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1
Q

type of diuretic is triamterene

A

k sparing

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2
Q

type of diuretic is acetazolamide

A

carbonic anyhydrase inhibitor

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3
Q

type of diuretic is HCTZ

A

thiazide

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4
Q

type of diuretic is bemetanide

A

loop

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5
Q

type of diuretic is spironolactone

A

k sparing, aldo antag

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6
Q

type of diuretic is ethacrynic acid

A

loop

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7
Q

type of diuretic is mannitol

A

osmotic

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8
Q

type of diuretic is metolazone

A

thiazide

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9
Q

type of diuretic is chlorthalidone

A

thiazide

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10
Q

type of diuretic is furosemide

A

loop

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11
Q

type of diuretic is amiloride

A

K sparing

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12
Q

type of diuretic is torsemide

A

loop

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13
Q

diuretic used for acute pulmonary edema

A

loop

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14
Q

diuretic used for idiopathic hypercalciuria

A

thiazide

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15
Q

diuretic used for glaucoma

A

acetazolamide / mannitol

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16
Q

diuretic used for mild to moderate CHF with expanded ECV

A

loop, aldo antag

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17
Q

diuretic used for with loop or thiaziode to retain K

A

K sparing

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18
Q

diuretic used for edema associated with nephrotic syndrome

A

loop

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19
Q

diuretic used for increased intracranial pressure

A

acetazolamide / mannitol

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20
Q

diuretic used for mild to moderate hypertension

A

thiazide

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21
Q

diuretic used for hypercalcemia

A

loop

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22
Q

diuretic used for altitude sickness

A

acetazolamide

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23
Q

diuretic used for hyperaldosteronism

A

spironolactone, eplerenone

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24
Q

bacteria causing pyelonephritis

A

e coli, saprophyticus, proteus, klebsiella, candida

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25
Q

medical management of renal stone

A

IV hydration, pain meds, (?) tamsulosin/ nifedipine

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26
Q

treatment for uric acid renal stones

A

alkalinize urine with Na citrate or sodium bicarb

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27
Q

size calcium renal stone has 50% likelihood of passing without surgical intervention

A

8-9 mm

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28
Q

five etiologies of temporary hematuria

A

UTI, trauma, nephrolithiasis, exercise, endometriosis

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29
Q

renal pathology from uncorrected severe benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

bilat hydronephrosis

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30
Q

cardiac abnormalities associated with ADPKD

A

MVP, aortic regurgq

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31
Q

biggest risk factor for renal cell carcinoma

A

smoking

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32
Q

patient involved in MVA has a crushed thigh. Your resident says give patient IV fluids to maimtain high urime output of 100-200. Why did she advise this?

A

to prevent interstitial nephropathy from increased myopathy

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33
Q

what is the most common cause of interstitial nephropathy/ nephritis?

A

drug

NSAID, aminoglycoside, beta lactam, sulfonamides

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34
Q

50 y/o smoker presents with flank pain, weight loss, hematuria, and polycythemia. What is the next step?

A

imaging of kidneys

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35
Q

renal pathology with IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition, LM: hypercellular glomeruli

A

post infectious

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36
Q

renal pathology with linear pattern of IgG deposition

A

goodpasture

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37
Q

renal pathology with anti GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis

A

goodpasture

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38
Q

renal pathology with nephritis, deafness, cataracts

A

alport

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39
Q

renal pathology with LM: crescent formation in the glomeruli

A

RPGN

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40
Q

renal pathology with palpable purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain IgA nephropathy

A

HSP

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41
Q

renal pathology with positive ANCA

A

pauci immune RPGN, granulomatosis with polyangiitis

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42
Q

renal pathology with anti dsDNA antibodies

A

lupus nephritis

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43
Q

defining features of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria > 3.5

albumin less than 3

edema

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44
Q

glomerular histology reveals multiple mesangial nodules. This lesion is indicative of what disease?

A

DM nephropathy

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45
Q

renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in children

A

minimal change disease

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46
Q

renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

FSGS

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47
Q

renal pathology with EM: loss of epithelial foot processes

A

minimal change disease

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48
Q

renal pathology with nephrotic syndrome associated with hepatitis B

A

membranous

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49
Q

renal pathology with nephrotic syndrome associated with HIV

A

FSGS

50
Q

renal pathology with EM: subendo humps and tram-track appearance

A

MPGN

51
Q

renal pathology with LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis

A

FSGS

52
Q

renal pathology with EM: spike and dome pattern of the basement membrane

A

membranous

53
Q

renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in AA males

A

FSGS

54
Q

renal pathology with apple green birefringence with Congo red stain under polarized light

A

amyloidosis

55
Q

patient is found to have fever, rash, elevated creatinine, and eosinophilia. Dx?

A

AIN

56
Q

In prerenal acute renal failure what is the value for fractional excredtion of sodium? For BUN:creatinine ratio?

A

FENa less than 1

BUN: creatinine greater than 20

57
Q

Which test is used for screening diabetic patients for kidney damage?

A

urine microalbumin

58
Q

what blood pressure medications are renal protective and preferred in the treatment of HTN in patients with chronic kidney disease?

A

ACEI/ARB

59
Q

RTA Type 1: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3

A

urine pH > 5.3

serum K decr

serum HCO3 decr

60
Q

RTA Type 2: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3

A

urine pH less than 5.3

serum k decr

serum hco3 decr

61
Q

RTA Type 4: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3

A

urine pH less than 5.3

serum k incr

serum hco3 nl

62
Q

treatment of Type I RTA

A

sodium bicarb, K, thiazide

63
Q

treatment of Type II RTA

A

sodium bicarb, K, thiazide

64
Q

treatment of Type IV RTA

A

fludrocortisone, restrict K

65
Q

Common cause of metabolic alkalosis

A

vomiting, diuretics, hyperaldo, cushing

66
Q

common cause of respiratory alkalosis

A

hyperventilation

- high altitude, asthma, aspirin tox, PE

67
Q

common cause of respiratory acidosis

A

COPD, resp depression, NM disease

68
Q

common cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

MUDPILES

methanol
uremia
DKA
propylene glycol
INH/iron
lactic acidosis
ethylene glycol
salicylates
69
Q

common cause of nongap metabolic acidosis

A

diarrhea, hypoaldo, RTA, TPN

70
Q

What is the consequence of correcting hyponatremia too rapidly? How rapidly can it safely be corrected?

A

central pontine myelinolysis

71
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from thiazide

A

hypovolemic

72
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from SIADH

A

euvolemic

73
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from cirrhosis

A

hypervolemic

74
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from addison disease

A

hypovolemic

75
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from hypothyroidism

A

euvolemic

76
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from renal failure

A

hypervolemic

77
Q

volume status in patient with hyponatremia from psychogenic polydipsia

A

euvolemic

78
Q

most common causes of SIADH

A

CNS disease, pulmonary disease, drugs, HIV/AIDS, abdominal surgery

79
Q

consequence of correcting hypernatremia too rapidly? how rapidly can it safely be corrected?

A

cerebral edema

80
Q

next step in the management of a patient with peaked T waves on EKG due to hyperkalemia

A

IV ca gluconate/ CaCl

81
Q

medications used to rapidly correct hyperkalemia by shifting potassium into cells

A

insulin and glucose

sodium bicarb

albuterol

82
Q

treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

increased H20, salt restriction, thiazide, indomethacin

Li induced nephrogenic DI - amiloride

83
Q

medications are known for causing hyperkalemia? hypokalemia?

A

K sparing diuretics, ACEI, ARB, beta blocker, dig

diuretics, albumin, insulin

84
Q

which electrolyte abnormality causes QT prolongation on EKG? which electrolyte abnormality causes QT shortening?

A

hypocalcemia

hypercalcemia

85
Q

which type of RTA is associated with abnormal HCO3 and rickets

A

RTA 2

86
Q

risk factors for developing bladder cancer

A

smoking, schistosomiasis, aniline dyes, recurrent UTIs, male, cyclophosphamide

87
Q

what are the three types of urinary incontinence

A

urge, stress, overflow

88
Q

diagnostic tests will confirm diagnosis of overflow incontinence

A

bladder US

post void cath

89
Q

first step in treating bladder outlet obstruction

A

decompress bladder with foley

90
Q

diagnostic test differentiates normal central DI from nephrogenic DI

A

ADH test

91
Q

what is the treatment for urethritis in men

A

cef, doxy/azithro

92
Q

classic symptoms of BPH

A

weakened urinary stream, urinary retention, frequency, nocturia, urgency

93
Q

two classes of medications are used most often to treat BPH

A

alpha 1 antagonist

5alpha reductase inhibitor

94
Q

hormonal medicatioins are often given to patients with metastastatic prostate cancer

A

GnRH agonist

- leuprolide, geserelin

95
Q

treatment for epididymitis

A

under 35 cef, doxy/azi

over 35 fluoroquinolones

96
Q

most common germ cell tumor of the testis

A

seminoma

97
Q

lab work included in the workup for erectile dysfunction

A

total testosterone

prolactin

TSH

+/- PSA

98
Q

what is the most common physical finding/presenting symptom of a child with wilms tumor

A

renal flank mass

99
Q

4 year old boy diagnosed with a UTI. What study should be performed next?

A

voiding cystourethrogram

100
Q

recommended therapies for nocturanl enuresis?

A

toilet training, motivation, fluid restriction, enuresis alarm, DDAVP

101
Q

male newborn with distended palpable baldder and oliguria. What is the most common cause of congenital urethral obstruction

A

posterior urethral valves

102
Q

25 y/o male with solitary testicular mass by ultrasound. Next step?

A

surgical excision

103
Q

signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis?

A 
dysuria/frequency/urgency
flank pain
fever/chills
N/V
CVAT
104
Q

test used to rule out urethral injury?

A

retrograde cystourethrogram

105
Q

Patient has palpable flank mass and hematuria and renal ultrasound shows bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts. What brain anomaly is associated with this condition?

A

Berry aneurysms

106
Q

Patient has eosinophilic casts found in the urine. Dx?

A

AIN, drug reaction

107
Q

Man presents with acute onset flank pain and hematuria. What is the most likely etiology?

A

kidney stone

108
Q

Postop patient has poor urine output, BUN 85, creatinine of 3 and clear lungs. What is the next step in management of this patient?

A

IV fluids

109
Q

Patient with glomerulonphritis plus bilateral sensorineural deafness. What is the diagnosis?

A

alport syndrome

110
Q

Post op patient with significant pain presents with hyponatremia and normal volume status. What is the diagnosis?

A

SIADH

111
Q

glomerular disease with IF granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli

A

acute post strep GN

112
Q

glomerular disease with IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition

A

goodpasture

113
Q

glomerular disease with EM: loss of epithelial foot processes

A

minimal change disease

114
Q

glomerular disease with EM: subendothelial humps and “tram track” appearance

A

MPGN

115
Q

glomerular disease with nephritis, deafness, cataracts

A

alport syndrome

116
Q

glomerular disease with purpura on the back of hte arms and legs, abd pain, IgA nephropathy

A

HSP

117
Q

glomerular disease with anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

lupus nephritis

118
Q

What is the classic presentation of poststrep glomerulonephritis?

A

child with brown urine and HTN

strep 1-3 weeks prior

high ASO titer

119
Q

30 year old female african immigrant presents with hematuria. What do you suspect in this patient?

A

schistosoma haematobia

120
Q

treatment for epididymitis?

A

cef and doxy/azi

121
Q

medications used in the treatment of wegener’s granulomatosis?

A

steroids

cyclophosphamide

Step 2 CK (16 decks)

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