Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

0 BOARDS > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

duodenal & gastric ulcers: your first thought regarding causative agent is?

A

that damn H. Pylori

90% duo
75% gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which 3 medications cause peptic ulcer disease?

A

NSAIDS
ASA
Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

duodenal vs gastric ulcers: what age ranges for each?

A

duodenal: youngies - 30-55
gastric: old farts - 55-65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Your patient has hella gnawing epigastric pain. How do tell what kind of peptic ulcer disease it is?

A

Ask ‘em if food makes it better or worse. If it’s a duodenal ulcer, it feels better after eating. If it’s a gastric ulcer, it feels worse after eating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

peptic ulcer disease: s/s x3

A

both: gnawing epigastric pain
duod: pain relief w food
gastric: pain worses w food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Expected physical findings associated with PUD?

A

PE unremarkable
GI BLEEDING (20%): melena, hematemesis, or coffee-ground emesis (duodenum)
PERF (5-10%): severe epigastric pain, quiet BS, rigid abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Your patient is barfing up coffee ground looking shit and you suspect an ulcer. What is the location of the ulcer in this poor soul?

A

DUODENUM!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You think your patient has a perforated peptic ulcer because of what findings in your physical exam?

A

severe epigastric pain
RIGID/board-like acute abdomen
QUIET bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kinda drugs (class and names) you wanna prescribe first to a patient with PUD? When should the patients take them?

A

Go for them H2 Receptor Antagonists, like:
famotidine (Pepcid) 40 mg
ranitidine (Zantac) 300 mg

take qHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What’s an important educational point for PPI?

A

take 30 minutes before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PPI black box warning?

A

↑ RISK HIP FRACTURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Okay you’re gonna try PPI with your PUD patient. What are two options + their doses?

A

pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg
omeprazole (Prilosec) 20 mg

QD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NAME 4 MUCOSAL PROTECTIVE AGENTS

+ an administration consideration pertinent to all of them

A

sucralfate (Carafate)
bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
misoprostol (Cytotec)
antacids

GIVE 2 HOURS APART FROM OTHER MEDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medication used to treat PUD is associated with decreases in nosocomial pneumonia? What IS it? **

A

sucralfate (Carafate) - it’s a mucosal protective agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What mucosal protective agent used to treat PUD has antimicrobial action against H.Pylori?

A

bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which medication is used prophylactically against NSAID-induced peptic ulcers?

A

misoprostol (Cytotec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What medication should be prescribed for patients who cannot d/c NSAIDs in order to protect them from developing ulcers?

A

PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three combination therapy trios indicated for H. Pylori treatment?

A

metronidazole + omeprazole + amoxicillin
amoxicillin

metronidazole + omeprazole + clarithromycin

amoxicillin + omeprazole + clarithromycin

BID x 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which 3 kids of mucosal protective agents do not prevent NSAID-induced ulcers?

A

H2 receptor antagonists
carafate (Sucralfate)
antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

H. Pylori develops quick resistance against which 2 meds? And slower resistance against what other 2 meds?

A

QUICK:
metronidazole (Flagyl) & clarithromycin (Biaxin)

NOT:
amoxicillin & tetracyclin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the anti-ulcer therapy recommended after H. Pylori therapy is complete?

A

3 - 7 weeks after completion of previous regimen:

  • if duodenal ulcer: omeprazole 40mg QD or lansoprazole (Prevacid) 30 mg QD for 7 more weeks
  • H2 blocker or sucralfate for 6 - 8 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PUD: inpt mgmt x13

A
  • IV access: IVF, blood, H2 blockers
  • baseline labs: CBC, PT/PTT, BMP
  • O2
  • endoscopy, GI angiography
  • urinary cath
  • NPO/ng for lavage
  • monitor abdomen: quiet, rigid, rebound tenderness
  • if coagulopathy: FFP
  • if thrombocytopenia: transfuse plts
  • GI surgical eval
  • upright or decub films: in 75%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should you order if the cause of a GI bleed is unexplained?

A

GI angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is ng tube/gastric lavage not always necessary in GI bleeds?

A

80% of bleeds stop spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the preferred secretory agent to give to in-patients with GI bleeds?

A

H2 blocker - ex: famotidine (Pepcid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

42 yo. M presents to your clinic with complaints of epigastric pain that increased intensity over past two weeks. He describes the pain as decreasing after he eats. This finding mostly suggests what?

A

Duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is GERD?

A

backflow of acidic gastric contents into the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two main causes of GERD?

A

Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter

Delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 65 yo. M complains of dysphagia and epigastric pain. He reports hx of ETOH use and smoking for 25 years. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

GERD: hallmark s/s

A

occurs at night +/- recumbent position
retrosternal burning
bitter taste in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the elderly what is a classic sign of GERD?

A

dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What diagnostic should you order for suspected GERD? What is the rationale for it?

A

esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

to r/o esophageal cancer, Barrett’s Esophagus, PUD, and more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

GERD: mgmt x5

A
  • antacids PRN
  • H2 blockers: qHS or BID
  • PPI if H2 ineffective
  • GI/Surgical consult PRN
  • non-pharm measures (elevate HOB, don’t eat stuff that exacerbates, stop smoking, weight reduction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

inflammation of liver with resultant dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe Hep A.

A

A is for ANAL: fecal-oral route transmission

  • enteral virus
  • sources: contaminated food, water, intimate sexual contact
  • mortality rate super low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When and for how long does a Hep A patient’s blood and stool remain infectious?

A

During the 2 - 6 week incubation period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is Hep B transmitted?

A

blood/blood products
sexual activity
mother to fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe Hep B.

A

Blood borne DNA virus found in serum, semen, saliva, secretions (vaginal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe Hep C.

A

Blood borne RNA virus traditionally associated with blood transfusion and IVDU, but source of infection can be uncertain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Hep C?

A

Blood

  • transfusions
  • IVDU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

hepatitis: pre-icteric s/s

A

aversion to smoking, EtOH

fever, HA, n/v, fatigue, malaise, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hepatitis: icteric s/s

A 
clay colored stool
RUQ pain
jaundice, pruritis
dark urine
weight loss
sometimes: hepatosplenomegaly and low grade fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

any hepatitis: notable findings

A

WBC: low - normal
UA: protein, bilirubin
LFTs: ↑ ALT, AST (500 - 2000 IU/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What serology is diagnostic of acute Hep A?

A

Anti-HAV
IgM

peak during first week, disappear in 3 - 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What serology implies previous exposure, recovery, & immunity to Hep A?

A

Anti-HAV

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What serology indicates active Hep B infection?

A

HBsAg (first evidence of infection, + in carriers and chronic)

HBeAg (= circulating virus in highly infectious sera)

Anti-HBc
IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What serology indicates recovery from Hep B?

A

Anti-HBsAg

Anti-HBc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False: There is a chronic form of Hep. A.

A

False. There is NO chronic form of Hep. A.

Hep A peaks at one week and disappears in 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the first evidence of Hep B infection?

A

Hep B surface antigens - HBsAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What indicates cirulating HBV and highly infectious serum?

A

HBeAg - envelope protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the serology indicating active Hep C infection?

A 
HCV RNA (acute)
Anti-HCV (seen in acute or prior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What diagnostic test detects presence of antibodies to hepatitis viruses?

A

Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What diagnostic test is used to distinguish prior exposure from current infection of Hep C?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

HCV RNA means acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

hepatitis: mgmt

A 
SUPPORTIVE! 
rest
fluids 3 - 4L /day
NO protein diet
No ETOH, drugs

Vitamin K for prolonged PT (gt 15)
Lactulose 30 mL PO/PR if elevated ammonia (hepatic encephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Your hepatitis patient has elevated ammonia levels suggestive of hepatic encephalopathy. What pharmacological intervention would you order?

A

Lactulose 30 mL PO or PR

56
Q

Your hepatitis patient’s labs come back with PT of 20. What intervention do you order?

A

Vitamin K to promote clotting

57
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

INFLAMMATION or localized PERFORATION of 1+ diverticula with ABSCESS

incidence higher in people who have low dietary fiber intake, and women

58
Q

What type of pain is typical of diverticulitis?

A

mild - mod aching LLQ

59
Q

45 yo. M presents to your office with complaints of colicky cramping abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant and recent history of constipation. Patient now complains of nausea and vomiting x 2 days. You suspect:

A

Diverticulitis - inflammation; perforation; abscess formation

60
Q

What diagnostic should you order for all patients with suspected diverticulitis?

A

CXR: assess for pneumoperitoneum

61
Q

What sigmoidoscopy findings would you expect for diverticulitis?

A

inflamed mucosa

62
Q

diverticulitis: diagnostics

A
  • stool heme test (+)
  • sigmoidoscopy: inflamed mucosa
  • CT scan: abscess evaluation
  • CXR: pneumoperitoneum
63
Q

diverticulitis: mgmt

A 
NPO ****
- IVF 
- IV abx
metronidazole (Flagyl)
ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
clindamycin (Cleocin)
ampicillin
- if significant GIB, treat as w PUD
- surgical consult
64
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with gallstones 90%

65
Q

What kind of pain is typical of cholecystitis?

A

sudden, steady, severe in epigastrum or right hypochondrium

66
Q

cholecystitis: hallmark s/s

A
  • after eating large fatty meal
  • pain: sudden, steady, severe epigastric or R hypochondrium
  • vomiting = relief
67
Q

What sign elicited during PE suggests cholecysititis?

A

Murphy’s Sign: deep pain on inspiration when fingers are placed under right rib cage

68
Q

cholecystitis: expected PE findings

A

Murphy’s Sign
RUQ tender to palpation, palpable gallbladder 15%
guarding
rebound tenderness

69
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic of cholecystitis?

A

US

70
Q

cholecystitis: mgmt

A
  • analgesics
  • NPO
  • NGT (gastric decompression)
  • IVF (crystalloid)
  • IV abx: broad spectrum, like piperacillin
  • surgical consult (choley lap)
71
Q

What are the two most important components in the mgmt of cholecystitis?

A

NPO

IV broad spectrum abx - piperacillin

72
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

acute pancreas inflammation d/t panc enzymes seeping into surrounding tissue
- autodigestion of the pancreas!

73
Q

** What are the causes of pancreatitis? **

A 
gallbladder disease
heavy EtOH
hypercalcemia
hyperlipidemia
trauma, drugs (sulfa drugs, furosemide, thiazides, estrogen, azathioprine)
74
Q

What pain is typical of acute pancreatitis?

A

sudden, severe epigastric pain

  • worsens: movement, walking, supine
  • improves: sitting, leaning forward
  • radiates: usually to back, can go anywhere
75
Q

What 2 signs are classic for hemorrhagic acute pancreatitis?

A

Grey Turner’s: flank bruising

Cullen’s: umbilical bruising

76
Q

acute pancreatitis: notable PE findings x4

A
  • upper abd tender to palpation usually WITHOUT guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness
  • distension
  • absent BS (if paralytic ileus)
  • mild jaundice
77
Q

What labs are elevated in 90% of acute pancreatitis patients?

A

amylase (normal: 50 - 180)

lipase (normal: 14 - 280)

78
Q

What lab value is suggestive of pancreatic necrosis?

A

Elevated C-reactive protein

79
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is commonly seen with acute pancreatitis? What are 3 manifestations you can watch for?

A

hypocalcemia
under 7 = tetany
watch for Chvostek & Trousseau

80
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic imaging to order for acute pancreatitis?

A

CT (more useful than US)

81
Q

acute pancreatitis: Ransom’s Criteria

A

“george washington got lazy after he broke C-A-B-E”: evaluates prognosis 5-6 = 40% mort, 7+ = 100%

PROGNOSTIC @ ADMIT:
G reater than 55
W BCs 16+
G lucose 200+
L DH 350+
A ST 250+
PROGNOSTIC DURING FIRST 48 HOURS:
H CT drop 10+
B UN increase 5+
C a under 8
A rt O2 under 60
B ase deficit 4+
E st fluid sequestration 6L+
82
Q

In the management of acute pancreatitis when is it indicated to advance from NPO to clear liquid diet?

A

Once patient is PAIN FREE and BS RETURN

83
Q

What are 6 causes of a bowel obstruction?

A 
adhesions ** (will pick up in surgical hx)
tumors (colon cancer)
volvus
hernias
fecal impaction
ileus
84
Q

What signs are indicative of a proximal bowel obstruction?

A

Vomiting within MINUTES of pain onset
Minimal distension

(the longer to vom, the lower it is)

85
Q

What signs are indicative of a distal bowel obstruction?

A

Vomiting within HOURS of pain onset
Basketball belly

(the longer to vom, the lower it is)

86
Q

What pain is typical of bowel obstruction?

A

initially: cramping, periumbilical
later: constant, diffuse

87
Q
  • What bowel sounds are associated with a bowel obstruction *
A

high pitched tinkles

88
Q

What is the diagnostic standard for bowel obstruction and what are the findings?

A

abdominal plain films, show dilated loops of bowel and air-fluid levels
Horizontal pattern: SBO
Frame pattern: LBO

89
Q

bowel obstruction: mgmt x4

A

IVF
NGT
Broad spectrum abx
Surgical intervention if complete obstruction

90
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

idiopathic inflammation of the colon and RECTUM
- DIFFUSE mucosal inflammation

has periods of symptomatic / remission

91
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

upper bowel malabsorption syndrome that can occur in any portion of the GI tract and in any layer of the bowel tissue

cobblestone & peyer’s patches

92
Q

What is the hallmark sign of Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Bloody diarrhea.

93
Q

What is diagnostic of ulcerative colitis?

A

Sigmoidoscopy

PS stool studies negative

94
Q
  • ulcerative colitis: mgmt *
A
  • mesalamine (Canasa) suppositories or enemas x 3 - 12 wks

- hydrocortisone suppositories & enemas

95
Q

What is a mesenteric infarct?

A

inadequate blood flow through the mesenteric circulation → ischemia & gangrene of bowel

poor prognosis: 60%+ die

96
Q

What are 3 causes and 2 risk factors of mesenteric infarcts?

A
  • arterial or venous thrombosis/embolism
  • atherosclerosis
  • smoking

increases risk:

  • older adults
  • coagulopathy (ex: s/p cardiac, AAA surgery)
97
Q

What is the classic symptom of a mesenteric infarct?

A

pain out of proportion to PE findings

Sudden onset or cramping colicky abdominal pain (usually after eating)

98
Q

What is the diagnostic for mesenteric infarct?

A

Abdominal films

CT scan

99
Q

What is pancreas-related lab value is elevated in mesenteric infart?

A

amylase but NOT lipase

100
Q

mesenteric infarct: mgmt

A

EMERGENCY SURGICAL INTERVENTION

101
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

inflammation of the appendix caused by obstruction of the appendiceal lumen.

SURGICAL EMERGENCY! untreated = gangrene w/in 36 hrs

102
Q

What pain is typical of appendicitis?

A

begins as vague colicky umbilical pain that shifts to RLQ after several hours
- worsens/localizes with coughing

103
Q

What is Psoas sign?

A

Pain with right thigh extention

- suggests appendicitis

104
Q

What is Obturator’s Sign?

A

Pain with internal rotation of flexed right thigh

- suggests appendicitis

105
Q

What is a positive Rovsing’s Sign?

A

RLQ pain when pressure applied to LLQ

- suggests appendicitis

106
Q

What is McBurney’s Point?

A

Associated with appendicitis. Pain illicited with one finger RLQ

107
Q

What is diagnostic for appendicitis?

A

CT scan`

108
Q

appendicitis: mgmt

A

MEDICAL EMERGENCY! STAT SURGICAL CONSULT

  • IV broad spectrum abx
  • IVF
  • analgesics
109
Q

What is the most critical assessment finding in the differential diagnosis of the acute abdomen with peritonitis such as in a patient with a bowel perforation?

A

rigidity =

110
Q

50 yo. M presents with complaints of decreased stool caliber, constipation, and black tarry stool. You would:

a. consult general surgery for colon cancer resection
b. consult oncology
c. order more tests
d. 2 units PRBC stat

A

C. Order more tests

111
Q

What is the classic xray finding associated with mesenteric infarct?

A

thumbprinting on abdominal film

112
Q

What two antibiotics are associated with C. difficile?

A

Clindamycin

Ampicillin

113
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of C. diff?

A

metrondiazole (Flagyl)

114
Q

Projectile vomiting is a hallmark symptoms of what GI disease?

A

Acute pancreatitis

115
Q

25 yo. F with PMH significant for Chron’s disease presents with abdominal pain fever and nausea. An abdominal xray reveals air under the diaphragm. What is your next plan of care?

A

Obtain stat surgical consult and start broad spectrum antibiotics due to suspected bowel perforation and ARF peritonitis

116
Q

Pneumoperitoneum is clinically significant for what potential problem?

A

Bowel perforation resulting in peritonitis

117
Q

35 yo. F health care worker has sustained a needle stick from a patient known to have hep B. What should the plan of care be for the health care worker?

A

Give HIBG immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine immediately

118
Q

You’re auscultating your patient’s big belly and, uh oh, you hearing high pitched tinkling sounds. Crap, what are you think?

A

OBSTRUCTION!

119
Q

NAME THE 3 MOST COMMON GI PERFS AAAAAAND GO!!

A
  1. ruptured diverticula
  2. perforated ulcer
  3. ruptured appendix
120
Q

What the hell is peptic ulcer disease?

A

either duodenal or gastric ulcers, yo

usually old farts get gastrics

121
Q

Okay so you think your patient has peptic ulcer disease. What kinda testing ya gonna consider?

A

labs are usually pretty normal, MIGHT see anemia on CBC

  • H. Pylori testing
  • consider endoscopy after 8 - 12 weeks tx
122
Q

When do you order an endoscopy for a patient with PUD?

A

Use it to check ‘em after they’ve been treated for 8 - 12 weeks

123
Q

You have a patient with an acute abdomen, what two differentials pop into your head?

A

GI perf or pneumoperitoneum

124
Q

Why the hell do I have to know outpatient management of PUD? Whatever, what would it be?

A
  1. Try an H2 blocker
  2. If it doesn’t work, up to BID
  3. If THAT doesn’t work, try a PPI.
  4. Tolerance develops so switch around within drug class.
125
Q

What’s a reason you’d go for a PPI over an H2 blocker when treating PUD?

A

Longterm use of PPI is associated with rebound GERD.

126
Q

By how much do antacids reduce gastric acidity?

A

SIKE THEY DON’T

127
Q

What CXR finding in 75% of cases of PUD?

A

upright or decubitus films: free air!

128
Q

How is Hep A transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route

contaminated food & water, sex

129
Q

For which GI disorder does vomiting often bring relief?

A

cholecystitis

130
Q

What happens if you palpate the upper abdomen of a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

upper abd will be tender to palpation but usually WITHOUT guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness

131
Q

What is the difference in the response elicited by palpation between PUD, cholecystitis, and acute pancreatitis patients?

A

PUD: good luck palpating that because it’s an acute abdomen that is hella rigid

choley: RUQ tender to palpation plus guarding and rebound pain

acute panc: upper abd tender to palpation but usually WITHOUT guarding, rigidity, rebound

132
Q

amylase normals

A

50 - 180

133
Q

lipase normals

A

14 - 280

134
Q

What kind of pain is typical of mesenteric infarcts?

A
  • pain out of proportion to PE findings

- sudden onset or cramping colicky abd pain (usually after eating)

135
Q

A 60 yo M patient s/p AAA surgery complains of crampy abdominal pain that began after he ate lunch. You perform a PE and it seems negative but his pain is significant. What do you suspect?

A

mesenteric infarct

0 BOARDS (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions