Gunery Skills Test Ver A Flashcards
__________________ is the real-time accurate knowledge of one’s own location and orientation, as well as the locations of friendly forces, enemy forces, and noncombatants. _________________includes
awareness of the METT-T conditions that affect the operation.
situational awareness, situational
awareness (3-04.3 para 10-2)
What are the negative effects of fratricide?
- Hesitation to conduct limited-visibility operations.
-Loss of confidence in the unit’s leadership.
-Increase of leader self-doubt.
-Hesitation to use supporting combat systems.
-Over supervision of units.
-Loss of initiative.
-Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver.
-Disrupted operations.
-Needless loss of combat power.
-General degradation of cohesion and morale.
(3-04.3 p 10-3 para 10-14)
If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings,
the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of these rounds
is called _____________.
Dispersion (3-04.3 C-1)
What are the Interior Ballistics?
-Barrel Wear
-Propellant Charges
-Projectile Weight
-Launcher Tube and Rocket Pod Alignment
-Thrust Misalignment (3-04.3 pg C-5&6)
Define maximum effective range.
Distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. (3-04.3 para C-10)
What are the five modes of fire per the TC 3-04.3?
Hover
Moving
Running
Diving
Running/Diving IP (TC3-04.3 12-1,2)
What are the three inherent advantages of diving fire?
Decreased vulnerability to small-arms fire.
Increased accuracy. Smaller beaten zone. (3-04.3
para 12-11)
Neutralization knocks a target out of action ____________.
Temporarily (ATM pg 4-147)
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
Black with yellow band (SH D-11)
During running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _______ while
maintaining ______________.
Cyclic, trim (ATM p 4-159)
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the target should be located _____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft.
500 to 1500 meters (AWS SH D-51)
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is __________ and can produce a lethality radius
in excess of __________.
10m 50 m (SH D-25)
What is the gun duty cycle?
Six 50-round bursts with 5 seconds between
bursts, followed by a 10-minute cooling period. Burst settings other than 50, the duty cycle
can be generalized to mean that no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before
allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes
The software range limit for the 30mm is?
4200 meters (AWS SH D-22)
The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the
preceding _____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for
____________. Crewmembers should ____________________________________.
300, ten minutes, 30 minutes, remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control (-10 p4-144)
Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?
Yes (-10 p 4-141)
In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain ______________________________, gun firing _____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________.
LAST COMMAND position INHIBITED
RETURN TO STOW
(-10 P 4-29 WARNING)
What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?
0.87 (-10 p 4-141)
What is the rate of fire for the 30 mm cannon?
625 +/- 25 (AWS SH D-22)
With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and
quantities of each are available?
A B E (ARS SH D-23)
Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the ARS page when in the cooperative mode?
(Yes ARS
SH D-33)
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember when the
active sight is _________ and __________; (CPG Only) _______.
HMD, FCR, MTADS (ARS SH D-
32)
The pylons articulate independently through a range of _________________.
+4 to -15 (ARS SH
D-09)
What are the different “modes” the pylons can operate in?
Ground Stow
Flight Stow
Articulation
Fixed
(ARS SH pg D-9)
On preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure
__________________.
jettison will occur properly (ARS SH D-11)
T/F The rocket page is crew station independent page for independent engagements.
True (ARS pg
D-15)
M151 Warhead HE is _________________________ and referred to as the
“________________”.
-anti-personnel
-anti-material
-10 pounder (ARS SH pg D-25)
A HF-II which does receive an R09 targeting message from the firing aircraft is considered an________?
“Enhanced HF-II”. HF SUPP P4
Define the 60 degree (preferably within 45 degrees) Designator Offset Angle.
The angle between the GTL and LTL. P14 HF SUPP
What is the minimum effective range of a ENHANCED “R” LOBL engagement with a 0° degree offset
angle from the aircraft datum line? __________. With a 20° offset? __________.
500/1200 (HF
SUPP PG 33)
What are the different sections/assemblies of the Hellfire Missile?
Guidance- missile autopilot and seeker guidance and control, displacement gyro/IMU,
precursor
Warhead- Control Interface Group, thermal battery, pneumatic accumulator, CI circuit card,
warhead and fuze, Electronic ARM/Safe Device
Control-
Propulsion- single-stage, single-thrust, minimum-smoke, solid-propellant, rocket motor, a
motor squib, and cruciform wing
SH D-10
What is the definition of Ripple fire?
Ripple fire mode requires at least two
designators which will allow the aircrew to employ multiple missiles on different codes. RIPL
allows for firing of missiles coded to both the priority channel and the alternate channel.
How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed ON time?
30 min (HF SH D 117)
What is “transfer alignment”?
MSL receiving updated INU data form Aircraft to update IMU (HF
SH D-92) Transfer alignment (transfer of aircraft inertial data to missile inertial platform)
occurs automatically, at missile power up with no pilot action required.-10 p4-154
Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the trigger’s second detent?
NO (HF SH D-52)
How long must you lase the target before the message “TARGET DATA?” blanks in the HAD?
3-5
seconds (HF SH D-95)
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes only stationary ground targets?
B (-10 pg 4-79)
A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give _____ scans.
3 (-10 p4-63)
The ___________ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an
emitting threat as detected by the RFI.
Cued search (-10 p 4-82)
How is the number one RFI emitter displayed?
Home plate (-10 p4-81)
T/F The RFI can detect and process pulse, pulse Doppler, and continuous wave (CW) radar
signals.
True (-10 pg 4-167)
