Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 6 > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of significant bleeding: grade 2

A

Haematemesis, malaena, prolonged epistaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Examples of severe bleeding: grades 3,4

A

CNS, airway, abdo, intraarticular, intramuscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Platelet threshold for transfusion in grade 2 bleed

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Platelet threshold for transfusion in grade 3, 4 bleed

A

<100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When do you tranfuse most patients who are thrombocytopaenic before surgery?

A

> 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do you tranfuse patients at high risk of bleeding who are thrombocytopaenic before surgery?

A

50-75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do you tranfuse patients who are thrombocytopaenic before surgery at a critical site?

A

> 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is fresh frozen plasma indicated and whats the universal donor?

A

Abnormal PT or APTT

AB blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is cryoprecipitate indicated?

A

Low fibrinogen (<1.5) e.g. DIC and liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Primary thromboprophylaxis: low-dose aspirin
Secondary thromboprophylaxis: warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Platelets, fibrinogen, PT, and APTT in DIC

A

Low platelets and fibrinogen
High PT and APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DIC treatment

A

Platelet transfusion if platelets below 20
FFP if fibrinogen is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Specific test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Positive DAT (Coombs’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What usually causes haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin-producing E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What blood changes seen HUS?

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HUS management

A

Supportive e.g. fluids, blood transfusion
No antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abnormal blood test in haemophilia, and factors affected in A and B?

A

Prolonged APTT
A - factor 8
B - factor 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ITP laboratory findings

A

Isolated thrombocytopaenia with normal coagulation

19
Q

ITP management

A

1) Oral predinsolone
2) IVIG

20
Q

Leukaemia with testicular and thymic enlargement

A

ALL

21
Q

Genetic syndrome associated with acute leukaemia

A

Down’s

22
Q

Auer rods leukaemia

A

AML

23
Q

Most common leukaemia in the west

A

CLL

24
Q

Leukaemia mostly diagnosed on routine bloods, with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy?

A

CLL

25
Q

Leukaemia with Philadelphia chromosome

A

CML

26
Q

Richter’s transformation

A

CLL to large cell lymphoma

27
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma associated sex and virus

A

Males
EBV

28
Q

Most common lymphoma

A

Non-Hodgkin’s

29
Q

Treatment for B cell and T cell lymphoma

A

B - Rituximab
T - Alemtuzumab

30
Q

Multiple myeloma diagnosis

A

Narrow gamma band in serum electrophoresis
Bence-Jones protein in urine

31
Q

What does FBC, U&Es and bone profile show for multiple myeloma?

A

Anaemia
Renal failure (high creatinine)
Hypercalcaemia

32
Q

How does myelodysplasia present on FBC and what cancer can it progress to?

A

Anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia

AML

33
Q

Patient has pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombosis, and low ESR. What is the mutation seen in 95% of patients?

A

JAK2

(polycythaemia vera)

34
Q

Polycythaemia vera management

A

Aspirin
Venesection
Hydroxyurea

35
Q

Young patient has failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly, microcytic anaemia, HbA2 and HbF raised. Condition?

A

Beta-thalassaemia major

36
Q

What causes TTP?

A

Deficiency of ADAMTS13
Can’t break down long strands of vWF (platelets clumping)
RBCs are cute up

37
Q

TTP blood change apart from thrombocytopaenia

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

38
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

vWD

39
Q

vWD bloods

A

Prolonged bleeding time
APTT may be prolonged
Factor 8 reduced

40
Q

vWD management

A

Tranexamic acid
Desmopressin (raises vWF)
Factor 8 concentrate

41
Q

Which sickle cell crisis is associated with a reduced reticulocyte count?

A

Aplastic crisis

42
Q

Which sickle cell crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?

A

Sequestraiton crisis

43
Q

When is an exchange transfusion indicated in sickle cell crisis?

A

Acute vaso-occlusive e.g. stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, splenic sequestration crisis

44
Q

What analgesia is required for sickle cell crisis?

A

IV opiates

Year 6 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions