Gram Positive Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Beta hemolytic yellow or golden colonies on blood agar

Salt tolerant on mannitol salt agar

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gold color of staph aureus is due to the pigment called

A

Staphyloxanthin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Virulence factor of staph aureus that prevents complement activation

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bacteria that has alpha toxin that causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

Staph aureus

Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common cause of acute endocarditis

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most commonly affected valve in IV drug users in acute endocarditis

A

Tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can cause post viral pneumonia

A

S.aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone

A

Brodie abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gastroenteritis due to staphylococcal enterotoxin can occur after how many hours?

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Staphylococcal enterotoxin can be ingested through what kind of food?

A

Salad made with mayonnaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is also called

A

Ritter disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, separation of epidermis occurs in what layer?

A

Stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TEN (Lyell disease) separation of epidermis occurs at what layer

A

Dermoepidermal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DOC for Methicillin sensitive S. aureus

A

Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Dicloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DOC for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effect of vancomycin when infused rapidly

A

Red Neck syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DOC for Vancomycin resistant SA

A

Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is carried in which gene?

A

mecA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Whitish non hemolytic colonies on blood agar that forms biofilms

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually active women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for S saprophyticus infection

A

TMP SMX

Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What produces scarlet fever in S.pyogenes infection?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Protease in strep pyogenes that rapidly destroys tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis

A

Exotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Titer to document antecedent pharyngitis in S.pyogenes

A

Anti streptolysin O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Titer to document antecedent skin infection in S.pyogenes
Anti DNAse B
26
Perioral blisters with honey colored crusts Accumulation of neutrophils beneath stratum corneum
Impetigo
27
Complication of impetigo
Post strep GN
28
Superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics
Erysipelas
29
Most common bacterial cause of sore throat
S. pyogenes
30
Fever strawberry tongue centrifugal rash (sandpaper like), desquamation What disease and causative agent?
Scarlet fever | S. pyogenes
31
Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome is due to this toxin
Exotoxin A Exotoxin B- necrotizing fasciitis
32
Jones Criteria for Rheumatic fever
PECCS ``` Polyarthritis Erythema marginatum Carditis Chorea Subcutaneous nodules ```
33
DOC for S.pyogenes
Pen G
34
Transmission of S. agalactiae
Transvaginal | Transplacental
35
Most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis and meningitis
S. agalactiae
36
DOC for S. agalactiae infection
Pen G | PenG + aminoglycoside for serious infections
37
All pregnant women must be screened for GBS colonization at how many weeks AOG?
35-37 weeks
38
Chemoprophylaxis with what drugs can be given 4 hours prior to delivery for suspected S. agalactiae infection?
IV penicillin or ampicillin
39
Endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery may be due to
Enterococcus faecalis
40
Marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy can be due to
S.bovis
41
Native valve endocarditis can be caused by
S. aureus
42
Prosthetic valve endocarditis cause
S.epidermidis
43
GIT surgery endocarditis
Group D enterococcus
44
Ability to evade phagocytosis is due to
M protein
45
Gram positive lancet shaped cocci in pairs or chains Positive Quellung reaction
S. pneumoniae
46
Encapsulated bacteria:
Some Killers Have Pretty Nice and Shiny Bodies ``` S. pneumoniae Klebsiella H influenzae Pseudomonas Neisseria meningitidis Salmonella B group strep (agalactiae) ```
47
Most common cause of CAP Otitis media Bacterial sinusitis Adult meningitis
S pneumoniae
48
Treatment for S. pneumoniae
Pencillin G
49
Most common cause of most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis
S. sanguis
50
Treatment for Viridans strep
Pen G with or without Gentamicin
51
Spore forming non motile aerobic BOX CAR SHAPED
Bacillus anthracis
52
Anaerobic spore forming TENNIS RACKET LIKE
Clostridium tetani
53
Anaerobic gas forming spore forming
Clostridium perfringens
54
Spore forming anaerobic, pseudomembranes
Clostridium difficile
55
Nonspore forming aerobic nonmotile CHINESE CHARACTERS
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
56
Nonspore forming aerobic curved | TUMBLING MOTILITY
Listeria monocytogenes
57
Listeria | Sing to the tune of Disturbia
Listeria Tumbling motility and curved Aerobic, non spore forming Gram positive with endotoxin Ampi- Genta
58
Capsule of bacillus anthracis is made up of
Poly D glutamate
59
Mediates entry of lethal and edema factor of bacillus anthracis
Protective Antigen
60
Woolsorter's disease | Medusa head morphology
Bacillus anthracis
61
Inhalational Anthrax causes enlarged lymph nodes in this area
Mediastinum
62
DOC for cutaneous anthrax
Ciprofloxacin
63
DOC for inhalational/ GIT anthrax
Cipro + additional antibiotics ( rifampin vanco clinda imipinem penicillin clarithro)
64
Pulmonary Hemorrhage can be caused by
SAW placed in the lungs can cause hemorrhage Pulmonary anthrax Weil syndrome (severe leptospirosis) Congenital syphilis
65
Ophthalmitis that occurs after traumatic penetrating eye injury with a slil contaminated object Complete loss of light perception 48 hours after injury Causative agent?
Bacillus cereus
66
Tennis racket appearance of clostridium tetani is due to the presence of
Terminal spores
67
Tetanospasmin in clostridium tetani infection is a protease that cleaves proteins involved in the release of ______ from Renshaw cells
Glycine
68
Progression of tetanus timeline
1 week toxin uptake 1 day disinhibition 1 month toxin degradation
69
Treatment for tetanus
Metronidazole or penicillin Tetanus immunoglobulin Vaccination every 10 years
70
Tetanus prophylaxis | Clean wound, unrecalled hx or less than 3 doses
Toxoid only
71
Tetanus prophylaxis | Clean wound, more than 3 doses
Toxoid if last dose given more than 10 years ago
72
Tetanus prophylaxis | Contaminated wound, unrecalled hx or less than 3 doses
Toxoid AND IG
73
Tetanus prophylaxis | Contaminated wound, more than 3 doses
Toxoid only if last dose given more than 5 years ago
74
MOA of tetanospasmin
Prevent release of GABA by cleaving synaptobrevin 2
75
Botulinum toxin works by
Blocking acetylcholine release causing flaccid paralysis
76
Botox is a commercisl preparation of which exotoxin?
Exotoxin A
77
Bulbar signs of food borne botulism
``` 4 Ds Diplopia Dysarthria Dysphonia Dysphagia ```
78
Triad of botulism
Symmetrical descending flaccid paralysis with prominent bulbar involvement Absence of fever Intact sensorium
79
Treatment of Botulism
Ventilatory support Gastric lavage Metronidazole Botulinum antitoxin
80
Gas gangrene in clostridium perfringens is due to
Alpha toxin | Gas formation due to anaerobic metabolism
81
Food poisoning due to clostridium perfringens incubation period
8-16 hours
82
Treatment for gas gangrene
Debridement | Peniciliin
83
Anaerobic gram positive spore forming Transmitted by feco oral route Important intermediaries include hand of hospital personnel
Clostrdium difficile
84
Use of these antibiotics can cause C. difficile infection
Clinda 2nd and 3rd generation ceph Ampicillin
85
Treatment of pseudomembranous colitis
Metronidazole or vancomycin | Causative antibiotic should be withdrawn
86
ABCDEFG of diphtheria
``` ADP ribosylation Beta prophage Corynebacterium diphtheria DTAP vaccine Elongation factor 2 Granules (metachromatic) Gray pseudomembranous pharyngitis G penicillin (pen G) ```
87
Pathogenesis of listeria wherein it propels the bacteria through the membranes of 1 cell to the other
Actin rockets
88
Transmission of listeria is through
Unpasteurized milk or raw vegetables
89
Treatment for listeria
Ampicillin