February 2025 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage?

A

Uterine Atony

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2
Q

Fibroadenoma management

A

Depends on patient’s preference
- Can be safely left behind with
reassurance and periodic review.
- Surgery – excision done usually under
GA if patient wants.

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3
Q

Duodenal atresia features

A
  • Neonate w/ vomiting (after first feeds)
  • Down syndrome 5%
    distal obstruction to the papilla of Vater 80%
    -bilious vomiting
  • M > F
    -X-ray: ‘double-bubble’
  • drooling
  • abdominal distension (very late symptom)
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4
Q

Perthes features

A
  • Normal Caucasian boy
  • 4 and 10 years, peak incidence at 5 to 7 years
  • 15% bilateral
  • widening of joint hip space
    Hip pain result of necrosis of the involved bone
    -pain may be referred to the medial aspect of the ipsilateral knee or to the lateral thigh.
  • The quadriceps muscles and adjacent thigh soft tissues may atrophy, and the hip may develop adduction flexion contracture
  • antalgic gait with limited hip motion, or a Trendelenburg gate (abductor lurch).
  • Pain may be present with passive range of motion and
    limited hip movement, especially internal rotation and abduction
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5
Q

Intraductal Papilloma

A

Clinical Features:
1. Watery/Bloody discharge
2. Just 1 duct compromised

First Investigation:
1. PE.
2. US (<35yo)
Mammography (>35yo)

Best Investigations:
1. FNAC
2. Core Biopsy
3. Breast Ductography (specific)

Management: Surgery

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6
Q

Development of pubic hair

A

Girls: 8 years
Boys: 9 years

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7
Q

Paget’s disease management

A
  • lumpectomy (breast conserving surgery)
  • partial mastectomy or wide local incision
  • Total mastectomy only if indication of disease is severe
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8
Q

Management of px with breast cancer spread to several places in bones

A
  • anticancer therapy with hormonal treatment
  • chemotherapy
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9
Q

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

A
  • holosystolic murmur at left sternal border
  • acyanotic
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10
Q

septic arthritis management

A
  • Joint drainage & debridement
  • IV antibiotics
  • orthopaedic surgeon referral
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11
Q

Complications of thyroglossal duct cyst (TDC)

A
  • Infection
    -Malignancy 1%
  • Overgrowth and pressure of the underlying
    structures.
  • Rupture and fistula formation
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12
Q

Posterior triangle of the neck mass

A

CCP
- Cystic hygroma
- Cervical rib
- Pancoast tumour
- (Naso/oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas)

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13
Q

3-4 years of age + kidney claw sign + abdominal mass does not cross midline

A

nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumour)

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14
Q

Rinne test

A

AC>BC = Normal/SNHL
BC>AC= CHL

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15
Q

Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip features

A
  • neonates from breech delivery
  • Female 6xt more likely
  • unilateral or bilateral (positive family hx)
  • Diminished abduction in flexion of the
    affected hip
  • Apparent inequality of legs: affected
    leg being shortened and externally rotated
  • Asymmetrical skin creases of the groin and
    thigh
  • ‘clicking’ on hip movements
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16
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis in children school exclusion

A
  • Excluded until discharge has resolved
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17
Q

Weight: 1 standard deviation above/below the 50th percentile

A

Weight: overweight/underweight

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18
Q

kidney scarring investigation of choice in children

A

DMSA (gold standard)

  • Clinical suspicion of renal injury
  • Reduced renal function
  • Suspicion of VUR
  • Suspicion of obstructive uropathy on ultrasound in older toilet-trained children
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19
Q

Features of Paget’s disease

A
  • eczematous-looking
  • dry scabbing nipple rash
  • nipple ulceration
  • nipple skin thickening
  • dilated duct of the breast
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20
Q

Breast cancer screening age group

A
  • 50-74 (mammograms every two years)
  • Woman 40 years of age specifically asking due to family history of risk BC
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21
Q

Cervical masses in neonatal period

A
  • thyroglossal duct cyst (TDC)
  • teratomas
  • sternocleidomastoid tumours of infancy
  • vascular or lymphatic malformations.
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22
Q

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis risk factors in children

A

-Formula feeding
-Male
-Caucasian background
-Firstborn
-Maternal smoking during pregnancy
-Positive family history
-Both erythromycin and azithromycin < 2weeks

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23
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) management

A
  • Cease weight-bearing and refer urgently.
  • lf acute slip, gentle reduction via traction is
    better than manipulation for prevention of
    later avascular necrosis.
  • Once reduced, perform pinning
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24
Q

Idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in children management

A
  • If not bleeding: monitoring/observation
  • If bleeding: IVIG and corticosteroids (prednisone)
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25
Q

Mammary Duct Ectasia

A

Clinical Features:
- Unilateral
- Multiple ducts in the SAME breast
- Discharge: Sticky, toothpaste-like green

First Investigation: Mammography

Best Investigations: Ductal lavage (Cytology)

Management: Excisional biopsy

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26
Q

DMSA indications

A
  • Clinical suspicion of renal injury
  • Reduced renal function
  • Suspicion of VUR
  • Suspicion of obstructive uropathy on ultrasound in older toilet-trained children
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27
Q

murmurs that increase in
intensity when the venous return to the heart is
decreased:

A
  1. hypertrophic obstructive
    cardiomyopathy (HOCM)
  2. mitral valve prolapse
  3. venous hum (low-pitched continuous
    murmurs produced by blood returning from
    the great veins to the heart)
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28
Q

Perthes disease management

A
  • refer to surgeon

Surgeon will make call on conservative or surgical
- conservative: brace
- surgical: osteotomy/femoral head fixation, hip replacement worst case

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29
Q

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis features in children

A
  • 2 and 6 weeks of age
  • gastric outlet narrowing
  • projectile vomiting a few minutes after feeding
  • non bloody, non bilious vomiting (may have coffee ground appearance due to repeated vomiting)
  • delayed capillary refill > 2 seconds
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30
Q

Renal scarring in children

A
  • Recurrent urinary tract infections (more than
    2 times during childhood)
  • Dimercaptosuccinic acid scintigraphy (DMSA) - Gold Standard
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31
Q

Breast Lumps

A

Clinical Features: Smooth margins

First Investigation:
1. PE.
2. US (<35yo)
3. Mammography (>35yo)

Best Investigations:
1. FNAC
2. Core Biopsy

Management:
1. Observation.
2. Excision

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32
Q

Paget’s disease differential dx

A
  • Ductal carcinoma in situ
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33
Q

Innocent murmur

A

7S
-soft
- systolic
- short duration
- sounds (S1 &S2)
- symptomless
- Special tests normal (X-ray, ECG)
- Standing/Sitting changes (not fixed) (increased when supine)

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34
Q

Tanner stages

A

I:
- 0–15 years
- None
II:
- 8–15 years
- Commencement of puberty
- Breast budding first
- Pubic hair
- Scrotal/Testicular growth, penis growth after a year
III:
- Increase in hair and pigmentation

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35
Q

Anterior triangle of the neck mass

A

BCC
- Branchial cyst
- Carotid body tumour
- Carotid aneurysm

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36
Q

Down syndrome in children

A
  • short stature
  • microcephaly
  • centrally placed hair whorl
  • small ears
  • redundant skin on the nape of the neck
  • flat nasal bridge
  • Cardiac lesions 30% to 50% (endocardial cushion defect, VSD, tetralogy of Fallot (all 30%)
  • Duodenal atresia
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37
Q

kidney scarring features in children

A
  • one kidney smaller than the other
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38
Q

Fibroadenoma features

A
  • Most common benign breast lump
  • 20-30 years
  • Well defined, round with even surface,
    regular margins, rubbery or soft in
    consistency, freely mobile, non-tender
  • Does not increase the risk of cancer
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39
Q

Müllerian agenesis [incomplete]
Check more on clinical features of female agenesis

A
  • Female gonads do not secrete Müllerian-inhibiting factor (MIF)
  • Male testes secrete MIF
  • empty scrotum
  • testes are impalpable in inguinal canal
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40
Q

Pathological murmurs features

A

Family hx of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease
- in utero exposure to certain medications (lithium) or alcohol
- Maternal diabetes mellitus
- History of rheumatic fever
- History of Kawasaki disease

  • Grade 3/6 or higher murmurs
  • Harsh quality
  • Abnormal S2
  • The presence of a systolic click
  • Increased intensity with decreased venous
    return (e.g., when the patient stands)
  • The patient has any symptoms that could be
    related to a cardiac condition (e.g. shortness
    of breath, chest pain, poor feeding, etc.)
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41
Q

Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)

A
  • acyanotic
  • mid-systolic murmur at the pulmonary area, a split-second heart sound and a loud P2

2 main types:
- Ostium Primum: most dangerous type, can lead to pulmonary hypertension and heart failure, Prophylactic antibiotics recommended
- Ostium Secundum: most common type, e hole is higher in the septum, not serious, symptoms uncommon in infancy

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42
Q

Idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in children features

A
  • preceding viral infection
  • s frequently < 20,000/μL
  • other lab tests normal
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43
Q

septic arthritis in children

A
  • S aureus
  • joint aspiration
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44
Q

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis in children management

A

Initial: Fluid resuscitation
Best: Ramstedts Pyloromyotomy

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45
Q

Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip dx

A

Barlow test —‘telescoping’ movements in the long axis of the flexed and abducted thighs.

Ortolani test — flexed hips are abducted. thighs are the grasped between the thumbs in front and other fingers behind. The child’s knees are flexed and hip flexed to a right
angle. **positive sign makes audible and palpable ‘jerk’ or ‘clunk’ (not a click). **
- Ortolani and Barlow tests but is usually negative after two months
- Ultrasound is excellent especially up to 3-4 months

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46
Q

Fibroadenoma

A

Clinical Features: Mobile, non-tender

First Investigation: US

Best Investigations:
1. FNAC.
2. Core Biopsy

Management: Reassure/Review in 3 months

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47
Q

Most appropriate step in management of postpartum haemorrhage after oxytocin and manual stimulation?

A

Ergometrine (help uterus contract)

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48
Q

slipped capital femoral
epiphysis (SCFE) clinical features

A
  • Overweight adolescent of 10 to15 years
  • bilateral in 20%
  • Limp and irritability of hip on movement
  • Knee pain — referred from the affected hip
  • On flexion of the hip, it rotates externally. Hip
    is often in external rotation on walking.
  • Most movements restricted, especially
    internal rotation.
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49
Q

anal fissure features [incomplete]

A
  • passage of hard stools
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50
Q

Hepatoblastoma clinical features

A

-<5 years
- mass in right upper quadrant
- abdominal distension
- right-sided abdominal pain
- familial adenomatous polyposis high risk
- lost appetite and weight
- vomiting and jaundice (very rare)

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51
Q

Midline of the neck mass

A

TTD
- Thyroid nodule
- Thyroglossal cyst
- Dermoid cyst

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52
Q

infant < 2 years + low-grade fever + abdominal distension + loss of appetite + limb pain + abdominal mass that crosses the midline

A

Neuroblastoma
- originates from adrenal glands

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53
Q

most common congenital heart disease in infants?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) 1 in 100 Australian infants

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54
Q

Weight: 2 standard deviation above/below the 50th percentile

A

Weight: obese/severely underweight

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55
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus. (PDA)

A

-acyanotic
- pansystolic machinery murmur (harsh) at the left sternal border
- wide pulse pressure.
- Definite treatment surgical closure

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56
Q

Weber’s test

A

Normal = lateralizes equally to both ears

CHL= lateralizes to abnormal ear

SNHL= lateralizes to the normal ear

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57
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis in children

A
  • gonorrhoea: fast and aggressive (3 and 7 days after birth)
  • chlamydia: slow and less aggressive (end of 1st week - 1 month after birth)
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58
Q

Most at risk demographic for developing iron deficiency?

A

toddlers (weaning off breast milk)

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59
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

A

4 defects
- blood going from left to right ( acyanotic)
- all have VSD (systolic murmur)
- pulmonary stenosis
- right ventricle hypertrophy
- overriding aorta

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60
Q

anal fissure

A
  • most common cause of painful rectal bleeding in children
  • associated with constipation
  • bright blood on the
    surface of stool, on the nappy or toilet paper
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61
Q

Management of px with breast cancer spread to one area of bone

A
  • Radiotherapy
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62
Q

Colon polyp

A
  • benign hamartomas
  • ages 2 and 8 years, peak at 3 to 4 years
  • mostly painless
    rectal bleeding
    palpable polyp
    on rectal examination >60%
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63
Q

Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

A
  • central cyanotic after 10-12 hours
    Aorta and pulmonary arteries are reversed
  • no murmur as there is no hole
  • prescribe PG e1
  • definite treatment: surgery to correct the transposition
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64
Q

adolescent + fever >38.5C + ↑WBC, ESR, CRP + Acute painful, tender and warm joint + limited movement + refusal to bear weight

A

Septic arthritis

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65
Q

Upper Limb nerve roots

A

Brachial Plexus Roots C5-T1:
“Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer”
* Roots → Trunks → Divisions → Cords → Branches

  • C5: Deltoid (shoulder abduction), biceps (flexion).
  • C6: Biceps reflex, wrist extension.
  • C7: Triceps reflex, wrist flexion, finger extension.
  • C8: Finger flexion, grip strength.
  • T1: Intrinsic hand muscles (fine motor).
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66
Q

C5 nerve root

A

Muscle: Biceps
Reflex: Biceps
Motor action: Shoulder abduction, elbow flexion
Sensory region: Lateral upper arm

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67
Q

C5 nerve root lesion

A
  • Weak shoulder abduction
  • diminished biceps reflex
  • numbness over the lateral upper arm
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68
Q
  • Weak shoulder abduction
  • Diminished biceps reflex
  • Numbness over the lateral upper arm
A

C5 nerve root lesion

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69
Q

C6 nerve root:

A
  • Motor Functions: Wrist extension, elbow flexion.
  • Reflex: Brachioradialis reflex.
  • Sensory Area: Lateral forearm, thumb, index finger.
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70
Q

C6 nerve root lesion

A
  • Weakness in wrist extension
  • diminished brachioradialis reflex
  • numbness over thumb and lateral forearm.
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71
Q
  • Weakness in wrist extension
  • diminished brachioradialis reflex
  • numbness over thumb and lateral forearm.
A

C6 nerve root lesion

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72
Q

C7 Nerve Root

A
  • Motor Functions: Elbow extension, wrist flexion, finger extension.
    • Reflex: Triceps reflex.
    • Sensory Area: Middle finger.
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73
Q

C7 nerve root lesion

A
  • Weakness in elbow extension
  • diminished triceps reflex
  • numbness over the middle finger.
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74
Q
  • Weakness in elbow extension
  • diminished triceps reflex
  • numbness over the middle finger.
A

C7 nerve root lesion

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75
Q

C8 Nerve Root

A
  • Motor Functions: Finger flexion (grip strength).
    • Reflex: None.
    • Sensory Area: Medial forearm, ring and little fingers.
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76
Q

C8 nerve root lesion

A
  • Weakness in finger flexion and grip
  • numbness over medial forearm and little finger.
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77
Q
  • Weakness in finger flexion and grip
  • numbness over medial forearm and little finger.
A

C8 nerve root lesion

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78
Q

T1 Nerve Root

A
  • Motor Functions: Finger abduction/adduction (intrinsic hand muscles).
    • Reflex: None.
    • Sensory Area: Medial upper arm.
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79
Q

T1 nerve root lesion

A
  • Weakness in finger flexion and grip
  • numbness over medial forearm and little finger.
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80
Q
  • Weakness in finger flexion and grip
  • numbness over medial forearm and little finger.
A

T1 nerve root lesion

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81
Q

Median Nerve

A
  • Motor Functions: Wrist flexion, forearm pronation, flexion of thumb, index, and middle fingers; thumb opposition.
  • Sensory Area: Palmar surface of the thumb, index and middle fingers, and half of the ring finger.
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82
Q

Median nerve lesion

A
  • Proximal lesion: “Ape hand” deformity, weak forearm pronation, wrist flexion.
  • Distal lesion: “Hand of benediction” (can’t flex index and middle fingers when making a fist).
  • Sensory: loss of sensation over the thumb, index and middle fingers, and half of the ring finger
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83
Q
  • Proximal lesion: “Ape hand” deformity, weak forearm pronation, wrist flexion.
  • Distal lesion: “Hand of benediction” (can’t flex index and middle fingers when making a fist).
  • Sensory: loss of sensation over the thumb, index and middle fingers, and half of the ring finger
A

Median nerve lesion

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84
Q

Ulnar Nerve

A
  • Motor Functions: Finger abduction/adduction (interossei), flexion of medial fingers, wrist flexion (ulnar deviation).
    • Sensory Area: Medial 1½ fingers (palmar and dorsal).
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85
Q

Ulnar nerve lesion

A
  • Proximal lesion: “Claw hand” (incomplete flexion of medial fingers), weak grip.
  • Distal lesion: Complete claw hand.
  • Sensory loss over medial 1½ fingers.
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86
Q
  • Proximal lesion: Incomplete flexion of medial fingers, weak grip.
  • Distal lesion: Complete flexion of medial fingers, weak grip.
  • Sensory loss over medial 1½ fingers.
A

Ulnar nerve lesion

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87
Q

Axillary Nerve

A
  • Motor Functions: Shoulder abduction (deltoid).
    • Sensory Area: Lateral shoulder.
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88
Q

Axillary nerve lesion

A
  • Weakness in shoulder abduction (15°–90°)
  • numbness over lateral shoulder.
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89
Q
  • Weakness in shoulder abduction (15°–90°)
  • numbness over lateral shoulder.
A

Axillary nerve lesion

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90
Q

Musculocutaneous Nerve

A
  • Motor Functions: Shoulder abduction (deltoid).
    • Sensory Area: Lateral shoulder.
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91
Q

Musculocutaneous Nerve lesion

A
  • Weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination
  • sensory loss over lateral forearm.
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92
Q
  • Weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination
  • sensory loss over lateral forearm.
A

Musculocutaneous Nerve lesion

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93
Q

Anterior Interosseous Nerve

A
  • Motor Functions: Flexion of distal thumb and index finger.
    • Sensory Area: None.
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94
Q

Anterior Interosseous Nerve lesion

A

Weak pinch sign (inability to form “OK” sign).

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95
Q

Weak pinch sign

A

Anterior Interosseous Nerve lesion

96
Q

Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

Median nerve

97
Q

Posterior Interosseous Nerve

A
  • Extends the wrist and fingers (except for the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus).
  • Key muscles: Extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis longus/brevis, abductor pollicis longus.
  • Sensory Area: None (purely motor nerve).
98
Q

Posterior Interosseous Nerve lesion

A
  • Weakness in finger and thumb extension.
  • Wrist extension preserved (extensor carpi radialis longus remains functional).
  • No sensory loss.
  • Common clinical sign: “Finger drop” (inability to extend the MCP joints of the fingers).
99
Q
  • Weakness in finger and thumb extension.
  • Wrist extension preserved (extensor carpi radialis longus remains functional).
  • No sensory loss.
  • Common clinical sign: “Finger drop” (inability to extend the MCP joints of the fingers).
A

Posterior Interosseous Nerve lesion

100
Q

Posterior Interosseous Nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

Deep branch of the radial nerve

101
Q

Lower Limb nerve roots

A
  • L2-S1:
    “I Get Lunch From Some People”
    Iliopsoas → Gluteus medius → Lower limb flexors → Foot dorsiflexors → Sole of foot.
    • L2-L4: Quadriceps (knee extension), hip flexors.
    • L5: Ankle dorsiflexion (tibialis anterior), great toe extension (extensor hallucis longus).
    • S1: Plantar flexion (gastrocnemius), ankle reflex.
102
Q

Fitness to drive Acute MI private

A

at least 2 weeks

103
Q

Fitness to drive Acute MI commercial

A

at least 4 weeks

104
Q

Fitness to drive CABG private

A

at least 4 weeks

105
Q

Fitness to drive CABG commercial

A

at least 12 weeks (3 months)

106
Q

Fitness to drive PCI private

A

at least 2 days

107
Q

Fitness to drive PCI commercial

A

at least 4 weeks

108
Q

Fitness to drive Paroxysmal arrhythmias (supraVT, atrial flutter, idiopathic VT) commercial

A

at least 4 weeks

109
Q

Fitness to drive cardiac arrest private

A

at least 6 months

110
Q

Fitness to drive cardiac arrest commercial

A

at least 6 months

111
Q

Category 2 Colorectal cancer risk

A

Moderate risk
2x-4x higher than average risk
One 1st degree relative < 60 years at dx
OR
One 1st degree relative AND >One 2nd degree diagnosed at any range
OR
Two 1st degree relatives diagnosed at any age

112
Q

Category 1 Colorectal cancer screening

A
  • iFOBT every 2 years after 45 years to 74
  • low-dose (100 mg) aspirin daily should be considered from age 45 to 70
113
Q

Category 2 Colorectal cancer screening

A
  • Colonoscopy every 5 years starting at 10 years younger than the earliest age of diagnosis in 1st degree relative

OR age 50, whichever is earlier, to age 74.

  • CT colonography if clinically indicated
  • Low dose aspirin (100mg)
  • Update history
114
Q

Category 3 Colorectal cancer risk

A

High risk
Two 1st degree relatives AND One 2nd degree relative diagnosed < 50
OR
Two 1st degree relatives + > Two 2nd degree relative diagnosed at ANY age
OR
> Three 1st degree relatives diagnosed at ANY age

115
Q

Category 3 Colorectal cancer screening

A
  • Colonoscopy every 5 years starting at 10 years younger than the earliest age of diagnosis of colorectal cancer in a first-degree relative
    OR
    age 40, whichever is earlier, to age 74.
  • CT colonography if clinically indicated
  • Low dose aspirin (100mg)
  • Update history
116
Q

Category 1 Colorectal cancer risk

A
  • Near average risk if they have no family history of colorectal cancer
  • Above-average risk 1 1st degree relative > 60 years at dx
117
Q

Horner’s syndrome triad

A

Ptosis + Myosis + anhidrosis

118
Q

Ptosis + Myosis + anhidrosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

119
Q

ptosis + mydriasis

A

3rd CN palsy

120
Q

Most common cause 3rd CN palsy

A

Diabetic neuropathy

121
Q

diabetic neuropathy treatment

A

TCA

122
Q

clock drawing test assesses

A

severity of dementia

123
Q

clock drawing test

A

Frontal and Temporo-parietal functioning

124
Q

Permanent commercial driving restriction

A
  1. stable angina
  2. ICD (defibrillator)
125
Q

occupational therapist / ophthalmologist referral to drive

A

persistent hemianopia after stroke

126
Q

medications avoided in patients with rest less leg syndrome

A

– Metoclopramide (dopamine antagonists)
– Droperidol (dopamine antagonists)
– Lithium
– Naloxone (opioid antagonist)
– Antidepressants that increase serotonin levels

127
Q

ataxia + falls + past pointing + positive Romberg’s sign
+ nystagmus

A

Cerebellar stroke

128
Q

restless leg syndrome dx

A

clincal + Iron studies

129
Q

restless leg syndrome treatment

A

Dopamine agonist:
- ropinirole
- levodopa

130
Q

Alzheimer’s vs Fronto-temporal dementia

A
  • behavioural change early in fronto-temporal
131
Q

6th nerve palsy diseases

A
  • diabetes
  • Meningitis
  • multiple sclerosis
  • Wernicke’s encephalopathy
  • nasopharyngeal tumour
132
Q

“raccoon eyes” + blood behind the ears + mastoid ecchymosis (battle)

A

Basilar skull fracture

133
Q

vascular dementia treatment

A
  • prevent strokes
  • control hypertension
134
Q

abrupt onset of right face and hand weakness +
disturbed speech production, + a right homonymous hemianopsia

A

Left middle cerebral artery occlusion

135
Q

fluctuating level of consciousness + trivial force

A

Subdural hematoma

136
Q

head trauma + no loss of consciousness + deteriorating a few hours/days later

A

epidural hematoma

137
Q

Visual hallucinations + Parkinsonism +
+Fluctuation in the mental state

A

Lewy body dementia

138
Q

A headache exacerbated by coughing, sneezing or straining

A

brain tumours and raised intracranial pressure

red flag

139
Q

TIA 1st line treatment

A

Aspirin + dipyridamole

140
Q

Epileptic px planning to conceive + seizure free 2 years

A

Gradually cease anti-epileptic over 6 months

141
Q

vascular dementia memory treatment

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (donepezil)

142
Q

Horner’s syndrome + nystagmus + facial sensory deficit + side of the body sensory deficit

A
  • posterior inferior cerebellar artery infarct (PICA)
  • lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome)
143
Q

contralateral hemiparesis + contralateral homonyms hemianopia + aphasia + sensory neglect

A

middle cerebral artery lesion (MCA)

144
Q

vascular dementia features

A

-Sudden onset of memory decline after a stroke with step-wise deterioration
-Variable cognitive impairment and emotional lability.
-Gait abnormalities.
-Urinary dysfunction.
-Parkinsonian motor features.
-Vascular lesions on MRI/CT.

145
Q

Alzheimer EEG

A

Generalized background slowing

146
Q

Alzheimer’s lobe atrophy

A

frontotemporal lobe atrophy

147
Q

Nerve injury - Clavicular

A

Brachial Plexus - Subclavian artery

148
Q

Nerve injury - anterior GH dislocation

A

N.axillaris

149
Q

Nerve injury - Surgical neck of humerus

A

N.axillaris

150
Q

Nerve injury - Midshaft humerus

A

N.radialis

151
Q

Nerve injury - medial epicondyle

A

N.ulnaris

152
Q

Nerve injury - greater tuberosity of the humerus

A

N.axillaris

153
Q

Nerve injury - Supracondylar humerus

A

Median nerve - brachial artery

154
Q

Nerve injury - Colles

A

N.median

155
Q

Nerve injury - ERB

A

Brachial plexus – high: C5 – C6

156
Q

Nerve injury - Klumpke

A

Brachial plexus – low: C8 – T1

157
Q

Biceps reflex

A

C5/6

158
Q

Supinator -Brachioradialis reflex

A

C5/6

159
Q

Triceps reflex

A

C7

160
Q

Injury Ulnar nerve - at wrist

A

Sensory
* numbness in the little and ring fingers
Motor
* weakness of abduction of his little finger
* weakness of flexion of the terminal
phalanx of his little and ring fingers

161
Q

Myotomes - upper limb

A

C4 = shoulder shrugs
C5 = Shoulder abduction and elbow flexion
C6 = Wrist extension
C7 = Elbow extension and wrist flexion
C8 = Thumb extension and fingers flexion
T1 = Finger abduction

162
Q

Clavicle Fracture

A
  • Fall onto affected shoulder
  • Pat is supporting arm which is in full adduction
163
Q

Clavicle Fracture - Things to look for

A
  • Careful NEUROVASCULAR examination
  • skin integrity to r/o open fracture
  • lung fields to r/o apical lung injury
164
Q

Clavicle Fracture - Classification

A
  • middle third
  • lateral third
  • medial third
165
Q

Clavicle Fracture - Middle third

A
  • 80%
  • Defined by shortening/comminution/angulation

MX
* Broad arm sling to support limb for 2 weeks or untilcomfortable.Regular analgesia as required

166
Q

Clavicle Fracture -Lateral third

A
  • 15%
  • Around and lateral to
    coracoclavicular Ligaments

Mx
* If undisplaced,no reduction required
* If displaced,refer
* Broad arm sling to support limb for 2 weeks or until
comfortable
Regular analgesia as required

167
Q

SIADH in children

A
  • hyponatremia
  • excessive amount of ADH from hypothalamus-pituitary
168
Q

Hyponatremia in children types

A

Dehydration: hypernatremia
Cardiac: Pseudohyponatremia
Addisons:
- Low aldosterone
- Hyperkalaemia
- hypotension

169
Q

SIADH in children symptoms

A
  • mental changes (confusion, memory problems)
  • seizures or worst case, coma
  • nausea and vomiting
  • headache
  • problems with balance
170
Q

SIADH in children causes

A
  • type 2 DM medication:
  • antiepileptic
  • antidepressant
  • surgery under general anaesthesia
  • brain disorders, injury, infections, stroke
  • lung disease (pneumonia, tuberculosis, cancer, chronic infections)
  • cancer of lung, small intestine, brain, leukaemia
171
Q

Hyponatraemic seizures in children

A
  • increasing irritability
  • increasing lethargy, - increasing tonic-clonic generalised
    seizures
  • respond poorly to conventional anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbitone)
  • address hyponatraemia by 3% NaCl solution
172
Q

Hypernatremia in children appearance and initial management

A
  • “doughy” skin
  • Isotonic (normal) saline for an initial bolus
173
Q

Addison’s disease in children

A
  • 21-hydroxylase deficiency
  • Dehydration, hypotension, and shock
  • hyponatraemia with hyperkalaemia
174
Q

List of autosomal dominant diseases

A

D -dystrophy myotonia
O - osteogenisis imperfecta
M - Marfan’s
I - intermittent porphyria
N - Noonan’s
A - achondroplasia, familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
N - neurofibromatosis
T - Tuberous sclerosis

V- Von Willebrand
H - Huntington’s HNPCC
H - hereditary spherocytosis
H- familial hypocholesteraemia
R - retinoblastoma

175
Q

List of autosomal recessive diseases

A

A - albinism
B - thalassaemia
C - cystic fibrosis
D - deafness
E - emphysema
F - Friederich’s ataxia (trinucleotide test, repeat GAA)
G - Gaucher’s disease
H Hemochromatosis, homocystinuria

S - sickle cell
P - phenylketonuria
N - Wilson’s
X - xeroderma pigmentosa

176
Q

List of X-linked recessive diseases

A

D- diabetes insipidus
D - Duchenne’s
C - colour blindness
C - chronic granulomatous disease (membranous type)
F - Fabry’s disease (alpha- glucosidase deficiency)
F - fragile X syndrome (Martin Bell Syndrome)
2 blood - haemophilia. G6PD
2 syndrome Lesch Nylon syndrome, Wiskots Aldrich yndrome

177
Q

Ostoporosis RISK FACTORS

A

 Diet- low in calcium

 Low BMI < 19

 Lack of exercise

 Inadequate exposure to sunlight

 SAD and excessive coffee intake

 Medications: glucocorticoids, anticonvulsants (phenothiazines), GnRh, aromatase inhibitors (Letrozole, Anastrozole, Exemestane), heparin, Depo, thiazolidinedions (glitazones), PPI’s

 Medical conditions: hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, chronic liver or renal disorders, rheumatoid arthritis, coeliac disease

 Menopause

 Family history

178
Q

Ostoporosis First Investigation

A

25 hydroxy Vitamin D

179
Q

Ostoporosis Best Investigation

A

DEXA Scan (Don’t take Ca 24 hours before)

  • T-score:
    > -1: Normal,
  • 0.9 to -2.4: Osteopenia
    < -2.5: Osteoporosis
  • Z score: ≤ -2: Investigation for underlying causes
180
Q

Osteoporosis CRITERIA FOR TREATMENT

A

 Any man or woman with spine or hip fractures after minimal trauma even if the T score is more than -2.5. Treatment may be initiated without confirmation of low bone mineral density.

 No fracture but score < or equal to -2.5 if risk factors are present

 Osteoporosis due to secondary causes

 Treatment with medications has to be started along with Calcium and Vitamin D supplementation
 1200- 1500 mg/day of calcium
 800- 2000 IU/day of Vitamin D

Notes: Medications increase bone density in the hip approximately by 1-3% and in the spine by 4-8% over 3-4 years

181
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment

A
  1. Bisphosphonates
    - Alendronate
    - Risedronate
    - Zoledronic Acid
  2. Denosumab
  3. Strontium ranelate
  4. Raloxifene
  5. MHT
182
Q

Osteoporosis SECOND-LINE Treatment

A

Teriparatide:

  • Is a recombinant parathyroid hormone.
  • Stimulates bone-forming cells.
  • Only if other treatments fail.
  • Given as daily injections subcutaneously for 18 months.

INDICATIONS: > 1 symptomatic new fracture after 12 months of biphosphonate or if T score is ≤-3

183
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: BISPHOSPHONATES Zoledronic Acid

A

Annual infusion for a maximum of 3 years.

Used if patients have Oesophagitis.

Vitamin D levels should be corrected to 50nmol/L before starting the treatment.

184
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: Denosumab

A
  • Monoclonal antibody against osteoclast.
  • Given as 6 monthly injections subcutaneously for 36 months.
  • No gastrointestinal side effects.
  • But increases hypocalcemia.
185
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: Strontium ranelate

A

Given orally 2 grams/day.

Should not be given with calcium supplements.

Reserved for severe osteoporosis because can cause MI

  • Contraindications:
  • DVT
  • Prolonged immobilisation
186
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: Raloxifene

A
  • Selective estrogen receptor modulator
  • Oestrogen-like effect on bone but antagonistic for uterus and breast.
  • Can be considered as second-line treatment for postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at risk of breast cancer.
  • Reduces risk of vertebral fractures.
187
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: MHT

A

In peri or postmenopausal women with osteoporosis associated with other menopausal symptoms

188
Q

OSTEOPENIA CRITERIA FOR TREATMENT

A

T score between -1 and -2.5 without minimal trauma fracture

Treat with calcium and Vitamin D supplementation and lifestyle modifications:
 1200- 1500 mg/day of calcium
 800- 2000 IU/day of Vitamin D

189
Q

Osteoporosis Treatment Follow-up

A

Repeat DEXA in 2 years.

Every year if medication is changed, termination of the treatment or high-risk patient.

190
Q

Osteopenia Follow-up

A

Repeat DEXA every 2 - 5 years

191
Q

Osteoporosis Treatment: BISPHOSPHONATES General Features

A
  • Decrease bone loss and increase mineral density.
  • Measure Vit D and RFT before starting the treatment.
  • Useful for vertebral & non-vertebral fractures.
  • Contraindicated in pregnancy because it’s teratogenic.
  • Side Effects: GI discomfort, oesophagitis, and jaw necrosis
192
Q

Osteoporosis FIRST-LINE Treatment: BISPHOSPHONATES Alendronate & Risedronate

A
  • Alendronate - weekly dose
  • Risedronate - daily/weekly/monthly

For 5 to 10 years in postmenopausal women.

193
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS
Treatment for people with special circumstances: Corticosteroid therapy

A

All people above 50 years on corticosteroid therapy of 7.5 mg/day for at least 3 months with a T score of -1.5 or less have to be given bisphosphonates for the duration of therapy.

  • First-line: Alendronate and risedronate with adjuvant Calcium and Vit D.
  • Second-line: Zoledronic acid.
194
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS
Treatment for people with special circumstances: Renal impairment

A

Raloxifene or Denosumab.

195
Q

Non- cardiac surgery clopidorel

A

Cease 5 days prior

196
Q

Non- cardiac surgery ticagrelor

A

Cease 5 days prior

197
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft aspirin

A

continue through surgery

198
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft clopidogrel

A

Cease 5 days prior

199
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft Prasugrel

A

Cease 5-10 days prior

200
Q

Coronary artery bypass graft ticagrelor

A

Cease 5 days prior

201
Q

Spinal, intercranial, TURP, extraocular, plastic surgery asipirin

A

Cease 7-10 days prior

202
Q

Spinal, intercranial, TURP, extraocular, plastic surgery clopidogrel

A

Cease 5 days prior

203
Q

Spinal, intercranial, TURP, extraocular, plastic surgery prasugrel

A

Cease 5-10 days prior

204
Q

Non- cardiac surgery aspirin

A

Continue through surgery

205
Q

Spinal, intercranial, TURP, extraocular, plastic surgery ticagrelor

A

Cease 5 days prior

206
Q

Px < 3 doses or uncertain clean wound

A

DTPa/ ADT or combo: YES
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

207
Q

Px < 3 doses or uncertain dirty wound

A

DTPa/ ADT or combo: YES
Tetanus immunoglobulin: YES

208
Q

Px > 3 doses > 10 years dirty wound

A

DTPa/ ADT or combo: YES
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

209
Q

Px > 3 doses >10 years clean wound

A

DTPa/ADT: YES
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

210
Q

Px > 3 doses 5-10 years dirty wound

A

DTPa/ADT or combo: YES
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

211
Q

Px > 3 doses 5-10 years clean wound

A

DTPa/ADT or combo: No
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

212
Q

px immunised > 3 doses < 5 years dirty wound

A

DTPa/ADT or combo: No
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

213
Q

px immunised > 3 doses < 5 years clean wound

A

DTPa, ADT or combo: No
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No

214
Q

septic arthritis management

A
  • IV antibiotics (flucloxacillin) for 2 weeks
  • Oral antibiotics after 6 weeks
215
Q

hip joint degeneration affected movement

A

Internal rotation

216
Q

injuries warranting knee X-ray in children

A

– Isolated patellar tenderness.
– Tenderness at the head of the fibula.
– Inability to flex at 90 degrees.
– Inability to bear weight immediately after trauma and in an emergency

217
Q

‘twinge’ or sudden pain + Medial Joint line tenderness + able to continue activity with some discomfort

A

Medial meniscus tear

218
Q

Medial meniscus tear investigation

A
  • barefooted with the knee flexed to 20 degrees and rotates the body
    and knee three times internally and externally (Thessaly test) most useful
    Flexion/rotation test (McMurray test) for screening
219
Q

volleyball and baseball injury + flexion deformity + inability to actively extend finger

A

Mallet finger

220
Q

posterolateral buttock + posterior thigh + lateral leg +

A

L5 radiculopathy

221
Q

posterolateral buttock + posterior thigh + lateral leg posterior calf + lateral foot + diminished Ankle jerk

A

L5-S1 radiculopathy

222
Q

shooting radiating pain through the posterior thigh and posterior leg to little toe + anterior + posterior motor symptoms

A

Sciatica

223
Q

pain radiates through posterior buttock + posterior calf +
lateral foot + diminished Ankle jerk

A

S1 radiculopathy

224
Q

pain radiating to the hip + anterior thigh + medial aspect of knee + calf + diminished knee jerk

A

L4 radiculopathy

225
Q

Overweight adolescent + limping + hip stiffness + hip pain radiating to antero-medial thigh and knee

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

226
Q

sudden onset of severe calf pain + limping + absent plantar reflex

A

Achilles tendon rupture

227
Q

Achilles tendon rupture investigation

A

Thompson Test
- absent plantar reflex

228
Q

prominent acromion + loss of deltoid contour + slightly abducted and externally rotated

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

229
Q

severe burning pain between the third and fourth toe + gets better walking barefoot + gets worse on weight bearing + localised tenderness

A

Morton Neuroma

230
Q

anterior shoulder dislocation nerve injury

A

Axillary nerve

231
Q

Mallet finger management

A

Maintain hyper-extension of the distal interphalangeal joint for 6-8 weeks

232
Q

Paget’s most common location

A

Pelvis 70%

233
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis management

A

Percutaneous pin fixation

234
Q

bilateral leg pain + worse on erect posture + responds to exercise

A

Spinal stenosis

235
Q

Paget’s disease features

A

-Elevated alkaline phosphatase (early finding)
- bone pain (most common symptom)

236
Q

bone pain + tibia bowing + enlarged skull with frontal bossing

A

Paget’s disease