Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Which anticoagulant is teratogenic

A

Warfarin
- especially if taken week 6-12 pregnancy

Heparin doesnt cross the placenta
Aspirin in high doses can cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Thalassemia

A

imbalance between alpha and beta globin chain production ie problem with quantity of globin
alpha - less alpha globin (normal= 4 genes); beta - less beta globin (normal = 2 genes)
Alpha characterised by increased Hb Barts (tetramer of gamma Hb)
Beta characterised by elevated A2 (alpha + delta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alpha thalassemia

A

1-4 gene deletions
1 gene deletion: clinically silent
2 gene deletion: normal or mild anemia
Moderate Barts (5-10%)
2 gene deletion + constant spring: mod -severe anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

B0 thalassemia

A

No beta globin produced by that allele
If homozygous= no beta chains at all
unable to make HbA (only HbF/HbA2)–> severe anemia, transfusion dependant, haemochromatosis –> death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

B+ thalassemia

A

B+/B+
B+= Reduced amount of normal beta globin
Moderate anemia, may be transfusion dependant
Less severe than B0
Produce up to 50% HbF, >4% HbA2, HbA ~50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Beta thalassemia major

A

B0/B0, B0/B+, B+/B+ or compound heterozygote with HbE
progressive haemolytic anemia from ~6 months (when HbA is supposed to predominate), transfusion dependant from early age (<2 years)
clinical/phenotypical diagnosis
A globin tetramers form and appear as red cell inclusions; very unstable, reduce red cell survival –> anemia, increased (but ineffective) erythropoesis with early erythroid precursos death in BM (inappropriately low reticulocyte count) + compensatory massive BM expansion with thalassemic facies + maxilla hyperpasia/frontal bossing/HSM

HbF (alpha + gamma) >90%,HbA2 (alpha + delta) >5% no or very little HbA
Can be diagnosed at birth as no /very little HbA (only HbF)- normally 20% HbA at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

beta thalassemia intermedia

A

less severe phenotype
Mod anemia but not transfusion dependant in childhood; may only be transfusion dependant during infection/pregnancy
usually B+/B+ or B0/B+
HbF up to ~60%, HbA up to ~40%, HbA2 >4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

B thal minor

A

AKA beta thal trait
Carrier
Mutation in only one beta globin gene
- either B+/B or B0/B
- only need one notmal gene to produce enough beta globin
Asymptomatic or mild microcytosis +/- anemia
Slightly elevated HbA2 3-7% HbF 1-3%, HbA >90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alpha 0 mutation

A

no alpha chains produced from that gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alpha + mutation

A

reduced alpha chains produced from that gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

major difference between sickle cell anemia and thalassemia

A

sickle cell- quality of globin produced
thalassemia - quantity of globin produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Bart haemaglobin

A

Tetramer of gamma chains
Occurs in alpha thalassemia due to excess gamma chains when alpha chains cant be produced to form normal fetal haemaglobin

After birth this becomes HbH (tetramer of beta globins) when gamma chains stop being produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is HbH?

A

Tetramer of beta globins
Due to no alpha chains in alpha thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications of thalassemia

A

Anemia - can lead to high output heart failure, FTT
Skeletal abnormalities from BM enlargement
Iron overload from transfusions- toxicity in various organs, hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, insulin resistance growth impairment
Complications of hemolysis: jaundice, pigment gallstones
Hepatosplenomegaly (extramedullary hematopeisis in liver and spleen, hepatic iron deposition, hemolysis)
Hypersplenism –> pancytopenia
Liver fibrosis and cirrhosis
Venous thrombosis
Osteopenia/osteoporosis /bone pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HbH disease

A

3 alpha chains affected
usually have symptomatic anemia at birth
May have pigment gallstones
HbH up to 30%, HbA2 up to 4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Newborn screening for haemaglobinopathies

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal adult and neonate haemaglobin studies

A

Adult: HbA 96-98%, HbA2 2-3%, HbF <1%

Neonate: HbF 80%, HbA 20%, HbA2 0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Haemaglobin studies in beta thal trait

A

Elevated HbA2 >3.5%, HbF 1-4% (ie both slightly eleveated compared to normal) HbA 92-95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Haemaglobin studies in beta thal major

A

Very low or no HbA, only HbF (95-98%), HbA2 (2-5%
this is detectable from birth (should have 20% HbA at birth >36 weeks)
*consider b thalassemia intermedia or major in a bub with <5% HbA (if born >36 weeks)
The absence of HbA (even at birth) is pathomenmonic for beta thal major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hb Barts in newborns haemaglobin studies

A

In all newborns with α-thalassaemia the non functional abnormal fraction Hb Bart’s will always be detected. To some extent, the amount of Hb Bart’s correlates with the number of defective α-globin genes. A simple mild condition with a single gene defect (-α/αα) will present with very little Hb Bart’s (1-4%), while in samples with two defective α-genes, either in cis (–/αα) or in trans (-α/-α), the Hb Bart’s will rise to 5-15%, reaching 25% and higher in HbH disease with 3 defective α-genes (–/-α) (13-15).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can a B thalassemia carrier be detected at birth?

A

Only intermedia or major can be detected by measuring HbA levels
HbA2 is not significantly expressed until 1 year of age to be used as a diagnostic parameter
Carriers would have HbA««20% but there is wide variation of “normal” so not really able to diagnose until later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

haemaglobin studies in beta thal intermedia

A

HbA 10-30%
HbF 70-90%
HbA2 2-5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

co inheritance of alpha trait with homozygous beta thal major leads to…

A

reduction in alpha globin synthesis reduces burden of alpha globin inclusions so improves the phenotype
can change tranfusion dependant thal major to non transfusio dependant thal intermedia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what infections are increased in thalassemia major

A

Yersinia enterocolitica - iron loving, iron chelation makes it even more available
Listeria
Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how do you reduce the risk of iron overload in transfusion dependant thalassemia

A

Chelation with desferrioamine (subcut/IV)- ototoxicity, retinal changes, cataracts, GI side effects, yersinia infections)
Desferasirx - oral tds (a/e- GI, renal)
Deferiprone - oral tds (A/e- agranulocytosis, deranged LFTs, arthralgia, arthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Differentiating iron deficiency from thalassemia minor

A

iron def - low retics, low RBC count, low ferritin
thalassemia - normal or slightly increased retics, high RBC
Iron studies in thalassemia- elevated ferritin and transferrin saturation (even without transfusion )
Low ferritin is only seen in thalassemia if there is a concomitant iron deficiency
Film in thalassemia: nucleated RBC, target cells, anisopoikolocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does iron def interfere with the diagnosis of beta thal minor

A

reduces the amount of HbA2 which is the main diagnostic feature in beta thal minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Haemaglobin constant spring

A

The most common non-deletional alpha globin variant is hemoglobin Constant Spring.

In contrast to beta thalassemias, in which beta+ variants tend to be less severe, some alpha+ alleles such as Hb Constant Spring can actually aggravate severity. This is because the common alpha+ alleles encode alpha chains that, when combined with beta chains, create highly unstable hemoglobins that precipitate, adding to the burden of inclusion bodies in the developing and circulating RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

1 alpha globin deletion leads to ..

A

silent carrier
maybe microcytosis

can only be detected on genetic analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2 gene deletion /mutation in apha globin gene leads to..

A

alpha thalassemia trait
microcytosis +/- silent carrier

Slightly elevated Hb barts in newborn period; otherwise electrophoresis is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 gene alpha globin mutation leads to

A

HbH disease
can be deletional or non deletional (more severe- constant spring)
Moderate haemolytic/microcytic anemia

Electrophoresis: Elevated HbH (up to 30%), elevated HbA2 ~4%

HbH has virtually no oxygen transport capacity and is insoluable, so precipitates out of RBC leading to haemolytic anemia

2 alpha deletions + constant spring mutation (compound heterozygote) leads to a more severe anemia with more frequent hemolytic events and earlier mean age at first transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 gene deletion of alpha globin leads to

A

severe hemolytic anemia in utero–> hydrops fetalis
Only Hb is Hb barts (tetramer of gamma chains)
only survive with exchange transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when do you see Hb Barts

A

elevated in all newborns with alpha thalassemia mutations (carriers/trait/HbH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you diagnose alpha thalassemia

A

alpha trait/minor- only by DNA testing
Electropheresis can show Hb Barts or HbH in a neonate with alpha thal
Hb Barts of 20-40% within 2 days of birth is a hallmark of HbH disease in newborn
Low levels of Hb Barts (3-8%) or no Hb Barts is diagnostic of alpha thal minor

If above findings are present, need to do gene analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

AR
Bone marrow failure
Increased chromosomal breakage, poor DNA repair
Pancytopenia
Skin- hyperpigmentation, cafe au lait
Short stature
Thumb/radia abnormalities
Genital problems
(ddx diamond blackfan anemia- usually red cell aplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dyskeratosis congenita

A

bone marrow failure syndrome
short telomeres (defect in telomere maintenance)
diagnosed by telemere length analysis
Triad: lacy skin pigmentation, dystrophic nails, oral leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Schwachman -Diamond syndrome

A

Bone marrow failure syndrome
Triad: exocrine pancreatic insufficinecy, neutropenia, metaphyseal dyspasia
Risk increased with monosomy 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

heinz bodies are seen in

A

G6PD deficinecy - oxidative stress leading to denatured haemaglobin

Alpha thalassemia (excess of beta chains precipitating as HbH)

Hyposplenism eg sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

haemolytic uremic syndrome presentation

A

triad of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia, thrombocytopaenia and acute kidney injury with concurrent gastroenteritis is suggestive of shiga-toxin producing E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MoA hydroxyurea

A

Increased HbF production
shift in gene expression at the beta globin gene locus, leading to a relative increase in gamma globin gene expression and hence increases production of HbF (2 alpha and 2 gamma chains) with relative reduction in HbS. Reduction in HbS leads to increased RBC lifespan, reduced haemolysis and reduced microvascular adhesion, improving microcirculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Evans syndrome

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

HbSC

A

clinically significant sickle cell variant syndrome. It is less severe than sickle cell disease, and more severe than sickle cell trait. Patients will HbSC are at the same risk of life threatening crises as (painful episides, strokes), lower risk bacterial infection, patients with HbSS but these occur less frequently with milder clinical severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

homozygous Hb SS (both beta globin alleles have the sickle cell mutation.)
Hb S 85-95% of total Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

sickle cell disease

A

either sickle cell anemia (homozygote) or compound heterozygote with beta thal or Hb C/D/E
>50% HbS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hb studies in HbSS

A

HbA = 0
HbF 5-15%
HbS 85-95%
HbA2 <3.5%

Neonate: FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hb studies in sickle B0 thal

A

HbA= 0
HbF 2-15%
HbS80-90%
HbA2 >3.5 (rememeber beta thal has elevated HbA2!)

Neonate: FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hb studies in sickle B+ thal

A

HbA 3-30%
HbF 2-10%
HbS 60-90%
HbA2 >3.5 %

Neonates: FS or FSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hb studies in HbSC

A

HbA = 0
Hb F 1-5%
HbS 45-50%
HbC 45-50%
HbA2 <3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the most common cause death in sickle cell disease

A

infection
Almost all patients become functionally asplenic by age 5 years and are at risk for severe infection and sepsis (particularly by encapsulated organisms).
Low threshold for antibiotics if any hint infection
Penicillin prophylaxis at diagnosis/by 2 months of age until at least 5 years

* All sickle cell patients should be treated as if they are functionally asplenic and at risk from invasive disease with encapsulated organisms 
* If pain is also present treat concurrently as VOC 
* If cough or dyspnoea also present look and treat for acute chest syndrome (see below) 
* Commence antibiotics without delay if febrile or toxic:  o Cefotaxime IV 50mg/kg (max 2g/dose) every 6 hours OR Ceftriaxone IV 100mg/kg (max 4g/day) once daily.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

acute chest syndrome

A
  • Acute Chest Syndrome (ACS) is defined as a new pulmonary infiltrate on CXR AND any one of :
    o fever
    o tachypnoea
    o cough
    o hypoxia(O2Sats<96%)
    o increased work of breathing
    o chest pain
    due to infarction of lung tissue.
    DDx pneumonia so treat with IV abx as well

Rx: O2
IV abx
analgesia
Trial inhaled bronchodilators +/- steroids
Small volume blood transfuson (aim Hb <100 post transfusion (above this risks hyperviscosity)
If severe: exchange transfusion

51
Q

Acute splenic sequestration

A

Defined as a Hb drop of at least 20g/L below baseline in a patient with an acutely enlarged spleen
Abdo pain, acutely enlarged spleen, anemia, thrombocytopenia, low retics
Rx: PRBC transfusion (but not above usual baseline, risk hyperviscosity). IVF while waiting for blood if haemodynamically unstable
Treat with IV abx as often triggered by bacterial or viral infections
Consider prophylactic splenectomy if repeated episodes

Only give enough blood to prevent haemodynamic instabiliy eg 5ml/kg
risk autotransfusion - where blood sequestered in spleen is released and dramatically increases the Hb concentration, putting patient at risk for hyperviscosity syndrome

52
Q

Sickle cell anemia treatment

A

Hydroxyurea (increases HbF production)
Prophylactic penicillin
PRBC for anemia, complicated VOC episide,s aplstic crisis (eg w infection), ACS, splenic sequestration
Extra immunisations as functionally asplenic
HSCT curative

53
Q

What surveillance is required in sickle cell disease

A
  1. complications of many blood transfusions: monitor ferritin for iron overload, trasnmitted infections, anual audiogram/LFTs/pituitary function if chelation used
  2. Transcranial doppler USS for stroke prevention, annually ages 2-16 years
  3. Asthma screening- increased risk
  4. Retinopathy- annual screening from age 10
  5. Renal - annual urinalysis from age 10
  6. Echo- screening for pulmunary artery HTN
54
Q

Haemophilia A and B overview

A

Factor 8 and factor 9 deficiency
A much more common than haemophilia B
X linked
1/3 of female carriers will have reduced F8/9 levels due to skewed X inactivaion; if levels <40% should be managed as per male counterparts with hemophilia. if turners- present as males
Clinically indistinguishable
Bleed for longer, due to longer time to develop clot, and this clot is soft and friable, increased risk of rebleeding

Severe: <1% activity –> spont bleeding
moderate : 1-5% activity, mild trauma can induce bleeding
mild: >5% activity, need significant trauma to induce bleeding

55
Q

common precipitants for vaso occlusive crisis

A

physical stress
infection
cold
dehydration
hypoxia
acidosis
swimming for prolonged periods (stress + cold)

56
Q

hydroxyurea adverse effects

A

gastritis, mucositis skin ulceration
pneumonitis
myelosupression
secondary leukemia

**specific for S phase in cell cycle

57
Q

Coagulation studies in haemophilia

A

Prolonged APTT
Normal PT/INR
Normalisation of APTT with mixing studies (unless inhbitor is present)

58
Q

Treatment hemophilia

A

Factor replacement (usually recombinant)
On demand (if mild) vs prophylactic (if mod-severe)
Factor first principle on presentation to ED
Mild hemophilia A - DDAVP
TXA as adjunct for mucosal bleeding

59
Q

Hemophilia prophylaxis

A

Extended half life F8or F9
Emicizumab (Hemlibra) for hemophilia A

Hemlibra is a subcut injection 2-4 weekly
- monoclonal antibody (not immunogenic), Factor 8 mimic (ie mimics function of F8, brings together 9a and 10, substituting role of factor 8a
- still need F8 or rF7a if inhibitor present, for acute bleeding episodes, but Hemlibra turns severe HA into mild phenotype

60
Q

Inhibitors in hemophilia

A

Factor 8 and 9 are immunogenic who have absent or mutated F8 and 9
Development of allo-antibodies increases with increased severity of hemophilia phenotype (20-30% in severe HA, 10% in mild HA, 3-5% in HB)
**severity is the biggest risk factor for development of inhibitors **

High level inhibitors render factor therapy ineffective
therefore bypassing agents (recombinant activated factor 7) are required to manage bleeding

Low level inhibitors can be overcome by using a higher dose of factor

61
Q

Acute management of bleeding in haemophilia

A

Aim replacement of factor
Mild - modL aim 35-50%
severe- aim 100 %

calculations
dose rF8= % desired rise x bodyweight in kg x 0.5
dose rF9= % desired rise x bodyweight in kg x 1.4

62
Q

Treatment choice in haemophilia A

A

 Prophylactic recombinant factor VIII infusions (usually 2-3 times per week) or Emicuzumab (Hemlibra) 204 weekly
 Recombinant factor VIII pre op or post injury/bleeding
 DDAVP in mild disease - this raises the patient’s own factor VIII levels
 Tranexamic acid can be given with DDAVP for mucosal bleeding

63
Q

Causes prolonged PT

A

Isolated PT prolongation:
Deficiency in F7 ,
Liver disease
Vit K deficiency (mild)
Vit K antagonist eg warfarin
DIC

Prolonged PT and APTT
Deficiency in F10, F5, F2, F1
Liver disease
DIC
Severe vit K deficiency
Warfarin

64
Q

Causes prolonged APTT

A

Deficiency in F8, 9, 11, 12
vW disease
heparin
lupus anticoagulant

65
Q

To which protein does heparin bind?

A

anti thrombin 3
which regulates thrombin (F2) and FXa
—> increases its anticoagulant effect, enhances the rates at which antithrombin III inactivates activated clotting factors,

65
Q

To which protein does heparin bind?

A

anti thrombin 3
which regulates thrombin (F2) and FXa
—> increases its anticoagulant effect

66
Q

Thrombin actions

A

Activates F5 and F8
Activates plateets and promotes platelet aggregation
Activates FI to Fia (fibrinogen to fibrin)
Activates F13 to F13 a (stabilising factor)

67
Q

what factors prevent platelets from adhering to normal tissue

A

nitric oxide
prostacyclin

Also makes activated platelets produce less Thromboxane A2

68
Q

Role thromboxane A2

A
  1. Platelet activator
    Causes platelets to produce GPIIB/IIIA on their cell membranes, which allows platelets to bind to fibrinogen
  2. Vasoconstricter
69
Q

What is the role of GP1a

A

expressed on cell membrane of platelets
Allows them to bind vWF (bound to collagen) - thus allows platelets to bind to collagen

70
Q

Thrombin time

A

Thrombin time (TT) measures the final step of coagulation, the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
The thrombin time is prolonged if fibrinogen levels are low or if an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin (eg heparin) is present in the sample.

71
Q

what do increased fibrin degredation products imply

A

DIC

72
Q

reptilase time is normal with..

A

heparin

heparin gives prolonged APTT, TT but normal repilase time

73
Q

HbE

A
  • reduced expression of beta globin (therefore clinically functions as a beta thalassemia phenotype)

HbE-beta 0 thal is a moderate-severe thalasemia which can be transfusion dependant

74
Q

low fibrinogen is seen in .

A

liver disease
DIC

75
Q

Echis time is normal in which conditions

A

Vitamin K deficiency
Warfarin

Prolonged in liver disease

76
Q

what is the average lifespan of platelets

A

10 days

77
Q

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

A

hereditary platelet disorder
AR
platelets cant aggregate, despite intact signalling
Due to loss/dysfunction of GPIIb/IIIa
Leads to severe bleeding starting in neonatal period
Normal platelet number and size
Carriers are asymptomatic
Similar presentation to type 3 vWD
Think of this with history of neonate wth ooze around umbi/petechiae/purpurae/gingival bleeding

78
Q

Bernard Soulier syndrome

A

AR
Thrombocytopenia with giant platelets
Moderate-severe beeding
Defects in GP1b (cant bind to VWF) –> cant form primary platelet plug
Thrombocytopenia due to reduced survival
Platelet aggregation tests show absent ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation,
but normal aggregation to all other agonists.

79
Q

MYH9 platelet disorders

A

AD
Large platelets
Thrombocytopenia
Platelet dysfunction
Bleeding phenotype is mild
mutation in MYH9 gene
Associated with cataracts, SN hearing loss, glomerulonephritis

think Alport phenotype but in females, and large platelets

80
Q

X linked thrombocytopenia

A

XLR (like WAS)
Mod to severe thrombocytopenia with small platelets
Mutations in WAS gene
May have very mild immune deficinecy
Splenectomy can improve platelet count

81
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)

A

Diagnosis of exclusion
Otherwise normal FBE and normal exam (no organomegaly, no bone pain, no constitutional symptoms, no lymphadenopathy)
Usually follows viral illness
if >12 mo= chronic
Rx:
Dont really need to treat unless bleeding as severe haemorrhage is rate
Treat if GI bleeding/hematuria etc
prednisolone
IVIG if need to raise platelets fast
Chronic ITP: rituximab, splenectomy if failure of medical management >12 mo or life threatening bleeding

82
Q

what effect do carbomazepine and phenytoin have on neonatal bleeding risk

A

increased risk of vitamin K deficient bleeding

83
Q

what blood type combination reduces the risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Rhesus negative mum with rhesus positive baby AND ABO incompatibility (mum O and baby A or B)

84
Q

Grey platelet syndrome

A

AR
Absense of alpha granules in platelets
thrombocytopenia + bruising tendancy

85
Q

Chedak Higashi syndrome

A

primary immunodeficiency with defective phagolysosome formation
Albinism
Bleeding tendancy
Peripheral neuropathy

Differentiate from Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (also have oculocutanous albinism) by giant neutrophil intracytoplasmic granules on blood smear

86
Q

tried in HUS

A

microangiopathic anemia
thrombocytopenia
acute kidney injury

87
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

strep pneumoniae
h. influenze
klebsiella kingae
pseudomonas auruginosa
E.coli
salmonella

88
Q

what cancer is CAR T cell therapy used for

A

ALL

89
Q

hereditory spherocytosis

A

haemolytic anemia (DAT neg), usually low MCV
increased retics
may have jaundice, splenomegaly, aplastic anemia with parvo b10
Ix: EMA binding low , increased osmotic fragility testing

90
Q

warm autoimmune haemolytic anemia

A

most common form of AIHA in kids
IgG brings to red cells at 37C leading to extravascular hemolysis (spleen) –> anemia, jaundice +/- splenomegaly
DAT pos IgG at 37C

Caused by:
Primary (idiopathic)
Autoimmune/autoinflammatory disorders (SLE, Sjogren, AIA, T1DM, thyroiditis)
Evans syndrome
Primary immunodeficinecy
HIV
Malignancy
Post transpant
Post infection (less common, usually cold)

Rx; steroids

91
Q

autoimmune haemolytic anemia

A

a collection of disorders characterized by the presence of autoantibodies that bind to the patient’s own erythrocytes, leading to premature red cell destruction (hemolysis) and, when the rate of hemolysis exceeds the ability of the bone marrow to replace the destroyed red cells, to anemia

92
Q

Cold agglutinin disease

A

Cold heamolytic anemia
must less common than warm AIHA
IgM autoantibodies bind to antigens on RBC at colder temperatures and fix complement –> complement mediated intravascular hemolysis or immune mediated extravascular clearance by macrophages
Intravascular haemolysis —> hemaglobinuria
Ix: DAT pos for C3, neg for IgG
Clumped RBC on film

Usually secondary to infection - EBV or mycoplasmia pneumoniae

Rx: avoid cold

93
Q

paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

A

AIHA
usually after viral illness
IgG autoantibodies target P antigen on RBC
intravascular hemolysis w hemaglobinuria, and anemia

Ix: DAT pos for IgG and C3 at 4C, pos for C3 only at 37C

94
Q

Heparin MoA

A

a naturally occurring anticoagulant released from mast cells.
It binds reversibly to antithrombin III and greatly accelerates the rate at which ATIII inactivates coagulation enzymes thrombin (factor IIa) and factor Xa.

By inactivating thrombin, heparin not only prevents fibrin formation but also inhibits thrombin-induced activation of platelets and of factors V and VIII.

95
Q

Antithrombin 3

A

Antithrombin III inhibits clotting factors IIa (thrombin), Xa, and to a lesser extent IXa and XIIa. UFH and LMWH bind to antithrombin III via a pentasaccharide group, inducing a conformational change which enhances antithrombin-mediated inhibition of these clotting factors

96
Q

Which conditions lead to falsely high or falsely low HbA1c

A

Anything that shortens the lifespan of RBC will
cause incorrectly low HbA1c- eg thalassemia, sickle cell anemia,
hereditory spherocytosis

Vit B12 deficiency and iron deficiency will make them falsely elevated

97
Q

heparin induced thrombocytopenia associated with

A

platelet factor 4 complex

98
Q

what sedation is contraindicated in B12 deficiency and why

A

nitric oxide
risk of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord

NO inactivates B12 and inhibits methionine synthetase -> disrupts methylation and DNA synthesis

99
Q

blood film findings in autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Macrocytic anemia w reticulocytosis
Rouleaux + agglutination

100
Q

what cleaves fibrin

A

plasmin breaks down fibrin mesh

101
Q

what activates factor 7

A

tissue factor

102
Q

reprilase time is prolonged with

A

low fibrinogen

reptilase time can be used to differentiate cause of prolonged thrombin time
if reptilase time is normal: heparin present
if reptilase time prolonged: low fibrinogen causing prolonged TT

103
Q

von willebrand disease

A

· Type 1:
· AD
· Partial quantitative deficiency of von Willebrandfactor
· Low VWF levels and activity
· F8 mildly low
· Ristocetin normal

· Type 2: 
· AD
· Qualitative defects invonWillebrand factor
· 2A is the most common variant
· Type 2A: the activity is proportionally much less than the VWF level, the factor 8 is not markedly low, the ristocetin is decreased, and you see less multimers specifically on electrophoresis.
· Type 2B: same, the activity is proportionally much less than the VWF level, the factor 8 is not markedly low, the ristocetin is increased, you get low Plt and may also see less large multimers but less than in Type 2A. - basically because it binds too well to plts and gets cleared more. If you have low Plts, really think of type 2b.
· Type 2M: get same features as type 2a, but all multimers uniformly decreased, not just large ones, plts fine. Due to abnormal binding of the VW factor to platelet glycoprotein. Also low risto as for type 2a.
· Type 2N: the VWF doesn't bind well to factor 8 and cant protect it, here its activity at Plt aggregation etc are fine so activity, and antigen are normal, risto is normal, but have low Factor 8 and abnormal APTT.

· Type 3: 
· AR 
· Complete quantitative defect- VWF levels are not detectable severe bleeding 
· Almost absent F8 (rapid breakdown)
· Low ristocetin
104
Q

which factors are found in cryoprecipitate

A

Factor 8
Factor 13
Fibrinogen
VWF

105
Q

HUS

A

Present with fever, diarrhoea (bloody), bruising, hematuria.
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia.
Schistocytes on blood smear
The Coombs test is negative, consistent with mechanical hemolysis.
Elevated retics

Chem20: elevated creatinine consistent with acute kidney injury.
It also shows signs of acute hemolysis with elevated indirect bilirubin and elevated lactate dehydrogenase.
As the disease progresses, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may develop as the patient enters into renal failure.
Urinalysis reveals hematuria and proteinuria.

Rx: Supportive
Admission +/- PICU
Fluids, PRBC, dialysis
Avoid antibiotics as this can worsen toxin production

106
Q

HbSC

A

a clinically significant sickle cell variant syndrome. It is less severe than sickle cell disease, and more severe than sickle cell trait. Patients will HbSC are at the same risk of life threatening crises and patients with HbSS but these occur less frequently with milder clinical severity.

107
Q

Hb C

A

Homozygosity for Hb C (Hb CC disease) can present in infancy, older childhood, or adulthood, depending on other factors that affect clinical severity. Hb CC (homozygous) disease causes mild hemolytic anemia and often splenomegaly without vaso-occlusive manifestations. More severe disease can occur when Hb C is combined with a severe beta globin variant. Heterozygosity for Hb C is an asymptomatic carrier state
Compound heterozygosity for Hb C and Hb S causes Hb SC disease, a form of SCD. The clinical severity is usually less than that in individuals with homozygous Hb SS or Hb S-beta0 thalassemia

108
Q

Hb E

A

Hb E causes a beta thalassemic phenotype and is mildly unstable to oxidative damage. Homozygotes have minimal anemia with hypochromia, target cells, and prominent microcytosis.

Individuals who are homozygous for Hb E have mild microcytic anemia (microcytosis > anemia). Target cells can be seen on blood film.

Hb E in combination with beta thalassemia can range from mild to moderate to severe depending on the other beta globin variant. Over half of individuals with Hb E plus beta0 thalassemia are transfusion dependent. Heterozygosity for Hb E is an asymptomatic carrier state.

109
Q

clinical triad for neonatal renal vein thrombosis

A

haematuria, palpable flank mass, and thrombocytopenia

110
Q

Pathenemonic finding in beta thalassemia

A

increased HbA2 >3.5

NOTE: may not have significantly elevated HbA2 if concurrent iron anemia

111
Q

which cells are seen in blood film in thalassemia

A

target cells
teardrop cells (also b12 deficiency)

112
Q

what is most commonly seen in blood film in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

spherocytes

red cell clumping in cold AIHA

113
Q

what are pencil cells suggestive of

A

iron deficiency

114
Q

what factor decreases the risk of maternal sensitsation (in terms of hemoytic disease of newborn)

A

ABO incompatibility

The risk of sensitization to the Rh D antigen is decreased if the fetus is ABO incompatible. This is because any fetal cells that leak into the maternal circulation are rapidly destroyed by potent maternal anti-A and/or anti-B, reducing the likelihood of maternal exposure to the D antigen.

115
Q

most common hypercoagulable condition

A

activated protein c resistance due to factor 5 leiden mutation

116
Q

Half lives of clotting factors

A

F7: 3-6 hours
F8: 12 hours
F9: 24 hours
F10: 24-48 hours

F2: 60 hours
Protein C - 8 hours
Protein S - 30 hours

117
Q

most common dietary factor associated with iron deficinecy anemia

A

introdcution of cows milk prior to 8 months
high volumes of cows milk

118
Q

how quickly will a reticulocyte response be seen in iron deficiency anemia when iron is started

A

3 days

119
Q

bite cells seen in …

A

G6Pd deficiency

120
Q

VWF:RCo (ristocetin cofactor)

A

VWF:RCo is an assay that measures the ability of VWF to bind to platelet membrane receptor GPIb. Ristocetin is an antibiotic that is no longer clinically used because it causes platelet aggregation. However, this means that it is a useful drug in the laboratory. It is added to patient plasma along with washed or formalin-fixed platelets, and the amount of functional VWF in the plasma that causes platelet agglutination is quantified using platelet aggregometry or a manual (tilt tube) method. In contrast, Plasma von Willebrand factor antigen (VWF:Ag) measures the quantity of VWF protein in the plasma.

121
Q

which baceria causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia

A

salmonella

122
Q

Pulse oximetry is widely utilised in clinical practice to measure the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In which of the following situations is the measured saturation likely to be falsely elevated?

A

methaemglobinemia

123
Q

what is Hb Barts made u of

A

4 x gamma chains