GI Flashcards

1
Q

Ghrelin

A

Stimulates appetite in hypothalamus
from stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Leptin

A

Inhibits appetite in hypothalamus
from adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Breast milk lacks

A

Vitamin D, K
K supplemented at delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Supplementation for breastfed infants

A

Vitamin D deficency risk d/t exclusive breastfeeding, lack of sunlight exposure, dark skin pigmentation

Iron deficiency risk d/t preterm/low birthweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis

A

Chronic autoimmune liver disease characterized by destruction of small midsized intrahepatic bile ducts resulting in cholestasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis characteristics

A

Middle aged female
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
associated with autoimmune diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis biopsy

A

patchy lymphocytic inflammation
leading to granulomatous destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is budd-chiari syndrome

A

occlusion of hepatic veins resulting in increase in intrahepatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tropheryma whipplei

A

Whipple disease
gram +, rod shaped actinomycete
acid-schiff (PAS) +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is carcinoid tumor

A

Well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor (WDNET)
Can cause appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome

A

A carcinoid tumor that metastasized to the liver
(flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is Eosinophilic esophagitis

A

chronic Th2 cell-mediated disorder triggered by food antigens
eosinophilic infiltration of the esophageal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Eosinophilic esophagitis epidemiology

A

history of atopic conditions
men>women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how to eosinophilic esophagitis present

A

intermittent dysphagia
reflux, vomiting, chest or abd. pain
esophageal food impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia gross appearance

A

well-circumscribed, solitary mass with characteristic central stellate scar from which fibrous septa radiate to the periphery
Benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is diabetic gastroparesis

A

autonomic neuropathy
destruction of enteric neurons
failure of relaxation in fundus and uncoordinated peristalsis
d/t long standing DM (chronic hyperglycemia)

16
Q

Diabetic gastroparesis presentation

A

Postprandial bloating and vomiting
early satiety
impaired nutrition ->weight loss

17
Q

Promotility drugs

A

metoclopramide
erythromycin

18
Q

Intraperitoneal organs

A

spleen, liver, stomach, transverse colon, small intestines

19
Q

Retroperitoneal organs

A

kidney, adrenal glands, pancreas, ascending and descending colon, duodenum (except 1st part)

20
Q

Separate indirect and direct inguinal hernias

A

Inferior epigastric vessels
Indirect are lateral
Direct are medial
Both located above the inguinal ligament

21
Q

What are indirect inguinal hernias

A

d/t failure of processus vaginalis to obliterate
abd contents protrude lateral to inferior epigastric vessels through the deep (internal) inguinal ring

22
Q

What are direct inguinal hernias

A

d/t to weakness in the transversalis fascia
abd. contents protrude medial to inferior epigastric vessels into the hesselbach triangle
Less prone to incarceration

23
Q

Antidiarrheal agents

A

opioid agonists
Bulk forming agents
bismuth subsalicylate
octreotide
bile acid sequestrants

24
Q

Opioid agonist

A

antidiarrheal
bind to mu receptor in colonic myenteric plexus, slowing peristalsis
(loperamide, diphenoxylate with atropine, tincture of opoim)

25
Q

Bulk forming agents

A

antidiarrheal
absorb water and intraluminal contents to form stool
(psyllium, pectin)

26
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate

A

antidiarrheal
stimulates intestinal fluid absorption and inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

27
Q

Octeotide

A

antidiarrheal agent
somatostatin analog that reduces secretion of pancreatic and GI hormones

28
Q

Bile acid sequestrants

A

antidiarrheal agent, bile acid in intestines (used for bile-acid diarrhea)
(cholestyramine)

29
Q

What diseases are associated with celiac disease

A

autoimmune disorders (DM Type 1)
Cancer risk: T-cell lymphoma

30
Q

Celiac disease diagnosis

A

serology: tissue transglutaminase IgA, antiendomysial antibodies
Duodenal biopsy: intraepithelial lymphocytes, villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia

31
Q

How does portal HTN cause splenomegaly

A

Splenic vein is part of portal circulation. Cirrhosis/alcoholic liver disease etc increase portal HTN, blood backs up to spleen.
Venous congestion causes expansion of red pulp in spleen

32
Q

what does alcohol do to liver

A

decrease free fatty acid oxidation
Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio

33
Q

what is biliary sludge

A

gallbladder hypomotility causes excess dehydration of bile. creates biliary sludge.
precursor to stone formation
asymptomatic or causes biliary colic

34
Q

How does cirrhosis activated RAAS

A

Cirrhosis-> portal HTN -> splanchnic vasodilation -> decreases effective arterial volume and lowers systemic BP -> decrease renal perfusion -> +RAAS
Give spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist)(ACE-I would promote hypoperfusion)

35
Q

H. Pylori associated malignancy

A

Adenocarcinoma, MALT lymphoma

36
Q

Autoimmune gastritis associated malignancy

A

adenocarcinoma, carcinoid