haem vol 4 Flashcards

1
Q

discuss haematology of chronic kidney disease

A

usually proportional to severity of disease.

anaemia caused by several factors:
EPO- dec production - less stimulation to bone marrow.

Clearance of Hepcidin- decreased iron absorption + reduced utilisation of ferritin

Raised Cytokines - chronic kidney inflam– reduced bone marrow response to EPO

Uraemia - causes inflammation in the blood vessels + toxic to megakaryocytes meaning reduced plts. —-> also reduces erythrocyte lifespan.

dialysis- causes damage to RBC. also slight chance of bleeding.

must give iron IV as hepcidin will stop absorption.

Normocytic, normochromic or microcytic anaemias are seen upon investigation alongside a high ferritin and a high reticulocyte content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

haemotology in liver disease

A

liver disease –> chirrosis –> portal hypertension –> backing up to the spleen –> splenomegaly –> increased sequestration and destruction (dec red AND white count)

Varicies –> can bleed. —-> worsenet by reduced clotting factor production (vit K)

Zieves disease- changed lipids on RBC membrane causing shape change. - reduced lifespan

reduced thrombopoietin - reduced platelet creation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is haemochromocytosis

A

genetic change resulting in inappropriately low secretion of hepcidin (due to low gene expression)

this means that there is ongoing duodenal absorption of iron –> in excess of need –> build up in multiple organs around the body.

variable penetrance- so not all who have the genetic alterations will be symptomatic.

also demonstrate transferrin saturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

signs and symptoms, risk factors for haemochromocytosis

A

lethargy, fatigue, loss of libido, and skin bronzing
Arthralgias (pseudogout), hepatomegaly, DM (pancreatic damage), hypogonadism,

risk factors:
male, white, middle aged (4th-5th decade), family history (autosomal recessive disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

investigations for haemochromocytosis

A

1st marker to become affected –> serum transferrin saturation - not mediated by fasting.

serum ferratin

Consider-
MRI liver, LFTs, fasting blood sugar, echo/ ecg.

Rx:
stage 2,3,4- phlebotomy, iron chelation, lifestyle changes.

stage zero- mutation present but no symptoms/ testing negative- monitor 3 yr. stage 1- 1 yr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gestational Immune thrombocytopenia

A

most common thrombocytopaenia in 1st trimester. defines as plts below 100. 50 is severe.

Overall it affects 1 to 4% of all pregnancies and affects 1 to 2 per 1000 pregnancies each year

60% of patients have an antibody-mediated disease, but in up to 40% of patients, the driver for ITP may be malfunctioning T-cells or antigen-presenting cells.

can present alongside other autoimmune diseases (SLE etc)

Rx:
don’t Rx until 20-30- then steroids - can give 2 doses only. response seen in 3-7 days usually (can be 24hrs)

despite this, catastrophic bleeding occurs in 1% of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is classified as a VTE related to pregnancy, what are the risk factors, epidemiology, investigations and treatment for it.

A

during gestation or the 6 weeks post delivery. Leading cause of maternal death.

1-2in 1000

Risk factors:
over 35
3 or more deliveries previously
familial/ personal history, redisposing disease etc.

Ix:
CXR, V/Q matching or CT (both involve radiation)

Rx: LMWH- based on an early pregnancy weight, does not cross placenta, can be used breastfeeding. min 3 month treatment course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

discuss haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

where a D +ve baby has a D-ve mother (can also occur in ABO mismatch but less severe symptoms)

mother needs to be exposed (can happen after 1st baby delivery, or in pregnancy)

generates IgG antibodies- which can cross the placenta- causes haemolysis + the consequences (jaundice- hyperbilirubinea, anaemia)

85% chance of a white D-ve woman mating with a D+ ve man. higher in other ethnicities.
Ix: blood typing, transcutaneous bilirubin @ 24 hours of life.
Rx:
if identified- anti D treatment 1500IU between 28 and 30 weeks as prophylaxis

for baby- phototherapy- high bili treatment
transfusions if severely anaemic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia- discuss how common it is, etiology, S+S and Rx

A

most common haemotological issue in newborns

platelet antigens are given by both their mother and father

mother recognises platelets as foreign- generates an IgG mediated placenta crossing response.
Hpa 1a (80% of cases) and anti-hpa-5b (15%)

S+S: incidental finding usually.
bleeding, bruising, petechiae.

Rx:
invasive - platelet transfusion (intrauterine or not) however significant risks (1.3% of foetal death)
non-invasive- Iv immunoglobulin administration - very effective.
can add prednisolone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

haemorrhagic disease of the new-born.- what is it how is it classified what are the risk factors

A

a term that emcompasses all bleeding issues

most common issue is vitamin K deficiency

  • in adults made by gut bacteria, but in babies - sterile gut.

classified as
Early: Occurs within the first 24 hours of birth, can also occur in-utero or during delivery.
Classical: 1 week of neonatal life (2nd through 7th day)
Late: From 8 days to up to 6-12 months

RF:
exclusively breast fed, vaginal delivery, male baby, home delivery, early birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Signs and symptoms of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn+ rx

A

bleeding- melena, after circumcision, into body cavity, into brain etc etc.

Ix:
CBC- will have normal platelets but INR of more than 4.
prothrombin 4x normal (factor 7 def)

Rx:
prompt administration of vit K - IM for late, oral for others.
if life threatening - give transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

6 reasons for transfusion

A

symptomatic anaemia
major haemorrhage
chronic transfusion dependant anaemia
exchange transfusion
radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of aquired anaemia

A

parvovirus infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

discuss a plastic anaemia

A

hypocellular bone mrrow
no abnormal cells
no fibrosis

at least 2 of the folloing
hb< 100
plt < 50
neut <1.5

realistically plts less than 20 is bad, neuts lower than 0.5 is bad.

often caused by a infective precipitating event.
also nuclear disasters can cause it.

coexists with paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria.

Rx:
supportive treatment, abx (prophylactic if needed)
immunosupression- as immune mediated disease
GCSF
STEM CELL TRANSPLANT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fanconis anaemia

A

congenital autosomal recessive

presents with pancytopaenia
unstable DNA structure.

increaced predisposition to malignancies

S+S: cafe au lait
absent thumbs
horseshoe kidneys
presents between 5-10 years, BM faliure by age 40 usually.

Rx:
stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does parvovirus do

A

transient red cell anaemia

only for 5 days or so, concern if thalaseemia or something like that

slapped cheek looking symptoms.