Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Revision Qs > Gynaecology 1 > Flashcards

Gynaecology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What days is menstruation during the menstrual cycle?

A

1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the first half of the menstrual cycle called? What days is it? What hormone predominates?

A

Proliferative (follicular) phase days 5-13
Oestrogen predominates to thicken the endometrium
FH > LSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormonal change marks oocyte release from a follicle and what day is this?

A

LH surge on 14 days (matches up with oestrogen bump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the second half of the menstrual cycle called? What days is it? What hormone predominates?

A

Proliferative (luteal) phase days 14-28
Progesterone dominates to form a secretory endometrium
LH > FSH relatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define irregular periods?

A

Outside normal range of 23-35 days, variability of >7 days between shortest and longest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is oligomenorrhoea?

A

Infrequent periods, between 35 days - 6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is primary amenorrhea?

A

Periods never start by age 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is secondary amenorrhea?

A

Periods stop for > 6m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Postmenopausal bleeding?

A

Bleeding that occurs >1 year after LMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the objective definition of menorrhagia but what is normally considered?

A

> 80ml blood loss in one normal period, which could lead to an IDA
Normally just when heavy enough to interfere with everyday life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common causes of menorrhagia?

A

Idiopathic
Fibroids
Polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does tenderness when examining for menorrhagia indicate?

A

More likely adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 most appropriate investigations for menorrhagia?

A

TVUSS +/- endometrial pipelle biopsy +/- hysteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First line management for menorrhagia if patient not wanting to get pregnant?

A

Mirena coil IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs are second line for menorrhagia after IUS/if fertility desired?

A

Tranexamic acid, an antifibrinolytic

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is third line management for menorrhagia?

A

Progestogens to induce artificial amenorrhea
GnRH analogues to induce artificial menopause

If fail, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common causes of irregular periods and IMB?

A

Fibroids, adenomyosis
Polyps
Ovarian cysts
PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are more likely causes of IMB and irregular menses in older women?

A

Endometrial, ovarian and cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drugs can be given to induce artificial amenorrhea and are therefore used for menorrhagia, IMB, irregular menses and occasionally dysmenorrhea?

A

Progestogens and CoCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

First line management for menstrual disturbance when fertility not required?

A

IUS or CoCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Physiological causes of amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy

Lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

6 areas of causes of amenorrhea/oligomenorrhoea?

A 
Drugs e.g. Progestogens, GnRH agonists, antipsychotics
Hypothalamic hypogonadism
Pituitary - hyperprolactinaemia 
Adrenals/thyroid - hypothyroidism
Ovary - PCOS, prem menopause, Turners
Outflow tract disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 most common causes of amenorrhea/oligomenorrhoea? Which most commonly causes oligomenorrhoea?

A

PCOS - normally oligo
Premature menopause
Hyperprolactinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can hypothalamic hypogonadism be caused by?

A

Losing loads of weight, anorexia, exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is PCB ever ‘normal’? What are the most common causes?

A

No
Most commonly cervical e.g. Ectropion, polyps, Cancer
Can be atrophic vaginitis in older women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why does dysmenorrhea happen and what are the 2 types?

A

High prostaglandins causing contraction and uterine ischaemia
Primary = no organic cause
Secondary = secondary to pelvic pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Characteristics of primary dysmenorrhea?

A

No organic cause
Normally at start of menstruation
Often responds to NSAIDs or ovulatory suppression (COCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common causes of secondary dysmenorrhea?

A

Fibroids
Adenomyosis, endometriosis
PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Characteristics of secondary dysmenorrhea?

A

Often precedes menstruation
Commonly coexists with deep dyspareunia, menorrhagia, irregular menses
Requires PUS and laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the premenstrual syndrome?

A

Sx worsening in luteal phase of cycle, resolve by end of menstruation
Tension, irritability, aggression, depression
IBS like symptoms, breast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Management of premenstrual syndrome?

A

SSRIs (duloxetine) are useful

Cycle ablation - COCP, GnRH analogues with add back HRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the relationship between fibroids and adenomyosis?

A

Fibroids (leiomyomata) are benign myometrial tumours
Adenomyosis is endometriosis which deposits within the myometrium
Both can cause menorrhagia, irregular/IMB, dysmenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What effect does progesterone have on the endometrium and how does it relate to menstruation?

A

Causes gland swelling and vascularisation

Falls at the end of the cycle causing decrease in blood supply, ischaemia and menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do fibroids depend on for growth and therefore what is protective against them?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone (so common just pre-menopause and normally regress during pregnancy, post-menopause)
Pregnancy, COCP, Progestogens are protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 types of fibroids and how do they relate to polyps?

A 
Subserous fibroids
Intramural fibroids
Submucosal fibroids
Intracavity polyps
Subserous polyps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What polyps and fibroids are related in terms of location and symptomlogy?

A

Intracavity polyps and submucosal fibroids both push into uterine cavity
Subserous fibroids and subserous polyps both push out of uterus and make the outside of it bumpy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When can fibroids grow during pregnancy and what problems can arise?

A

Can grow mid-pregnancy second trimester
-> preterm labour, malpresentation, transverse lie, PPH
Red degeneration (severe pain)
Pedunculated fibroid torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the cancerous change that arises from fibroids?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why can Hb be high with fibroids?

A

They can secrete erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Investigations for fibroids?

A

TVUS +/- MRI +/- laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Medical management of fibroids if not trying to conceive?

A

GnRH agonists to induce temporary menopause with add back HRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alternative surgical management for fibroids if wanting to preserve fertility?

A

Pretreatment GnRH agonists followed by hysteroscopy and TCRF for submucosal/intracavity polyp
Myomectomy - open laparotomy or laparoscopic for intramural/subserous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is umbilical artery embolization UAE used for?

A

Fibroids shrinkage in those that don’t want kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What can haematometra occur as a result of?

A

Fibrosis post-endometrial resection, cone biopsy
Carcinoma
Congenital malformation or imperforate hymen (1* amenorrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the commonest genital tract cancer in women?

A

Endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who does endometrial cancer occur most commonly in?

A

Older women > 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What histological type are the majority of endometrial cancers?

A

Adenocarcinoma of columnar endometrial gland cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the major risk factor for endometrial cancer and what 2 types can this broadly be split into?

A

Unopposed oestrogen/high oestrogen:prog ratio

Split into exogenous and endogenous oestrogen excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Exogenous oestrogen RFs for endometrial cancer?

A

Tamoxifen for breast cancer

Unopposed oestrogen therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Endogenous oestrogen sources as risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A 
Obesity (androgen->oestrogen conversion)
PCOS
Nulliparity
Late menopause
Oestrogen secreting (ovarian) tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Lynch type II syndrome?

A

Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer

Risks of colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the premalignant disease for endometrial cancer?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia

Requires hysterectomy if possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the biggest presenting picture for endometrial cancer?

A

PMB - increasing likelihood of cancer with age

If pre-menopausal - rare but IMB/irregular menses or oligomenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What cervical pathology may coexist with endometrial cancer?

A

Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia CGIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is FIGO staging for endometrial cancer carried out?

A

USS + endometrial pipelle biopsy +/- hysteroscopy

Staging can only be done post-hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Stages for endometrial cancer?

A

Stage 1 - uterus only (75% at presentation)
Stage 2 - uterus and cervix
Stage 3 - invasive through uterus into adnexae, vagina, LNs
Stage 4 - bowel or bladder spread or distant mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Stage 1 management for endometrial cancer?

A

H+BSO

If turns out subsequently to be stage 3 -> ?radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Recurrence for endometrial cancer?

A

Most commonly vaginal vault - VGIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Moist Smelly Stuff is Gynae Basics of gynae history?

A 
Menstrual questions
Sexual Hx
Smear Hx
Genitourinary Sx incl discharge
Bowel Sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is cervical ectropion?

A

Visible endocervical columnar epithelium as redness around external os
More common during pregnancy, COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Other than asymptomatic, how can cervical ectropion present?

A

Discharge

Post-coital bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Management of cervical ectropion?

A

Cryotherapy after exclusion of carcinoma by smear/colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is chronic cervicitis?

A

A common cause of discharge, often due to chronic STI of cervical ectropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are cervical polyps?

A

Benign endocervical epithelial tumours most common in older women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Apart from asymptomatic, how can cervical polyps present?

A

Post-coital bleeding, Intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Management of cervical polyps?

A

Avulsion + histological analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are Nabothian follicles?

A

Columnar cell secretions trapped under squamous epithelium leading to white/opaque swellings in ectocervix. Commonly asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common histological type of cervical cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are CIN I-III and what do they represent?

A

Dysplasia of cervical intraepithelial cells; I is atypical cells at lower 1/3 of epithelium only, II is 2/3 and III is full thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is another term form CIN III and how does it progress to malignant disease?

A

Carcinoma in situ -> invasion through basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What HPV serotypes are most implicated in cervical cancer?

A

16, 18, 31 and 33

72
Q

Besides HPV RFs, RFs for cervical cancer?

A

Smoking

Immunocompromise

73
Q

What is the screening programme for cervical cancer?

A

3 yearly from 25-49

5 yearly from 49-64

74
Q

What is the lowest level of dyskaryosis in CIN which, when combined with a positive HPV titre, should prompt a colposcopy?

A

CIN I + positive HPV -> colposcopy

75
Q

What is HPV screening used for in CIN?

A

As HPV triage and also test of cure

76
Q

What can presence of CGIN indicate?

A

Cervical/endometrial adenocarcinoma so should prompt colposcopy and endometrial biopsy

77
Q

What do confirmed CIN II and III have to be treated with? What risk does this hold for future pregnancies?

A

LLETZ

Slight risk of preterm labour in future

78
Q

Other than asymptomatic, how can cervical cancer present?

A

PCB, IMB, PM, offensive discharge

Pain, GI/GU Sx

79
Q

FIGO stage 1-4 for cervical cancer?

A

1 - cancer confined to cervix
2 - local spread into vagina but not pelvic side wall
3 - spread to lower vagina or pelvic walls or ureteric obstruction
4 - invasion of bladder, rectum or beyond

80
Q

Management of cervical cancer with increasing grade at presentation?

A

Come biopsy/hysterectomy -> radical hysterectomy -> chemo/radiotherapy

81
Q

What are common ovarian symptoms?

A

None! Often silent

With increasing size, can eventually cause abdominal distension and bloating

82
Q

What is an ovarian accident?

A

Acute rupture, haemorrhage, torsion or infarct of an ovarian mass (usually cyst)

83
Q

What is PCO?

A

Term descriptive of the characteristic TVUS appearance: >12 small follicles in an enlarged ovary

84
Q

What can prompt a woman with PCO to develop PCOS?

A

Weight gain

85
Q

Major diagnostic features of PCOS?

A

Anovulation
Hirsutism either clinically or as high serum testosterone
Oligomenorrhoea/irregular periods
PCO on TVUS

86
Q

What is the pathophysiological background of PCOS?

A

Genetic susceptibility leading to increased LH production and peripheral insulin resistance
LH and insulin act on PCO causing ovarian androgen production and disruption of folliculogenesis

87
Q

What FH condition is common with PCOS?

A

DM2

88
Q

3 long term risks of PCOS?

A

Endometrial cancer (anovulation leading to unopposed oestrogen)
DM2
GDM and miscarriage during pregnancy

89
Q

First line management of PCOS?

A

Lifestyle - weight loss

90
Q

Management of PCOS if wanting fertility?

A

Clomifene
Metformin
Gonadotrophins, IVF

91
Q

Management of PCOS if fertility not desired?

A 
Symptomatic relief - COCP or Mirena to regulate menstruation and treat hirsutism
Anti androgens (systemic or topical)
92
Q

What is premature menopause defined as?

A

Menopause before age of 40

93
Q

What is the most common congenital cause of gonadal dysgenesis?

A

Turners syndrome 45XO

94
Q

What are the 3 major types of primary ovarian carcinoma?

A

Epithelial tumours
Germ cell tumours
Sex cord tumours

95
Q

What are the most common malignant primary ovarian cancers?

A

Epithelial cell cancers - serous cystadenoma/adenocarcinoma

96
Q

What are the 5 types of ovarian epithelial carcinoma?

A 
Serous cystadenoma
Mucinous cystadenoma 
Endometrioid carcinoma
Clear cell carcinoma
Brenner tumour
97
Q

From what ovarian tumour can pseudomyxoma peritonei originate?

A

Borderline mucinous cystadenoma

98
Q

In whom are germ cell ovarian tumours more common?

A

Women under 30

99
Q

2 types of germ cell ovarian tumour? What is the most common malignant ovarian cancer in younger women?

A

Teratoma/dermoid cyst

Dysgerminoma (most common)

100
Q

3 types of ovarian sex cord tumour?

A

Granulosa cell tumours
Thecomas
Fibromas

101
Q

What do granulosa cell tumours secrete?

A

Oestrogen and inhibin

Thus causing endometrial hyperplasia/cancer or precocious puberty

102
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

Fibroma, ascites and right sided pleural effusion

103
Q

What are the 2 most common primary sites for ovarian secondary malignancies?

A

Breast

GI cancers

104
Q

2 major cyst conditions of ovaries?

A

Endometriotic (chocolate) cysts

Functional cysts - follicular/lutein cysts

105
Q

What is protective vs functional ovarian cysts?

A

COCP

106
Q

RFs for ovarian cancer?

A

Related to increasing number of ovulations:
Early menarche
Late menopause
Nulliparity

107
Q

Protective factors against ovarian cancer?

A

Pregnancy
Lactation
COCP

108
Q

Familial links for ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA 1+2

HNPCC (lynch syndrome type II)

109
Q

What 3 cancers is lynch II (HNPCC) implicated in?

A

Ovarian
Endometrial
Colorectal

110
Q

What common GI disease manifestation does ovarian cancer often mimic?

A

IBS

111
Q

What is used to assess ovarian cancer possibility in secondary care? How is it calculated?

A

Risk of Malignancy Index

RMI = Ca125 x US x Menopausal Status

112
Q

What specific bloods may be useful to investigate ovarian cancer in women under 40 at increased risk of germ cell tumours?

A

Alpha feto-protein

hCG

113
Q

Cut off RMI value for referral to specialist MDT?

A

250

114
Q

FIGO staging for ovarian cancer?

A

1 ovarian only
2 beyond ovaries but pelvis only
3 beyond pelvis but abdomen only
4 beyond abdomen

115
Q

3 general areas of causes of pruritis vulvae?

A

Infection
Dermatological
Neoplasia

116
Q

Which of the lichen conditions most mimics dermatitis or eczema?

A

Lichen simplex

117
Q

Which of the lichen conditions mostly affects mucosa (mouth and genital)?

A

Lichen planus - causing painful, erosive flat papules

118
Q

Which of the lichen conditions has an autoimmune link and may be associated with thyroid disease and vitiligo?

A

Lichen sclerosus

119
Q

Who does lichen sclerosus mostly affect and how does it present?

A

Postmenopausal women
Severe pruritis -> thinning skin, adhesions, fissures
Labial fusion and introital narrowing

120
Q

Which of the lichen conditions carries a risk of vulval carcinoma?

A

Lichen sclerosus

121
Q

What do Bartholin’s glands normally do? How do they form cysts/abscesses?

A

Normally secrete lubricant for vulva

Blockage leads to cyst formation, can become infected with staph/E coli etc.

122
Q

How do bartholin’s gland abscesses present?

A

Acute pain, large red tender swelling

123
Q

What is the drainage method for bartholin’s gland cysts called?

A

Incise, drain and leave open (marsupialisation)

124
Q

In what age is primary dysmenorrhea most common? When does it tend to recede?

A

15-25, symptoms decrease with age and tend to stop after childbirth

125
Q

Pain associated with primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Crampy pains starting within 24 hours of menstruation, stop within 2-3 days

126
Q

In what age is secondary dysmenorrhea most common?

A

Over 30s

127
Q

What device can cause secondary dysmenorrhea within first few months of insertion?

A

IUD

128
Q

Pain associated with secondary dysmenorrhea?

A

Starts at least 2 days before menstruation and continues whole way through
Associated with other Sx e.g. Dyspareunia

129
Q

Metabolic cause of menorrhagia?

A

Hypothyroidism

130
Q

What is the general cause of physiological leucorrhoea? Relation to causes of increased discharge?

A

High oestrogen

So increased in pregnancy, CoCP, around time of ovulation

131
Q

What medical procedure can encourage growth of follicular ovarian cysts?

A

Clomiphene ovulatory induction

132
Q

What ovarian benign ovarian cysts can secrete lots of oestrogen?

A

Follicular cysts

133
Q

What 3 item criteria is used to define PCOS? What are they?

A

Rotterdam criteria
PCO as defined by at least 12 follicles or increased ovarian size
Oligo/anovulation
Clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism

134
Q

What is co-cyprindol?

A

Drug used for symptom management of PCOS

135
Q

2 drugs suitable for PCOS in women wanting to get pregnant?

A

Metformin

Clomiphene

136
Q

What cancer is PCOS a risk factor for?

A

Endometrial

137
Q

Large doughy uterus, uterine contractions with persistent bleeds and expulsion of grape like material. Diagnosis?

A

Molar pregnancy

138
Q

What is ptyalism?

A

Excessive salivation

139
Q

What does an unsatisfactory cervical smear result mean?

A

Incorrect processing or not enough cells

Repeat in 4 weeks

140
Q

What does an inconclusive cervical smear result suggest?

A

Infection - treat and repeat

141
Q

What happens if woman has normal smear but is positive for HPV?

A

Retest every 6m til negative
Then yearly for 2 years
Then 2 yearly

142
Q

With what infection is strawberry cervix associated with?

A

Thrichomoniasis

143
Q

Differentials for cervical motion tenderness/cervical excitation?

A

Classical of PID

To a lesser extent ectopic pregnancy

144
Q

Boggy, tender uterus on Bimanual exam?

A 
Adenomyosis
Uterine atony (postpartum)
145
Q

Differentials for an adnexal mass on bimanual?

A

Ovarian - cysts, tumours, PCOS
Ectopic pregnancy
Abscess

146
Q

Which of gonorrhoea and chlamydia in women typically causes malodourous, purulent discharge?

A

Chlamydia

147
Q

4 infections detectable via high vaginal swab?

A

BV
Trichomonas
Candida
Group B Strep

148
Q

2 infections detected by endocervical swab? Which uses charcoal media?

A

Gonorrhoea (charcoal media)

Chlamydia

149
Q

What is more suggestive of PID than endometriosis?

A

Fever

Vaginal discharge

150
Q

What type of cervical cancer is associated with COCP use?

A

CGIN

151
Q

What is virilisation?

A

Mega high androgens (e.g. From adrenal hyperplasia or androgen secreting tumour) causing irreversible male changes in women e.g. Clitoromegaly and vocal deepening

152
Q

What is the difference between virilisation and hirsutism?

A

Both hyperandrogenism but hirsutism is milder and reversible

Virilisation mega and irreversible

153
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Darkly pigmented velvety skin in skin flexures (nape of neck, skin folds, elbow creases) associated with PCOS and DM

154
Q

What skin change may be associated with DM and PCOS?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

155
Q

What is the progestogen challenge test used for?

A

5 day course of prog should induce withdrawal bleed when stopped - used for detecting patency of connection between uterus cervix and vagina and an oestrogenised uterus

156
Q

What 2 conditions can progestogen challenge test highlight?

A

Asherman’s syndrome

Cervical stenosis

157
Q

What heart auscultation findings are common in pregnancy?

A

Ejection systolic murmur and S3 gallop due to hyperdynamic circulation

158
Q

What does uterine fibroid embolization herald a risk of in future?

A

Premature ovarian failure - 1%

159
Q

What pregnancy interval is a RF for pre-eclampsia?

A

10 years (likely nulliparity)

160
Q

How can vaginal pH be used to differentiate between causes of vaginal discharge?

A

BV and trichomonas have alkaline pH (>4.5)

Candida has acidic or normal

161
Q

What pH do BV and trichomonas share?

A

Over 4.5 alkaline

162
Q

What does asymmetric IUGR suggest?

A

Placental insufficiency

163
Q

What is granuloma inguinale?

A

Painless slow growing ulcerative lesions with no regional lymphadenopathy caused by Klebsiella granulomatis

164
Q

Painless, slow growing genital ulcer with no associated regional lymphadenopathy?

A

Granuloma inguinale

165
Q

Sx associated with lymphogranuloma?

A

Unilateral tender inguinal or femoral lymphadenopathy

Self limiting, papule like ulcer

166
Q

Unilateral tender inguinal and femoral lymphadenopathy with papule-like ulcer?

A

Lymphogranuloma

167
Q

What Ix is best for detecting early Syphillis infection from lesion exudate or tissue?

A

Darkfield examination

168
Q

What is Darkfield examination used for?

A

Early Syphillis infection isolate from tissue exudate

169
Q

Sx of chancroid?

A

Painful general ulcer with tender suppurative lymphadenopathy

170
Q

Painful genital ulcer plus tender suppurative lymphadenopathy?

A

Chancroid

171
Q

7 steps of vertex delivery?

A 
Engagement
Descent
Flexion of head
Internal rotation
Extension and restitution
External rotation
Expulsion
172
Q

Describe complete hyatid moles?

A

Diploid (46 chromosomes) with paternal origin only
No Fetal tissue
Higher risk of need for chemo

173
Q

Describe partial hyatid moles?

A

Triploid - 69 chromosomes with full paternal and half maternal
Identifiable Fetal tissue

174
Q

3 early pregnancy Sx of hyatid moles?

A

Early hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia and hyperemesis

175
Q

What 2 Sx typify Kallmans syndrome?

A

Hypothalamic (hypogonadotrophic) hypogonadism

Anosmia

176
Q

Is smoking a RF for placenta praevia?

A

Nope

177
Q

Most common oestrogen secreting ovarian tumour? How does this present?

A

Mucinous cystadenoma - young woman with PV bleed

Revision Qs (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions