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Independent > GG F-R > Flashcards

GG F-R Flashcards

1
Q

Any officer returning to the NPB from a specialized assignment of ___ must complete a field training refresher course.

A

More than three (3) years

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2
Q

The length of the FTS program shall be:

A

Approximately two weeks.

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3
Q

For RPO to apply to a Baker Act and the seizure of firearms, the following two elements must be met:

A
  • The individual poses potential danger to himself / herself or others; AND
  • The individual has made a credible threat of violence against another person.
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4
Q

Under the RPO, it is the preferred policy that the firearms are taken by the ___ unless ___.

A

The officer for safekeeping; a third party transfer is specifically requested by the individual.

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5
Q

(RPO) When may a detective seek a search warrant from the court to conduct a search for firearms and ammunition owned by the individual?

A
  • A RPO is granted and the individual fails to comply with the order
  • The individual is not present or available to comply with the order.
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6
Q

The determination of whether to seize any currency must be made by:

A

A supervisor.

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7
Q

___ is responsible for coordination of all grievance procedures.

A

The Professional Standards Division commander

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8
Q

The supervisor who receives a grievance at the initial step will notify:

A

The Professional Standards Division commander and provide a copy of the grievance.

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9
Q

The ___ receiving the grievance will be documented acknowledging receipt of the grievance.

A

Date and name of the person

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10
Q

The ___ is a valuable method for management to determine agency problems.

A

Grievance procedure

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11
Q

All line supervisors shall conduct roll-call inspections of personnel under their command at __.

A

Frequent and irregular intervals

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12
Q

All line supervisors shall conduct roll-call inspections of personnel under their command to ensure __.

A

Appearance and attire of personnel and Department goals / objectives are properly pursued.

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13
Q

Documentation of roll call inspections is not required unless ___.

A

Such inspection reveals an issue where formal corrective action may be required.

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14
Q

Line supervisors shall: (2)

A
  • Monitor the daily or ongoing activities of the personnel under their command.
  • At frequent and varied times, observe the manner in which members under their supervision perform their duties and react to various situations.
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15
Q

Line Supervision observations/inspections are the primary responsibility of all line supervisors and shall include at a minimum: (4)

A
  1. Punctuality and appearance
  2. Roll call inspections (where appropriate)
  3. Field inspections
  4. Vehicle and equipment inspections
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16
Q

Documented inspections shall be conducted by line supervisors: (2)

A
  • Semiannually

- When personnel are reassigned by each line supervisor

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17
Q

A general inspection and inventory of all equipment assigned to the division/unit/section shall be done:

A

Annually

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18
Q

Any inspection that reveals serious deficiencies in personnel, equipment or facilities shall be ___.

A

Documented in a memo to the next higher level of command.

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19
Q

The Line-of-Duty Death packet is only to be opened by someone other than the employee who completed it in the following circumstances: (3)

A
  1. In the event of a serious injury leaving the employee unable to communicate
  2. In the event of a line-of-duty death
  3. As directed by immediate next of kin in an emergency.
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20
Q

In the event of a serious injury or line of duty death, the ___ will retrieve and open the envelope to review its contents.

A

Professional Standards Division Commander

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21
Q

When mass arrests can reasonably be anticipated, ___ will be assigned to the field processing and transportation operation.

A

A half or full squad

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22
Q

Documented Mental Health refresher training will be conducted ___.

A

Annually

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23
Q

For missing person cases, the location at which the person was last seen determines:

A

The jurisdiction of the case.

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24
Q

The Safe Haven Law (FSS 383.50) states:

A

That a parent may anonymously abandon their unharmed newborn child (of not more than one week old) at any Safe Haven facility without the fear of prosecution.

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25
Q

A Safe Haven facility is defined as:

A

Any hospital, emergency medical service station, or fire station staffed with full time emergency medical service technicians, paramedics, or firefighters.

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26
Q

Missing Endangered Person means: (4)

A
  1. A missing child;
  2. A missing adult younger than 26 years of age; or
  3. A missing adult 26 years of age or older who is suspected by a law enforcement agency of being endangered or the victim of criminal activity.
  4. A missing adult who meets the criteria for activation of the Silver Alert Plan of the Department of Law Enforcement or the Local Silver Alert Plan.
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27
Q

What are the nine “unusual circumstances” for reporting missing persons?

A
  • Child is under 13yoa.
  • Child is believed to be out of the zone of safety for his age / development stage.
  • Mental Incapacitation
  • Drug Dependent (prescribed meds)
  • Potential victim of foul play or sexual exploitation
  • Child is subjected to a “dangerous environment”
  • Child absent from home for more than 24 hours before being reported
  • Child believed to be with adults who endanger the welfare of the minor
  • Absence is a significant deviation from established patterns of behavior and cannot be explained
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28
Q

In circumstances that determine no foul play or unusual circumstances are evident for a missing adult, the officer will initiate:

A

A police report and may issue an “attempt to locate” radio and teletype broadcast to other law enforcement actions.

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29
Q

All missing children are considered:

A

“Missing Endangered Persons”

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30
Q

A supervisor shall notify CID on all:

A

Missing EMDANGERED person investigations, which includes all missing children.

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31
Q

The waiting period to report all missing children, including runaways, is:

A

There is no waiting period for reporting

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32
Q

The criteria for a Florida Amber Alert to be issued is as follows: (5)

A
  • Child must be under 18 years of age.
  • The local law enforcement agency has a well-founded belief based on an active investigation, that a kidnapping has occurred.
  • The local law enforcement agency has a well-founded belief based on an active investigation, that the child is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury.
  • There is a detailed description of the child, or the abductor or the abductor’s vehicle to broadcast to the public.
  • The local law enforcement agency recommends activation.
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33
Q

For activation of the Amber Alert OR Missing Child Alert after approval from the District LT, ___ must then contact 1-888-356-4774 to initiate the Amber Alert through F.D.L.E.

A

The on-scene supervisor

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34
Q

What is A Missing Child Alert?

A

A second level activation that can be issued for a child who is missing and believed to be in danger, when there is no apparent sign of abduction, or does not meet all five Amber criteria but circumstances indicated that the child may be in danger.

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35
Q

The criteria for a Florida Missing Child Alert to be issued is as follows: (4)

A
  • Child must be under 18 years of age.
  • The local law enforcement agency has a well-founded belief based on an active investigation, that the child is in danger of death or serious bodily injury.
  • There is a detailed description or photograph of the child.
  • The local law enforcement agency recommends activation.
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36
Q

A CID supervisor AND detective will respond to the scene for investigative follow-up regarding the following missing persons:

A

a. Children 13 years of age or younger

b. Amber Alerts

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37
Q

A CID detective will respond to the scene for investigative follow-up regarding Missing Endangered Persons/Adults for the following:

A
  • Amber and Silver Alert
  • Suspected of being endangered or the victim of criminal activity.
  • Children under 13yoa
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38
Q

What is the criteria for the Silver Alert Program? (6)

A
  • The investigating officer has initiated a regional media alert.
  • The missing person is 60 years of age or older.
  • There must be a clear indication that the individual has a diagnosed cognitive impairment, such as Dementia or;
  • Under extraordinary circumstances when a person age 18 to 59 has irreversible deterioration of intellectual faculties and the officer has determined the missing person lacks the capacity to consent and that the use of dynamic message signs may be the only possible way to rescue the missing person.
  • The missing person is believed to be in danger and driving a vehicle.
  • Silver Alert activation must be authorized by a supervisor.
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39
Q

The difference between the Silver Alert and the Local Silver Alert Program is:

A

The whether the subject is driving a vehicle or not.

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40
Q

If a missing person is not located within __ after the report is filed, a DNA sample must be obtained.

A

90 days

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41
Q

If a missing person is not located within __ after the report is filed, dental records must be obtained.

A

30 days

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42
Q

Whose responsibility is it to immediately report an injury that occurs on the job to his/her supervisor, and complete the injury form.

A

The injured employee.

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43
Q

Command Notification to the PSA section will be made within ___ of the initial investigation in order to provide basic facts to the command staff.

A

30 minutes

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44
Q

The shift commander sergeant will have a responsibility to:

A

Review shift personnel and coordinate duty assignments for the oncoming shift.

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45
Q

The Neighborhood Policing Bureau is comprised of two divisions:

A
  • Road Patrol Division

- District Support Division

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46
Q

As soon as practicable after an Officer Involved Shooting incident, the ___ will recover and replace the involved officer’s weapon and other related equipment.

A

Designated investigating authority or designee

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47
Q

An officer detailed to officer(s) involved in a shooting incident will act as:

A

A support person and ensure that no intrusions to the officer(s) occur.

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48
Q

The officer(s) directly involved in an officer involved shooting incident will be ___ as soon as reasonable possible.

A

Removed from the scene and taken to the hospital (regardless of physical injury to the officer)

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49
Q

When should a Crime Scene Contamination List be maintained during an Officer Involved Shooting?

A

After the curtilage of the structure or area beyond the crime scene is roped off.

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50
Q

The supervisor responding to an Officer Involved Shooting incident shall make assignments to accomplish the following: (6)

A
  1. Detail a Support Officer to involved LEO.
  2. The officer(s) directly involved in the incident will be removed from the scene and taken to the hospital as soon as reasonably possible.
  3. Immediately secure the crime scene.
  4. Rope off the curtilage of the structure or the area beyond the crime scene.
  5. Insure crowd control.
  6. Identify and remove witnesses from the crime scene.
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51
Q

When will members undergo mandatory psychological (fitness for duty) evaluation and counseling before returning to service?

A

In all cases where a person has been seriously injured or killed as a result of the application of deadly force by a member (or as deemed appropriate by the Chief).

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52
Q

Which departments record all injuries which occur during the course of employment?

A

The City’s Risk Management Department and the Police Department.

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53
Q

It is the injured employee’s responsibility to immediately:

A

Report an injury that occurs on the job to his/her supervisor, and complete the injury form.

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54
Q

Each active missing person case will be reviewed ___.

A

Monthly.

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55
Q

Upon receipt of information of an individual’s injury, the supervisor shall:

A
  • Insure an Employee Injury Report be completed

- Review the individual’s claim of injury, and either concur, or not, with the explanation of injury.

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56
Q

T/F: The injury report form shall be not completed if the employee does not want medical treatment.

A

False;

The injury report form shall be completed even if the employee does not want medical treatment.

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57
Q

The completed report of injury will be forwarded to the Division Commander prior to:

A

9am of the next regular business day, or as so thereafter as possible.

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58
Q

A photocopy or faxed copy of the Employee Injury Report must be forwarded to the City’s Risk Management Department within:

A

24 hours of the first notice of an individual’s work-related injury

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59
Q

During regular business hours, injuries that do not require emergency medical treatment (ER) shall be treated by:

A

A physician approved by the City’s Risk Management Department to render medical or surgical attention under the Worker’s Compensation Act.

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60
Q

Outside of regular business hours, injuries requiring immediate medical attention may be treated at:

A

Any hospital emergency room, the Employee Health Center, or other as directed by Risk Management personnel.

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61
Q

In cases of serious injury likely to result in extensive treatment or hospitalization, the injured individual shall be sent to:

A

The closest hospital having emergency facilities.

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62
Q

Employees who wish to go home and are not feeling well from a worker compensation related injury shall be directed to:

A

Risk Management for referral to a physician prior to leaving, or they will be charged sick time.

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63
Q

It is the responsibility of the officer to notify the Training Coordinator of a “Return to Work Authorization” in order to:

A

Determine the need to requalify with his/her firearm prior to returning to work.

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64
Q

Unless authorized by the supervisor, officers will not leave their assigned patrol zone for filling their gas tank before ___.

A

15 minutes prior to the end of their shift.

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65
Q

In the event the original officer who signed up for an overtime posting cannot fulfill the posting the officer must notify:

A

The District Lieutenant or Telestaff coordinator (if during normal business hours) or the on duty shift commander sergeant (if after normal business hours).

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66
Q

Officers and employees eligible by collective bargaining agreement will be paid a minimum of ___ hours, at the overtime rate, for “call-out” pay if the officer/employee is called back to duty with less than ___ hours work notice.

A

Two; Twenty-four

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67
Q

Payroll is approved before ___ of the next business day.

A

Noon

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68
Q

Code 2 and Code 3 response speeds shall be:

A

No greater than that which is reasonable and prudent.

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69
Q

A member shall not operate a police vehicle in any emergency response mode unless: (3)

A
  • Responding to an emergency call for service
  • When in a vehicular pursuit
  • As outlined for Traffic Stop procedures
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70
Q

A ___ shall be completed for a vehicle failure to stop situation.

A

Police incident report

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71
Q

The decision to initiate a pursuit shall be based on the initiating officer’s:

A

Reasonable belief at the time the pursuit is initiated that the person fleeing has committed a forcible felony as defined in F.S.S. 776.08.

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72
Q

When considering to initiate a pursuit, what forcible felony exception would not authorize a pursuit?

A

Burglary of a Conveyance, if there are no injuries to anyone or no threats of harm.

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73
Q

Unless __ or __ dictate otherwise, a pursuit shall consist of no more than two police vehicles.

A
  • Circumstances

- The shift supervisor who is responsible for the pursuit

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74
Q

The primary pursuit unit shall become secondary when: (2)

A
  • The fleeing vehicle comes under air surveillance

- when another unit has been assigned primary responsibility.

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75
Q

In a pursuit, the supervisor shall: (4)

A
  • Monitor incoming information
  • Coordinate and direct activities to ensure procedures are used
  • Have discretion to terminate the pursuit when factors are considered and the risks involved become too great.
  • Respond to the location where the vehicle stopped and evaluate if prudent to separate suspects from pursuing officers.
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76
Q

When reviewing the justification of the pursuit, consideration should be given to:

A

The reasonableness of the officer’s actions.

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77
Q

Pursuit intervention tactics, short of deadly force, such as low-speed tactical intervention techniques, low-speed channeling and the use of roadblocks are:

A

Not authorized for use.

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78
Q

When may a pursuit be terminated? (4)

A
  • By the initiating officer
  • By order of a supervisor
  • If the suspect’s identity has been determined
  • Immediate apprehension is not necessary and apprehension is feasible at a later time.
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79
Q

The supervisor will review an officer’s written pursuit report to determine:

A

If policy has been complied with and to detect and correct any training deficiencies.

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80
Q

The department shall conduct a documented ___ analysis of all police pursuit reports to identify any patterns or trends that may have emerged.

A

Annual

81
Q

A documented review of the policy and reporting procedures related to vehicle pursuits to identify any additions, deletions, or modifications warranted in departmental pursuit procedures or training will be conducted:

A

Annually

82
Q

Who may utilize tire-deflation devices?

A

Trained sworn officers with authorization of a supervisor.

83
Q

When may tire-deflation devices be used?

A

On vehicles when an officer has probable cause to believe a felony has been committed and with supervisor approval.

84
Q

A pursuit is ___ after the use of a tire deflation device on a vehicle, unless the pursuit meets the guidelines set forth in policy.

A

Not justified

85
Q

When may a tire-deflation device be used in stationary situations? (3)

A
  • Execution of search warrants
  • Emergency / Special Tactical situations
  • To prevent the movement of a vehicle that is, or shall be, evidence.
86
Q

A supervisor will authorize the use of tire-deflation devices only when:

A

it is necessary to render a vehicle inoperable.

87
Q

A supervisor’s approval to utilize tire-deflation devices is necessary in all situations, unless:

A

The totality of the circumstances demonstrate immediate deployment is necessary to apprehend a felony suspect or to prevent or terminate a pursuit.

88
Q

The shift supervisor responsible for monitoring the pursuit or forcible stop incident shall complete an:

A

Administrative review of the pursuit or forcible stop.

89
Q

T/F: Officers will not provide an emergency escort to emergency vehicles, unless approved by a supervisor.

A

True

90
Q

A supervisor will notify the appropriate C.I.D. supervisor for: (4)

A

a. All homicides, suspicious, and unattended deaths.
b. All sexual battery cases.
c. All serious crimes, in which assistance from the C.I.D. is needed, regardless of whether an arrest has been made or not.
d. All missing person investigations.

91
Q

The number of prisoners being transported in a patrol vehicle shall:

A

Not exceed the number of safety belts located behind the barrier of the transport vehicle.

92
Q

Male and female prisoners may be transported to the Saint Lucie County Jail in the same vehicle if ___. (2)

A

-Arrested as participants in the same offense - Or - They are married.

93
Q

Child offenders can be transported with adult offenders in the same vehicle only if:

A

They are codefendants.

94
Q

Male and female child offenders may be transported in the same vehicle if:

A

They are both under the age of 18 and if they are codefendants or related in some manner.

95
Q

When will the prisoner compartment of a patrol vehicle be searched for weapons and contraband?

A
  • Beginning of each shift

- Before and after each transport

96
Q

The use of leg restraints and leg/wrist belts may be used when transporting when ___.

A

Circumstances warrant and with approval of a supervisor.

97
Q

The use of restraining devices on sick, injured, pregnant, or even elderly prisoners may be waived if:

A

Approved by a supervisor and there is obviously no danger of escape or injury to the prisoner or officer.

98
Q

If a vehicle transporting a prisoner is involved in a crash or has a malfunction, the following will apply: (3)

A
  • Officer will notify 911 and request a backup officer respond.
  • The supervisor will be notified and respond to the scene.
  • The prisoner will receive medical attention (if necessary) and be transported to the receiving facility by the backup officer.
99
Q

In the event of a prisoner escape, the supervisor will complete:

A

An inter-office memo to the NPB Chief outlining the circumstances by the end of shift.

100
Q

Restraining devices may not be necessary when transporting handicap persons if: (3)

A
  • The handicap is such that there is no danger of escape or injury to the prisoner or officer.
  • When the handicap is such that it renders the prisoner sufficiently immobile.
  • When the application of restraints would cause the prisoner undue pain and discomfort.
101
Q

In the event a prisoner is transported to the hospital and is admitted, the supervisor shall be notified and:

A

Shall arrange for proper security through the on-duty jail supervisor.

102
Q

While transporting a prisoner, when may a LEO stop at a different scene requiring law enforcement action?

A

When a life threatening condition exists.

103
Q

What is the S.A.R.A. Model?

A
  • Scanning
  • Analyze
  • Response
  • Assessment
104
Q

What is “Scanning” in the SARA Model?

A

Identifying the problem

105
Q

What is “Analyze” in the SARA Model?

A

Gather information and develop understanding about the problem

106
Q

What is “Response” in the SARA Model?

A

Develop and implement solutions based on analysis.

107
Q

What is “Assessment” in the SARA Model?

A

Measuring the results of the efforts (Did the solution work?)

108
Q

What are the five Problem Solving Action Plan Guidelines:

A
  1. Is it right for the community?
  2. Is it right for the police department?
  3. Is it ethical and legal?
  4. Is it something the officer is willing to be accountable for?
  5. Is it consistent with the department’s values, mission, policies/procedures, and rules/regulations?
109
Q

What does STARCOM stand for?

A

Statistical Tracking And Response through Computer Oriented Mapping

110
Q

After a report is rejected, the officer will have ___ days to resubmit the report.

A

Four

111
Q

Supervisors will review the follow-up case assignments on a ____ basis.

A

Weekly

112
Q

As it relates to property offenses, in the event that multiple crimes are committed at the same location but against different victims:

A

Separate case numbers will be pulled for each victim.

113
Q

An officer who fails to submit a report or warrant application (when applicable), at the end of his shift can be:

A

Ordered to return to the station and complete the report by a shift supervisor.

114
Q

Failure to respond after a supervisor’s order to return to work and complete a report after shift will result in:

A

Disciplinary action.

115
Q

Under the SARA model, “Response” actions generally take one of three forms:

A
  • Enforcement
  • Engineering
  • Education
116
Q

Lost units of Naloxone will be documented on a memorandum submitted to:

A

The division/district commander.

117
Q

Stolen units of Naloxone will be documented through __.

A

a police incident report. A copy of the report will be attached to the Nasal Naloxone Issued/Replacement Record before a new unit of Naxolone will be issued.

118
Q

Naloxone has a normal shelf life of ___ months but it is sensitive to extreme temperatures

A

18-24

119
Q

The Naloxone will not be stored in the ___ and will be removed from the vehicle and ___ when the assigned officer is off-duty.

A

Trunk; stored in a climate-controlled environment.

120
Q

A documented inspection of assigned Naloxone units will be performed ___ during line-inspections to ensure that expiration dates have not been exceeded.

A

biannually

121
Q

It is expected that officers will read on a ___ basis the Florida State Statutes and provided training materials to update their knowledge and become familiar with legal changes.

A

Regular

122
Q

A strip search of an individual may be conducted only under such exigent circumstances that the lives of officers or others may be at risk. To conduct a strip search the employee must receive:

A

the written authorization of a supervisor first.

123
Q

Strip searches authorized by a supervisor shall be conducted only:

A

a. by two sworn officers of the same gender as the arrested person; and
b. shall be conducted on premises where the search cannot be observed by any person other than the persons physically conducting the search, except that nothing herein shall be interpreted to prohibit a readily available person from being present at the request and consent of the person being searched.

124
Q

All strip searches should be conducted at ___ unless exigent circumstances exist.

A

Headquarters

125
Q

A subject can consent to a body cavity search by:

A

Medical personnel

126
Q

After conducting a proper pat-down search, an officer in a field situation and with adequate probable cause, may conduct a limited search by:

A

Opening or rearrangement of a person’s clothing to locate and seize a weapon that could be used against the officer or an innocent person.

127
Q

A(n) ___ shall be notified of an electronic device seizure, and shall assign a detective to be responsible for preparation of an application for search warrant.

A

on-duty or on-call CID supervisor

128
Q

The information establishing probable cause for a search warrant is current within __ days, but not more than __ days.

A

10; 30

129
Q

Before initiating the search warrant application process, the officer will:

A

provide his supervisor with all available information and receive authorization.

130
Q

___ will be notified and briefed prior to a search warrant being executed.

A

The Bureau Chief

131
Q

When transporting prisoners, the number of prisoners shall not exceed:

A

The number of safety belts located behind the barrier of the transport vehicle.

132
Q

Child offenders will not be transported in the same vehicle with an adult offender unless:

A

They are co-defendants.

133
Q

Male and female child offenders may be transported in the same vehicle if:

A

They are co-defendants or related in some manner.

134
Q

The department armorer will conduct a visual inspection of each firearm at least ___ to determine if the firearm is safe and in good working order.

A

Annually

135
Q

If an officer fails to qualify with their duty handgun after a maximum of ___ attempts in one qualification day, the officer will lose the authority to carry a firearm, on or off-duty.

A

Three

136
Q

Remedial training and a second firearms qualification attempt will occur within ___ of the initial unsuccessful qualification attempt.

A

One week

137
Q

Firearms remedial training will consist of no more than:

A

200 rounds of fire and up to four hours

138
Q

If the officer fails to qualify after remedial training and a maximum of three attempts in that second qualification day, the officer will be subject to a ___.

A

Written reprimand.

139
Q

Additional remedial training will be provided and a third qualification day will be scheduled for no later than ___ after the second qualification day.

A

Two weeks

140
Q

If after having been given remedial training and the officer has failed to qualify after a maximum of three attempts on the third qualification day, (a total of nine (9) attempts), they shall be subject to:

A

A 3 day suspension without pay.

141
Q

Additional remedial training will be provided and a fourth qualification day will be scheduled for no later than ___ after the second qualification day.

A

Two Weeks.

142
Q

If after having been given remedial training and the officer has failed to qualify after a maximum of three attempts on the fourth qualification day, (a total of twelve (12) attempts), they shall be:

A

Placed on unpaid leave pending further administrative action to include suspension up to termination.

143
Q

At any time after a failed qualification attempt an officer may be required on a ___ basis to show proficiency until the next annual qualification.

A

Quarterly.

144
Q

Officers who receive ___ consecutive primary qualification failures or ___ yearly qualification failures will be subject to disciplinary action up to and including termination.

A

Three; three out of five

145
Q

How long is the basic patrol rifle course?

A

Eight Hours.

146
Q

Officers failing to qualify/demonstrate proficiency after completing the additional Basic Patrol Rifle Course or Shotgun course cannot carry a rifle on-duty for a period of at least:

A

Three months.

147
Q

Baton and OC Spray training will be conducted:

A

Biannually.

148
Q

The portion of the basic skills course on the use of dart-firing stun guns must be a minimum of __ hours’ duration.

A

Four

149
Q

The annual training course on the use of dart-firing stun guns must be a minimum of ___ duration.

A

One hour

150
Q

Any sergeant who does not ensure the taser was tested safely and properly may:

A

Face discipline.

151
Q

Taser Batteries shall be replaced when the battery pack has reached:

A

20% charge.

152
Q

The Training Officer or Department Armorer shall download the recorded usage of all conducted electrical weapons ___ and shall retain these records for at least ___ years.

A

bi-annually; two

153
Q

Officers shall carry only one utility knife, which shall have a blade length of:

A

Four Inches or less

154
Q

Officers are restricted to no more than ___ tactical knives on their person.

A

two

155
Q

If the situation dictates, a supervisor shall upgrade an operation to a high risk response and request the SWAT through the:

A

District Lieutenant.

156
Q

A liability waiver must be read and signed at least __ prior to the planned ride-along by each participant every time a ride is scheduled.

A

24 hours

157
Q

Participation in the ride along program will be limited to:

A

twice in a six month period

158
Q

The department discourages establishing Confidential Informants under the age of __.

A

18

159
Q

The department prohibits establishing a Confidential Informant who is ___.

A

15 years of age or younger

160
Q

The witness should be shown a photo array of at least ___ photographs, including that of the suspect.

A

Six

161
Q

Whenever possible, a member of the Internal Affairs Section will make contact with the complainant within ___ of receiving the complaint.

A

24 hours

162
Q

Internal Affairs will complete any investigation within ___ from the date the complaint was received.

A

180 days

163
Q

The Internal Affairs Detective shall make contact with the complainant approximately every ___ to provide an update of the status of the complaint.

A

30 days

164
Q

Internal Affairs shall act as a ___ for the Chief of Police or designee and shall not make any recommendations concerning discipline.

A

Fact-finding section

165
Q

The burden of proof in an administrative investigation is based on:

A

The preponderance of the evidence.

166
Q

IA Pro is currently set up to send out an alert when the following incidents occur within a 12 month period: (10)

A
  1. Two or more vehicle pursuits
  2. Two or more written reprimands
  3. Three or more employee injury incidents
  4. Three or more administrative complaints
  5. Three or more employee warning notices
  6. Three or more Investigative Reviews
  7. Three or more supervisor administrative complaints
  8. Three or more supervisor conferences
  9. Four or more use of force incidents
  10. An overall threshold of any eight listed incidents
167
Q

A compliance review hearing must be conducted within ___ after the request for a compliance review hearing is filed.

A

ten working days

168
Q

A compliance review panel shall conduct a hearing for the purpose of determining whether or not:

A

The investigator or agency intentionally violated the subject officers Law Enforcement Bill of Rights.

169
Q

FDLE and CJSTC must be informed of sustained violations involving “Moral Character” within ___ of being reviewed by the Chief of Police.

A

45 days

170
Q

All original investigative reports will be stored within I.A. Pro for a period:

A

One Year

171
Q

Final Action Summaries will be kept in accordance with the time prescribed by the State pertaining to personnel records, which is:

A

25 years after separation or termination from employment.

172
Q

The Accreditation Manager also functions as the Police Department’s:

A

Staff Inspector

173
Q

Requests to review or purchase Internal Affairs files will be made during normal business hours through the: (2)

A

Professional Standards Supervisor, or the Public Information Coordinator.

174
Q

The Crime Prevention Specialist will conduct a documented ___ evaluation of crime prevention programs offered throughout the city by the Department.

A

triennial

175
Q

Convenience businesses at which a murder, robbery, sexual battery, aggravated assault, aggravated battery, kidnapping or false imprisonment has occurred in connection with the operation of the business, must have additional security measures in place between:

A

11 PM and 5 AM for the next 24 months.

176
Q

The probationary period for explorers shall be:

A

6 months

177
Q

Only department personnel that are ___ NCIC/FCIC operators are authorized to release criminal information.

A

certified

178
Q

Juvenile criminal history records will not be released to anyone other than:

A

a law enforcement agency.

179
Q

When users are finished with criminal history information, it shall be ___ If that information is needed at a later date, the criminal history should be re-requested.

A

shredded and not retained in case files.

180
Q

The Victim Assistant/Coordinator will not be left at the scene of a violent crime if :

A

the subject is still at large or if any other threat may be present.

181
Q

Officers on duty will keep their radios ON at all times, except when:

A

responding to bomb calls or otherwise authorized by a supervisor.

182
Q

If an officer fails to respond to being called on the radio __ separate times during a ___ minute period while in service, the district supervisor will be notified. It is the district supervisor’s responsibility to initiate corrective action.

A

Three; One

183
Q

Because calls will often overlap at the end of the shift, all patrol and other units shall remain in their assigned zones, in service, and available for calls up to ___ before the end of their shift.

A

15 minutes

184
Q

An emergency or mass notification to the public will be authorized through the:

A

District or Division Commander.

185
Q

The Assistant Chief or Chief’s authorization of any request for mass public telephone notifications between the hours of ___ must be verbally verified by the PSA prior to being sent out. Any other notifications should be scheduled to be completed before ___ hours.

A

2100-0800; 2100

186
Q

Traffic officers may sign out up to ___ citation books at one time from the designated. Patrol officers may sign out citation book at a time.

A

three; one

187
Q

Manual traffic citations will be handwritten using ___ ink only and must be legible through all copies.

A

black

188
Q

It is the preferred policy of the Port St. Lucie Police Department that officers will not ___ traffic citations to offenders for traffic infractions. There may be limited times when this practice may become necessary. In the event that a traffic citation needs to be ___ to an offender, the citation must be sent ___ and will require written approval from the:

A

mail; mailed; certified mail; District Support Lieutenant.

189
Q

Maintenance, repair, vending, and delivery persons who are not city employees may be unescorted in the building, with limited access, until their work is completed if those persons have:

A

passed a criminal background check and are wearing a police department identification tag.

190
Q

If an officer needs a vehicle for patrol and all spare vehicles are in use, approval from a ___ must be obtained before using a vehicle not designated as a spare.

A

supervisor

191
Q

The supervisor, upon learning that a vehicle has sustained damage but was not reported, shall:

A

investigate or cause to be investigated, the cause and responsibility of the damage. The supervisor will make a report to the appropriate division commander.

192
Q

Personnel will not use any personally owned ___, to take photographs or videos at any call and or crime scene.

A

photography or videography device, to include personally owned cellular phones,

193
Q

If a UCI is not available and a CSI call-out is not warranted, the ___ will respond to the scene to take photographs and or video with his/her department issued cellular phone.

A

district supervisor

194
Q

___ shall not be used during non-criminal investigations or standard traffic stops where no case number is generated.

A

Digital audio recorders

195
Q

___ are the command staff of neighborhood policing

A

District lieutenants

196
Q

___ will facilitate quarterly meetings of the training committee to discuss training issues and future training needs.

A

The Staff Services Supervisor

197
Q

The Staff Services Supervisor will facilitate meetings ___ of the training committee to discuss training issues and future training needs.

A

quarterly

198
Q

Supervisors are responsible for avoiding the issuance of conflicting orders. Orders conflicting with written directives and procedures may be issued only by a:

A

lieutenant or higher authority and must be justified in writing to the Chief of Police the next working day.

199
Q

The number of members reporting directly to command-level officers (mid-management) should not exceed ___. The number of subordinates reporting directly to first-line supervisors should not exceed ___.

A

Five; Nine

Independent (7 decks)

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