic anemia vs anemia of chronic disease

A

Low hepatoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

congenital developmental anomalies + progressive pancytopenia

A

Fanconi’s anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fanconi anaemia investigation

A

Diagnostic: Chromosome fragility test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Fanconi anaemia congenital abnormalities

A
  1. Hand and arm anomalies (misshapen,missing or extra thumbs or abnormalities of
    the radius)
  2. Skeletal anomalies of the hips, spine or ribs
  3. Skin discolouration (café au lait spots, hyper-pigmentation,
  4. Small head or eyes
  5. Low birth weight and subsequent short stature
  6. Missing or horseshoe kidney
  7. Gastrointestinal abnormalities including abnormal development of the
    oesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sudden onset of jaundice + pallor, +
dark urine + with or without abdominal and back pain + fall in the haemoglobin concentration + “bite” cells

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

acute haemolysis following ingestion of cotrimoxazole/primaquine

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency dx

A

Heinz Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

helmet cells + Artificial (mechanical) valves placemenent

A

schistocytes Hemolytic anemia

32
Q

schistocytes Hemolytic anemia lab findings

A

Decreased serum haptoglobin level

33
Q

spherocytosis clinical features

A

1-Anaemia and jaundice.
2-Splenomegaly.
3-Positive family history of anaemia, jaundice, or gallstones.
4-Spherocytosis with increased reticulocytes.
5-Increased osmotic fragility.
6-Negative direct antiglobulin test (DAT).

34
Q

The outcome of splenectomy in a patient with spherocytosis

A

1- Spherocytosis persists after splenectomy, the cells survive longer in the circulation.
2-Decrease in reticulocytosis.
3- RBC fragility remains high resulting short life span of red blood cells
4- Fall in elevated bilirubin
5- In severely affected patients, life-threatening anaemia

35
Q

Spherocytosis gene defect

A

spectrin
ancyrin
protein 4.1

36
Q

fever + thrombocytopenia + low haemoglobin + acute renal failure + hallucination + haemolytic anaemia

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

37
Q

immediate hemolytic reaction
secondary to a blood transfusion invesitgation

A

Positive Coombs test

38
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) treatment

A
  • replacement fluid
  • fresh frozen plasma
39
Q

pruritis on hot bath + vertigo + tinnitus + headache + visual disturbances + hypertension + transient ischemic
strokes

A

Polycythaemia vera

40
Q

fever + maculopapular rash+ serum AST, bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase elevation post transplant

A

Graft-versus-host disease

41
Q

decreased serum albumin + hypercalcaemia + anaemia + bony lytic lesions/osteoporosis

A

Multiple myeloma

42
Q

CRAB

A

C - hypercalcaemia 13%
R - renal impairment 20–40%
A - anaemia 70%
B - bony lesions

43
Q

Multiple myeloma investigation

A

Initial: & diagnostic: serum and urinary
electrophoresis

44
Q

poor prognosis of multiple myeloma

A
  1. higher levels of beta-2 microglobulin
  2. lower levels of albumin
45
Q

hepatomegaly + weakness+ hyperpigmentation + atypical
arthritis + diabetes + impotence + unexplained chronic abdominal pain +
cardiomyopathy + Decreased production of FSH and LH + gynaecomastia + 90% are C282Y homozygotes

A

haemochromatosis

46
Q

Most common manifestation of cardiac
involvement in hemochromatosis

A

Congestive cardiac failure

47
Q

most common cause of death in hemochromatosis

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. cardiomypathy
48
Q

haemochromatosis investigation

A

Serum transferrin saturation
- >60% men
- 50$ women

49
Q

haemophilia A in pregnancy

A
  • measure Factor 8 level at 1st antenatal
    visit and at 32 weeks
  • majority develop normal level of factor 8 and do not require replacement
50
Q

-Malaise and pallor + Recurrent infection + Gingival hypertrophy + Fever, night sweats + -Normocytic normochromic anaemia + Thrombocytopenia + myeloblasts more than 20%

A

acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

51
Q

conditions which can lead to the development of AML

A

-Trisomy 21 noted in Down syndrome.
-Fanconi anaemia.
-Ataxia-telangiectasia.
-Myeloproliferative syndromes.

52
Q

pallor + sweats + weight loss + bilateral axillary lymphadenopathy + massive Spleen and liver megaly

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

53
Q

CLL management

A

1st line: corticosteroids such as prednisolone
chemotherapy if needed

54
Q

urticaria + stridor + hypotension during blood transfusion+ hx of recurrent infections

A

Immunoglobulin A deficiency

55
Q

fatigue and weakness, dyspnea, and pallor + dysplasia + Anaemia with/o f bi- or
pancytopenia+ Macrocytosis + absolute neutropenia

A

Myelodysplasia

56
Q

common feature of autoimmune thrombocytopenia in
childhood

A

Antecedent viral illness

57
Q

microcytic anemia + increased concentration of hemoglobin A2

A

β-Thalassemia

58
Q

β-Thalassemia investigation

A

diagnostic: hemoglobin electrophoresis

59
Q

most profound adverse effect of chronic
transfusional iron overload in children with thalassemia?

A

Progressive hepatic cirrhosis

60
Q

sickle cell anaemia reduce iron overload

A
  • Subcutaneous deferoxamine
  • Splenectomy
  • ## Erythrocytopheresis
61
Q

earliest complication of sickle cell disease

A

Bone infarction

62
Q

decreased red cell, white cell and platelets counts

A

pancytopenia/aplastic anemia

63
Q

aplastic anaemia causes

A

NSAIDs
- Sulfonamides.
– Gold.
– Anti-epileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproic acid, phenytoin).
– Nifedipine.
– Chloramphenicol.

64
Q

generalised weakness, low-grade fever and sore throat + normal haemoglobin + low neutrophil + low platelets + thyroid medicatiob

A

agranulocytosis

65
Q

Long-standing history of prolonged bleeding after trauma and history of menorrhagia in an otherwise healthy woman

A

Von Willebrand disease

66
Q

fever, night sweats, weight loss + painless generalized lymphadenopathy which becomes painful after alcohol consumption

A

f Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)

67
Q

f Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) highest risk of malignanc

A

Supraclavicular lyphadenopathy

68
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) diagnostic investigation

A

Lymph node excision biopsy

69
Q

non-Hodgkin lymphoma features

A

GI tract most common site
- 3% of all malignant gastric tumors
- Surgery alone can be considered adequate treatment that does not infiltrate beyond the submucosa
-

70
Q

incidence of thrombosis and bleeding in patients with myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A
  • typically mucocutaneous
  • Bleeding is usually less severe and less frequent than thrombosis
  • Arterial
    thromboses are more common than venous thrombosis
  • Strokes are more frequent followed by myocardial infarction and peripheral arterialocclusion
71
Q

best test to monitor heparin therapy

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

72
Q

DVT in the presence of thrombocytopenia

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia

73
Q

types of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

Type 1 : first 2 days after exposure, platelet count normalizes with continued heparin therapy. non-immune

Type 2: typically occurs 4-10 days after
exposure, immune-mediated disorder
- Venous limb gangrene
- Bilateral adrenal hemorrhagic infarction
- Skin lesions at injection sites
- Acute systemic reactions following an i- ntravenous heparin bolus

74
Q

heparin induced thrombocytopenia management

A

discontinue and avoid all heparin products immediately

75
Q

Renal failure reflected by oliguria and abdominal pain following invasive diarrhoea

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).

AMC MCQ (56 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions