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Independent > GG A-E > Flashcards

GG A-E Flashcards

1
Q

The purpose of the ____ is to support the goal of employee accountability and at the same
time support corrective action to reinforce positive employee behavior.

A

Corrective Diversion Process

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2
Q

A voluntary alternative disciplinary process that may be extended to employees who are subject to the disciplinary process and meet the established criteria.

A

Corrective Diversion Process

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3
Q

Under the C.D.P., _____ consists of a “Written Reprimand” or “Suspension” (1, 2 or 3 days).

A

Discipline

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4
Q

Eligibility to participate in the Corrective Diversion Program:

A
  • The employee accepts responsibility for his/her actions and indicates on the Employee Discipline Notice that he/she agrees with the discipline and waives the right to appeal.
  • In determining viable participants, the Chief of Police may factor length of service, feedback from superiors, prior disciplinary issues, and/or any other non-discriminatory factors deemed relevant. In no case shall an employee’s non-selection for the C.D.P. be subject to the grievance process.
  • The categories of discipline eligible for the C.D.P. include a Written Reprimand or Suspension (1, 2, or 3 days).
  • The employee has five (5) days to accept the Chief of Police’s offer to participate in the C.D.P. and thereby accept responsibility for his/her action.
  • The C.D.P. is incident driven; therefore, it can apply to multiple sustained violations in a single incident.
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5
Q

The employee starts the Corrective Diversion Program when:

A

He/she agrees to the discipline and signs the notice and waiver of right to file a grievance for the discipline.

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6
Q

An employee entering the Corrective Diversion Program does so for how long?

A

180 days

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7
Q

While in the Corrective Diversion Program, the employee must not be ___

A

The subject of a similar sustained violation

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8
Q

If an employee in the Corrective Diversion Program has a similar sustained violation, the employee will be given written notice ____

A

that the original discipline for the original violation will stand.

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9
Q

If a similar sustained violation (written reprimand) occurs in the Corrective Diversion Program, the written reprimand will:

A

remain in effect from the date is was originally issued

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10
Q

If a similar sustained violation (suspension) occurs in the Corrective Diversion Program, the suspension will:

A

will be served, or if approved , leave time (in lieu of suspensions) will be surrendered, within 14 DAYS of receiving noticing the original discipline will stand.

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11
Q

Re-offending conduct in the Corrective Diversion Program is:

A

not eligible for the CDP

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12
Q

If the employee in the Corrective Diversion Program remains free of similar sustained violations, the Chief shall:

A

Lower the discipline one level (Written Reprimand to Supervisor Conference Form; Suspension to a Written Reprimand).

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13
Q

Upon Completion of the Corrective Diversion Program, the appropriate discipline shall be recorded with:

A

the Human Resource Department and IA Section. A memo will be generated showing completion of CDP.

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14
Q

An employee may participate in the Corrective Diversion Program once in a:

A

twelve month period calculated from the date of the last CDP.

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15
Q

The employee has ___ to accept the Chief’s offer to participate in the Corrective Diversion Program.

A

Five Days

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16
Q

The Corrective Diversion Program is incident driven and can apply to:

A

Multiple sustained violations in a single incident.

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17
Q

In active threat incidents, while important to provide first aid to the wounded, it is LEO’s public safety duty to first:

A

First protect lives by stopping the actions of the perpetrator engaged in the continuing violent criminal episode.

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18
Q

Any deliberate incident that poses an immediate or imminent danger to the lives of others.

A

Active Threat

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19
Q

Any environment in which an active threat incident has taken place until declared safe by the senior ranking supervisor at the scene following evacuation of all living persons.

A

Hostile Environment

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20
Q

FS776.05 establishes a law enforcement officer need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest and justifies the use of any force: (3 things)

A
  • Reasonably believes to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm
  • When retaking escaped felons
  • when arresting felons fleeing from justice if believes fleeing felon poses threat of death or serious physical harm or felon has committed a crime involving (threatened) infliction or serious physical harm.
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21
Q

In an active threat incident, the prioritization of activities in order of importance shall be: (4 things)

A
  • Stop the active threat
  • Rescue the victims
  • Provide medical assistance
  • Preserve the crime scene
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22
Q

The goal of immediate response to an active threat event is:

A

Elimination of the threat by forceful means or denying access to additional victims.

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23
Q

The first responding officer to an active threat incident will:

A

Immediately assess the situation and assume tactical responsibility.

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24
Q

If more than one officer is present during an active threat, assumption of tactical responsibility may be based on:

A

Rank, expertise or seniority.

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25
Q

Any change in incident command during an Active Threat will be made known to:

A

Communications and other officers.

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26
Q

In an Active Threat Incident, at least ___ will make entry.

A

Two Officers

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27
Q

First responder intervention will be based on:

A

Opportunity

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28
Q

When at all possible, Active Threat entry team(s) should be a minimum of:

A

Two (2) officers with an identified element leader.

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29
Q

The principle goal of the Active Threat Entry Team is to:

A

Eliminate the threat of the perpetrator in order to prevent access to potential victims.

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30
Q

In an Active Threat Incident, it is not the responsibility of the Entry Team(s) to:

A

Render Aid

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31
Q

Active Threat Entry Teams will be relieved by SWAT when the Entry Teams:

A

are able to contain the suspect(s) with no further access to victims.

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32
Q

Active Threat Rescue Team priorities are to:

A

Locate, recover, and facilitate the evacuation process.

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33
Q

Active Threat Entry/Rescue Teams encountering a suspected explosive device must:

A

Use judgement reference posting an officer near it, or reporting, marking, and bypassing it.

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34
Q

The first responding supervisor to an Active Threat Incident will:

A

Assume command of the team(s) who has entered the building

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35
Q

Additional supervisors arriving at an Active Threat Incident shall:

A

Assign arriving officers the task of establishing an inner and outer perimeter.

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36
Q

In the event an officer is injured during an Active Threat Incident, the supervisor may:

A

Leave the downed officer in the last secured location, with or without support personnel, depending on the circumstances he is faced with.

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37
Q

No location associated with an active threat will be considered secure until:

A

The Incident Commander declares it is so.

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38
Q

During an active threat Incident, the on-scene supervisor will verify:

A

That the SWAT commander and Command Staff have been notified of the incident.

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39
Q

The on-scene supervisor in charge of the Active Threat perimeter shall advise 911 of a ____ as soon as practical.

A

Staging area

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40
Q

The training coordinator will conduct a review of Active Threat response _____.

A

Annually

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41
Q

Active Threat debriefing will be held with all personnel involved and will be scheduled:

A

After all personnel have returned to a routine work schedule or within 30 days.

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42
Q

Workload Assessment report will be prepared at least:

A

Triennially or as required.

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43
Q

The published annual report ___ (time frame).

A

covers the calendar year

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44
Q

The purpose of the annual report is to:

A

Report to the community agency activities that demonstrate efficient and effective use of their tax dollars.

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45
Q

Biased Based Profiling report is done:

A

Annually

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46
Q

Analysis of Use of Force Reports is issued:

A

Annually

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47
Q

After-Hour Animal Control call out criteria: (Ten)

A
  • Sick or injured animals
  • Orphaned animals
  • Wildlife in a dwelling (except attics)
  • Alligators or venomous snakes posing a threat to the public
  • Loose animals acting aggressively and posing an immediate threat to the public
  • Animal bites causing severe injury
  • Animal bites where the animal is not confined by its owner, or the owner(s) want to surrender the animal.
  • Animals that are confined for pickup in which the caller is not willing to hold the animal until AC comes 10-8
  • Assisting police officers with the removal of animals from dwellings for police matters
  • Removal of deceased domestic animals from roadways or swales (when no owner is on scene)
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48
Q

Deceased wildlife on or off the roadway are removed by:

A

Sanitation Department (via 911 Dispatch).

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49
Q

The purpose is to oversee multiple incidents each being handled by a separate ICS organization to oversee complex or large incidents.

A

Area Command

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50
Q

The ICS title for individuals responsible for command of the five basic ICS functional sections

A

Chief

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51
Q

The ICS title for a group consisting of the Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer.

A

Command Staff

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52
Q

ICS Functions (Five):

A
  • Command
  • Operations
  • Planning
  • Logistics
  • Finance / Administration
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53
Q

The ICS title describing the incident management team that reports to the Incident Commander. Consists of the Commanders of the five functional sections.

A

General Staff

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54
Q

(ICS) An oral or written plan that contains objectives reflecting the overall incident strategy and specific tactical actions and supporting information for the operational period.

A

Incident Action Plan

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55
Q

The individual responsible for the management of all incident operations at the incident scene.

A

Incident Commander

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56
Q

Under ICS, individuals who are assigned specific responsibilities for certain activities (Ex: Staging Area)

A

Manager

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57
Q

Operational Period is the time set for a given set of actions as specified in the Incident Action Plan. Can be of various lengths but usually not:

A

Over thirteen (13) hours.

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58
Q

(ICS) Comprised of the City Manager, Police Chief, Emergency Management Director

A

Policy Group

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59
Q

The number of individuals a supervisor is responsible for, usually expressed as a ratio of supervisors to individuals.

A

Span of Control

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60
Q

NIMS recommended Span of Control:

A

Between 3 and 7 (Ideal being 5)

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61
Q

An application of ICS used when there is more than one agency with incident jurisdiction or when incidents cross political jurisdictions.

A

Unified Command

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62
Q

The principle that a subordinate reports to only one supervisor at any given time, providing a clear channel of authority and accountability.

A

Unity of Command

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63
Q

Agency responsible for coordinating federal, state, and local law enforcement resources during a civil disorder, pursuant to Florida State Statute Chapter 23.

A

FDLE

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64
Q

The ___ is a standardized management tool for meeting the demands of small or large emergency or non-emergency situations and ensures command, control and coordination of resources.

A

Incident Command System (ICS)

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65
Q

ICS operations are predicated on three principles:

A
  1. Protecting life and providing for the safety of emergency responders and the public.
  2. Stabilizing the incident by developing a strategy that will minimize the effect it has on the surrounding area.
  3. Conservation of property by minimizing the effect(s) on the environment.
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66
Q

ICS Documentation After-Action Reports shall be submitted by the IC within:

A

15 Days of the conclusion of the event.

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67
Q

ICS and All Hazards Plan training will be conducted:

A

Annually

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68
Q

The District Support LT will prepare a list of emergency equipment and resources:

A

Annually

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69
Q

____ (Number) Officers will be appointed by the IC to serve as operators of the Mobile Command Post

A

Two

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70
Q

The primary rule in the restoration of law and order is the application of:

A

Minimum force

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71
Q

A show of force has a _____ on the crowd and will also provide the necessary manpower.

A

Restraining effect

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72
Q

Professional Standards Lieutenant shall prepare an after-action report to be submitted to the Chief of Police within _____ from the termination of the emergency.

A

Five (5) calendar days

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73
Q

Prior to entering the immediate area of the bomb threat, the responding officer or officers shall:

A

Advise 911 Communications that they are turning off their radios and cellular telephones.

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74
Q

During a Bomb Threat, the decision whether to evacuate the building belongs to:

A

The person responsible for the premises.

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75
Q

During a Bomb Threat, the shift supervisor will asses the situation and:

A

-Determine whether there is a need for additional personnel from other shifts or divisions.
-Determine which outside agencies shall be notified
-Establish a perimeter around the threat area.
Establish a Field Command Post a safe distance away.
-Contact ED K9 teams.
-Assemble search teams.

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76
Q

The final decision to evacuate a building must be left up to the:

A

Person responsible for the premises.

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77
Q

Officers will not _____ until they have been cleared by a shift supervisor.

A

Leave their assigned district for breaks

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78
Q

No breaks will be authorized within ___ of any

shift and any break must be completed ___ of any shift.

A

the first hour; prior to the last hour

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79
Q

No more than ___ police units, and no more than ___ officers will be allowed in any one singular establishment at one time for meals or breaks.

A

Four marked; Four uniformed

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80
Q

Officers will not meet in parking lots where the presence of ___ will attract public attention, unless the meeting is necessary to conduct official business, and the time meeting together will be held to a maximum of __ minutes.

A

Two or more police vehicles; Ten

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81
Q

Seniority is based on:

A

Longevity in rank, first, and time in department, second.

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82
Q

Formal lines of communication going downward or upward within the organizational hierarchy

A

Chain of Command

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83
Q

Senior ranking members may take action outside their own organizational component when they:

A

Observe or when a situation is brought to their attention that needs immediate correction.

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84
Q

___ is to be utilized for disposition of complaints and are not intended to provide a forum for any other issue other than whether a particular complaint has a basis in fact.

A

The Complaint Review Board

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85
Q

The findings of the ___ are advisory in nature, not adjudicatory.

A

Complaint Review Board

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86
Q

The Complaint Review Board will NOT:

A

address matters of discipline.

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87
Q

Matters of discipline is the prerogative reserved for:

A

The Chief of Police

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88
Q

A statutorily established board consisting of five (5) members.

A

Complaint Review Board

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89
Q

How are the Complaint Review Board members selected?

A

Chief selects two members; affected officer selects two members; the Four selected mutually agree on a Fifth member who serves as the Chair.

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90
Q

The Complaint Review Board can be requested upon notification for disciplinary action resulting in :

A
  • Dismissal
  • Demotion
  • Suspension
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91
Q

A request for a Complaint Review Board to convene must be:

A

Made in writing to the Chief within five working days from receipt of notification of discipline penalty.

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92
Q

Members of the Complaint Review Board are Law Enforcement Officers from:

A

Any State, County, or municipal agency within the county.

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93
Q

The normal business day for the Complaint Review Board shall be:

A

0800-1630 hours (with one hour lunch)

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94
Q

Complaint Review Board business shall not exceed ___.

A

Three days (excluding weekends and holidays)

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95
Q

Complaint Review Board members will receive a copy of the investigation report packet no later than ___.

A

24 hours prior to the board convening.

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96
Q

Complaint Review Board hearings are ____.

A

Open to the public according to FS119.

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97
Q

The Complaint Review Board does not have __ power.

A

Subpoena

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98
Q

The Complaint Review Board does not have __ power.p

A

Majority

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99
Q

Upon reaching a decision, the Complaint Review Board may: (4 findings)

A
  • sustain some of the charges while not sustaining others.
  • determine that the original charge was inappropriate, but that other charges are appropriate.
  • conclude the officer did not commit any wrongdoing or violation of department regulations.
  • sustain all charges against the officer(s).
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100
Q

Initial Officer reports will be completed:

A

Prior to the end of shift (Submitted).

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101
Q

Supervisors are responsible for the ___ and ___ of reports which occurred during their shift.

A

Review; Submission

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102
Q

Supervisors will ensure officers complete rejected reports ___.

A

By the end of the next shift.

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103
Q

Authorized users shall check for Department or City correspondence received via EMD no less than ___.

A

Once during their scheduled workday.

104
Q

When will the IT Section conduct an inspection on department computers and removable media assigned to an employee?

A

Upon the employee’s separation.

105
Q

IT access controls shall prevent ___ active sessions for one user identification for those applications accessing CJI.

A

Multiple concurrent

106
Q

Any user accessing the criminal justice networks via the PSLPD network from a computer not directly connected by a network cable is required to utilize:

A

An advanced token device.

107
Q

User computer terminals shall be locked out after:

A

Thirty (30) minutes of inactivity.

108
Q

User IDs will be disabled after___ to log in to any computer system.

A

Three unsuccessful attempts

109
Q

If the computer user feels his password has been compromised, the ___ should be contacted immediately.

A

Police Department System Administrator

110
Q

A previous password cannot be reused through ___ password refresh cycles based upon password retention history.

A

At least 10

111
Q

Passwords are required to be changed ___.

A

Every ninety (90) days.

112
Q

The agency shall sanitize, that is, overwrite ___ or degauss electronic media prior to disposal or release for reuse by unauthorized individuals.

A

At least three times

113
Q

The agency can access electronic and voice transmissions of employees conducting business for:

A

Quality control purposes and /or violation of policy.

114
Q

Personal use of these computer devices may be permissible if:

A

Limited in scope and frequency and if not connected with a profit-making business enterprise or the promotion of any product, service, or cause.

115
Q

Personnel may make off-duty personal use of agency computers for:

A

Professional and career development purposes with prior knowledge of a supervisor.

116
Q

Basic security awareness training shall be required within__ of initial assignment, and __ thereafter, for all personnel who have access to CJIS.

A

Six months; Biennially

117
Q

The __ shall attend case review meetings to provide, gather, and disseminate pertinent information related to the functions of the Criminal Investigations Division.

A

C.I.D. Sergeant

118
Q

A volunteer group of specially trained officers designated to handle situations involving the mentally ill in crisis.

A

Crisis Intervention Team

119
Q

__ members only handle those incidents that do not rise to a level of high-risk incident.

A

Crisis Intervention Team

120
Q

The 40-hour CIT training class curriculum is based on the __.

A

“Memphis Model” - emphasizing community partnership.

121
Q

Whenever possible, a __ officer shall be the preferred officer dispatched and/or responding to calls involving a confirmed or suspected mentally ill person in crisis.

A

Crisis Intervention Team (CIT)

122
Q

In cases that involve “repeat calls for service” involving a person suffering from mental illness, a __ may be assigned to resolve the repeat call case.

A

Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) member

123
Q

Any time a Baker Act and/or Marchman Act is initiated and completed by a CIT certified officer, the __ will be completed in addition to the incident report.

A

Crisis Intervention Tracking Form

124
Q

Any incident involving an act of violence or potential act of violence in which police officers are at a disadvantage and subject to extreme danger.

A

High Risk Incident

125
Q

List the eight High Risk Incident types (for SWAT).

A
  1. Hostage Situation
  2. Barricaded Subject
  3. Sniper Situation
  4. Crowd Problems
  5. Preplanned Arrest
  6. Dignitary Protection
  7. Search Warrants
  8. Other
126
Q

SWAT may be called to any civilian disturbance or crowd control problems where the use of ___ is needed to disburse or neutralize a situation.

A

Organized tactics or chemical agents

127
Q

The “Other” category for SWAT call-out is any situation which the Supervisor believes:

A

Exceeds the capabilities of the standard patrol resources and that warrants the use of SWAT.

128
Q

For High-Risk Incidents, the shift supervisor will: (3 in general)

A
  • Respond to the scene immediately
  • Evaluate the situation
  • Initiate such action as necessary to restore order and prevent the situation from increasing in size and intensity.
129
Q

Duties of Shift Supervisor after determining there is a High Risk Incident: (8 duties)

A
  • Obtain Basic Information from initial LEO.
  • Insure inner/outer perimeter is established and adjacent areas cleared of persons not involved.
  • Establish a CP out of LOS from fire.
  • Request ambulance to stand-by at staging area.
  • Notify District Commander and request manpower as needed.
  • Direct responding LEO to staging area prior to deployment.
  • Determine need for specialized equipment or personnel.
  • Assign administrative aid to establish and maintain incident log.
130
Q

Deaths created by actions and events which are non-criminal.

A

Accidental Deaths

131
Q

Deaths by fire, drowning, electrocution, accidental shooting, sexual perversion, poisoning, or are industrial/work related are examples of what kind of death?

A

Accidental Death

132
Q

A death, in which the decedent has been seen on a regular basis and treated by a physician such that the physician will sign the death certificate.

A

Attended Death

133
Q

If the physician will not sign the death certificate it will be considered ___.

A

An unattended death.

134
Q

A medical event which is likely to pose imminent danger to the life of the individual suffering the event.

A

Life-Threatening Medical Event

135
Q

Examples: Cardiac arrest, seizures, stroke, significant respiratory distress, diabetic emergency, uncontrolled hemorrhage, serious head or spinal cord injuries, serious falls, significant allergic reactions, severe burns,

A

Life-Threatening Medical Event

136
Q

A death that occurs in the course of nature resulting from an illness or an internal malfunction of the body not directly caused by external forces.

A

Natural Death

137
Q

When a person dies more than thirty (30) days after being treated by a physician unless the death was medically expected.

A

Unattended Death

138
Q

An Unattended Death occurs when a person dies more than ___ after being treated by a physician - unless the death was medically expected.

A

30 Days

139
Q

The shift supervisor may determine that a call to the CID supervisor is not warranted in death investigations that appear:

A

Natural (such as attended deaths, deaths occurring from known illnesses where the death was medically expected, and hospice patients).

140
Q

“Deceased Person” titled reports are for cases of:

A

Attended Deaths.

141
Q

If the individual survives or was able to be revived from the life-threatening medical event, the report will be titled __ and the patient will be classified as the __.

A

“Assist Other Agency”; “Victim”

142
Q

If the individual passes away during transport or soon after arriving at the hospital, the report will be titled __ and the decedent will be classified as __.

A

“Deceased Person”; “Deceased Person”

143
Q

If the “Assist Other Agency” incident report is submitted and it is later determined that the patient has subsequently passed away, the reporting officer will __.

A

Amend the title and name classification within the original report or submit a supplement report documenting the updated information.

144
Q

In cases other than __, the shift supervisor will immediately notify the CID supervisor and a detective will respond.

A

Natural or Attended death

145
Q

After notification of the CID Supervisor of a death, the __ shall be notified.

A

District Commander

146
Q

If a decedent is under 18 years of age, contact __.

A

The Department of Children and Families.

147
Q

For attended and natural deaths, prescription medications should ___ for disposal. Medications should either ___.

A

Not be submitted into Evidence;
Accompany the body to the ME, Hospice disposal, or leave medications on scene for disposal by responsible family member/representative.

148
Q

When encountering prescription medications during the course of a ___ (5 types), where the medication is believed to be directly related to the death, LEO shall follow procedures for the collection and preservation of drug evidence.

A
  • Homicide
  • Suicide
  • In-custody death
  • Accidental death
  • Death of a suspicious nature
149
Q

A process whereby an employer can ensure that each employee’s behavior conforms to standards established by the employer.

A

Discipline

150
Q

A formal letter of disciplinary action issued to the affected employee.

A

Written Reprimand

151
Q

Any suspension greater than___ shall require prior approval of the City Manager or his
designee.

A

Three (3) days

152
Q

An employee who is dissatisfied with a suspension without pay may appeal by ___.

A

Using the Grievance process as outlined in the City Personnel Rules and Regulations, OR the process in the Collective Bargaining Agreement.

153
Q

If the Chief of Police should perceive a significant hazard in keeping the employee on the job, he may immediately place the employee on ___.

A

Administrative Leave with Pay

154
Q

Reasons for Administrative Leave with Pay include: (3)

A
  • Discipline (significant hazard to keeping LEO on the job)
  • Emotional and/or mental health
  • Following a Traumatic Incident involving an employee
155
Q

Demotion is a disciplinary measure for violating ___ (two) violations of the City Personnel Rules and Regulations.

A

Group II or Group III

156
Q

Shall be instituted to allow an employee to correct or modify his work performance.

A

Probationary Periods

157
Q

Dismissals from the department must be approved by:

A

The City Manager

158
Q

May be used as a disciplinary measure for any Group II or Group III violation of the City Personnel Rules and Regulations.

A

Demotion

159
Q

Reasons for Administrative Leave Without Pay include:

A

Arrest for Felony or Misdemeanor criminal violations (depending on the seriousness of the crime AND after the outcome of First Appearance)

160
Q

All demotions are to be approved by ___.

A

The City Manager and coordinated with Human Resources.

161
Q

Removal of any employee from his employment with the city on a permanent basis.

A

Dismissal

162
Q

May be used as part of a disciplinary measure at the discretion of the Chief of Police when it is in conjunction with the CDP.

A

Probationary Period

163
Q

A voluntary alternative disciplinary process that may be extended to employees who are subject to the disciplinary process and meet the established criteria

A

Corrective Diversion Process (CDP)

164
Q

A form used to report and document a violation of departmental rules or regulations and should be completed on all disciplinary action taken.

A

Employee Warning Notice

165
Q

Minor cases of employee misconduct may be resolved at ___.

A

The division level.

166
Q

The originating supervisor will document the details of a minor misconduct incident, in written form utilizing the ___.

A

Supervisor Administrative Complaint Form

167
Q

Alternatives to utilizing the Supervisor Administrative Complaint Form are: (2)

A
  • Remedial Training assigned by the supervisor

- Verbal Counseling to correct misconduct

168
Q

In cases of administrative leave with pay (for disciplinary purposes), if it is determined that employee’s equipment will be collected, the minimal equipment to be collected will be ___. (4)

A
  • Employee’s badge
  • Identification card
  • Building fob
  • Any issued firearms
169
Q

Any ___ must be reviewed by the employee prior to having it entered into their personnel file.

A

Employee warning notice

170
Q

If an employee declines to sign the disciplinary warning notice, the supervisor will:

A

Note such refusal on the notice with the time and date in the presence of a witness.

171
Q

In a case of employee misconduct which may result in a written reprimand, suspension, demotion, dismissal or other such action as described in the City R/R or CBA, the originating supervisor will:

A

Initiate a full written report

172
Q

The supervisor will initiate a full written report for employee misconduct which may result in: (5)

A
  • Written reprimand
  • Suspension
  • Demotion
  • Dismissal
  • Other actions outlined in CBA / City R/R
173
Q

In the event that a regular city employee is dismissed, the City Manager shall provide the employee a written statement of the reason(s) at least ___.

A

Ten (10) business days prior to the effective date of dismissal.

174
Q

When an employee is placed on Administrative Leave (with or without pay) pending a criminal or administrative investigation, or an employee is suspended from normal job duties, the employee may be required to ___.

A

Surrender his/her agency-owned equipment until such time as the employee’s normal work status is reinstated.

175
Q

In cases of suspension from duty, if it is determined that employee’s equipment will be collected, the minimal equipment to be collected will be ___. (4)

A
  • Employee’s badge
  • Identification card
  • Building fob
  • Any issued firearms
176
Q

T/F: Counseling or a word of caution (verbal counseling) is not considered disciplinary action.

A

True

177
Q

In cases of administrative leave without pay, the employee may be required to surrender ___ at the discretion of the Chief.

A

All agency-owned equipment

178
Q

All grievances must be filed using the __, which is available from the City Human Resource Department.

A

Grievance form

179
Q

Disciplinary files (Employee Warning Notice) will be ___ retained.

A

Permanently

180
Q

Disciplinary files (Letters of Reprimand) will be ___ retained.

A

Permanently

181
Q

Non-disciplinary files will be ___.

A

Purged in accordance with state record retention laws requirements.

182
Q

The first-Line Supervisor’s authority (with regards to discipline) is to administer: (3)

A
  • Remedial Training
  • Verbal Counseling
  • Warnings
183
Q

What class of City employees do not need a written statement of the reason(s) for dismissal at least ten days prior to the effective date of dismissal? (4)

A
  • Newly-hired
  • Probationary
  • Temporary
  • Contract
184
Q

Discipline should be characterized as ___ rather than ___.

A

Corrective; Punitive

185
Q

Administering gradually-increasing disciplinary actions for each successive incident of employee misconduct.

A

Progressive Discipline

186
Q

More severe disciplinary measures should be administered if __. (In progressive discipline)

A

A repetition of the same offense or other serious offense

187
Q

“Family or household member” per F.S.S. 741.28 (3) means: (4)

A
  • Spouses / Former spouses
  • Persons related by blood or marriage
  • Persons who are presently residing together as if a family or who have resided together in the past as if a family (in same dwelling unit).
  • Persons who are parents of a child in common regardless of whether they have been married.
188
Q

For a Domestic Violence incident, the district supervisor will be notified (and respond to) when it is learned that one or more of the individuals involved is:

A

an employee of PSLPD or a law enforcement officer of another agency (regardless of whether the individual is a victim or suspect).

189
Q

If a PSLPD employee is involved in a domestic violence incident, the supervisor will:

A
  • Respond to the scene.
  • Contact the involved employee to determine if additional assistance is needed.
  • Victim employees will be reminded of available services through EAP and victim assistance.
  • Notify the next supervisor in chain of command.
190
Q

If a PSL PD employee is a suspect in a domestic violence incident, the supervisor will: (3)

A
  • A Lieutenant or higher shall immediately notify the Professional Standards Division Commander and the CID Commander.
  • Secure the employee/suspect if still at the scene pending the arrival of the Professional Standards / CID Commanders
  • The first supervisor on the scene will complete a detailed report and submit a memorandum to the Professional Standards Division Commander outlining the incident by the end of tour.
191
Q

The first supervisor on the scene of a domestic incident involving a PSLPD employee suspect will complete:

A
  • A detailed report

- Submit a memorandum to the Professional Standards Division Commander outlining the incident by the end of tour.

192
Q

When should the Professional Standards Division remove department-issued firearms from a PSLPD DV suspect?

A

Regardless of arrest, all department-issued firearms of an employee who is determined to be the suspect in a domestic violence investigation shall be removed from the home or other possession of the suspect / employee and turned over to the Professional Standards Division pending an administrative review.

193
Q

Should a sworn employee of another law enforcement agency be arrested for a crime of domestic violence or dating violence, the on-scene supervisor should:

A

Ensure that the officer’s employer is notified as soon as possible and if requested, the officer’s service weapons should be taken into custody.

194
Q

When will CID conduct a criminal investigation in a PSLPD employee DV incident?

A

If probable cause does not exist.

195
Q

If the PSLPD employee is placed on administrative leave stemming from a DV incident, all departmental equipment shall be secured by the Professional Standards Division Commander during the period of leave or suspension. The equipment to be secured includes: (5)

A
  • All department-issued firearms
  • Weapons
  • Vehicles
  • Badges
  • Identification
196
Q

If the final disposition of the administrative investigation results in a preponderance of evidence to support DV, appropriate action will be taken by the agency such as: (4)

A
  • Counseling (Employee Assistance Program, EAP)
  • Early Assistance
  • Psychological Evaluation
  • Suspension
197
Q

Officers who engage in the following (DV related) actions may be subject to investigation and disciplinary action: (4)

A
  • Failure to report first hand or well-founded knowledge of abuse or violence committed by a fellow officer to a supervisor.
  • Failure to cooperate with the investigation of a law enforcement officer domestic violence case (except in the case where that officer is the victim).
  • Interference with cases involving themselves or fellow officers.
  • Intimidation/coercion of witnesses or victims (i.e., surveillance, harassment, stalking, threatening, or falsely reporting).
198
Q

Officers who learn they are the subject of any criminal investigation, regardless of jurisdiction, are required to:

A

Make a report to their supervisors and provide notice of the court dates, times, appearances, and proceedings in a timely fashion.

199
Q

Supervisors should be aware and, when appropriate, document any pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence including but not limited to the following: (3)

A
  • Aggressiveness
  • DV related
  • Deteriorating work performance
200
Q

Aggressive pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (5)

A
  • Excessive and/or increased use of force on the job
  • Unusually high incidences of physical altercations and verbal disputes
  • Citizen and fellow officer complaints of unwarranted aggression and verbal abuse
  • Inappropriate treatment of animals
  • Unexplained increased frequency of on – or off-duty officer injuries.
201
Q

DV related pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (3)

A
  • Monitoring and controlling any family member or intimate partner through such means as excessive phone calling
  • Stalking or inappropriate surveillance of any intimate partner or family member
  • Frequent or repeated incidents of discrediting and/or disparaging an intimate partner or family member
202
Q

Deteriorating work performance pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer’s possible domestic violence include: (3)

A
  • Tardiness
  • Excessive Absences
  • Alcohol and drug abuse
203
Q

When a supervisor notes a pattern of problematic behavior, the supervisor should: (2)

A
  • Address the behaviors through a review or other contact with the officer and document all contacts.
  • Forward written reports capturing the behaviors to the Professional Standards Commander through the chain of command.
204
Q

In 1996, Congress passed a revision of Federal Law which makes it illegal for any person convicted of ___, whether under a federal or state law, to possess or own a firearm or ammunition. [Ref. Federal Law 18 USC 922 (g)(8)]

A

A misdemeanor “domestic violence” offense

205
Q

The Federal DV Law prohibition against possession of firearms law does not apply to ___. (3)

A
  • Convictions that have been set aside
  • Pardoned
  • Had their conviction expunged
206
Q

An employee who is convicted of a domestic violence offense will no longer:

A

Be able to perform regular duties as a police officer

207
Q

For a DV arrest, should an individual refuse to relinquish a personal firearm or ammunition, the agency will contact:

A

The local office of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.

208
Q

T/F: The PSLPD mandates an officer carry a department-issued weapon 24 hours a day?

A

False

209
Q

Violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature.

A

Dating Violence

210
Q

The existence of a dating violence relationship shall be determined based on the consideration of the following factors: (3)

A
  • A dating relationship must have existed within the past six (6) months
  • The nature of the relationship is characterized by the expectation of affection or sexual involvement between the parties
  • The frequency and type of interaction is involved over time and on a continuous basis during the course of the relationship.
211
Q

“Repeat Violence” is defined as:

A

Two incidents of violence or stalking, one of which must have been within 6 months of filing a petition.

212
Q

In the event that there is PC for an arrest but the suspect unable to be located prior to the end of the officer’s shift, the officer will: (2)

A
  • Submit a warrant application
  • Probable cause affidavit will be delivered to the oncoming shift supervisor of the district which the crime occurred while waiting for the warrant to be approved.
213
Q

The four types of injunctions for protection are:

A
  • Injunction for Protection Against Domestic Violence
  • Injunction for Protection Against Dating Violence
  • Injunction for Protection Against Repeat Violence
  • Injunction for Protection Against Sexual Violence
214
Q

Designed to help employees and their family members with a variety of work-life challenges which affect job performance and/or attendance; such as emotional well being, family matters, work issues and addiction and recovery.

A

Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

215
Q

A completely confidential service that allows employees and their family members to receive counseling for problems not usually covered under group health plans.

A

Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

216
Q

Entry into the EAP program can occur at one of three levels:

A
  • Voluntary
  • Informal
  • Formal referral
217
Q

This type of referral occurs when a supervisor makes a referral to the E.A.P. after observing or otherwise detecting there are personal or professional issues affecting an employee’s work performance, but which do not give rise to formal disciplinary action.

A

Informal referral

218
Q

Occurs when an employee’s participation in the E.A.P. is mandated as an alternative to, or in conjunction with, disciplinary action.

A

Formal referral

219
Q

Referrals to the employee assistance program must be based strictly on ___.

A

Job performance.

220
Q

All immediate supervisors shall be responsible for ___ and ___ performance deficiencies and offering referral to the E.A.P. for assistance.

A

Identifying; Documenting

221
Q

No information about the use of E.A.P. services will be provided to anyone unless:

A

The employee provides written permission to do so as required by all state and federal confidentiality laws.

222
Q

Voluntary or informal participation shall not preclude:

A

Prosecution or Disciplinary action resulting from an independent investigation or complaint.

223
Q

Training regarding E.A.P. referral procedures will be provided to employees upon:

A

Promotion to a supervisor position.

224
Q

Any civilian personnel starting at the minimum rate for that pay grade will be evaluated at ___, which is the end of their probationary period.

A

270 days

225
Q

Probationary officers and probationary reserve officer will be evaluated __ and continuing until the end of their probationary period.

A

Quarterly beginning at their date of hire.

226
Q

Probationary officers will also be evaluated on their anniversary date, ___.

A

One year from date of hire, on the PSLPD Long Form Evaluation.

227
Q

Probationary officers and probationary reserve officers assigned to the FTO program will have their quarterly evaluations completed ___.

A

By the FTO supervisors

228
Q

Probationary officers who have completed the FTO program will have their quarterly and annual evaluations completed ___.

A

By their assigned supervisor.

229
Q

Probationary reserve officers who have completed the FTO program should have their quarterly evaluations completed by ___.

A

The Lieutenant assigned to oversee the Reserve Program.

230
Q

Annual performance evaluations will be completed on the PSLPD Short Form Evaluation when:

A

Performance meets or exceeds standards.

231
Q

The PSLPD Long Form Evaluation will be used when: (2)

A
  • The performance fails to meet standards

- When requested by non-probationary officers

232
Q

Promoted employees shall be evaluated in writing by the promoting authority prior to the completion of:

A

Approximately 90 days of service in the new position and then annually on their new classification date (date of promotion).

233
Q

A promoted employees new classification date is:

A

The date of promotion.

234
Q

Each employee shall be counseled at the beginning of the evaluation rating period concerning the following areas: (3)

A

a. Tasks of the position occupied
b. Level of performance expected
c. Evaluation rating criteria as outlined in G.G.s and/or SOPs specific to the employee’s assignment.

235
Q

All written performance evaluations are completed by the employee’s ___.

A

Designated supervisor

236
Q

All written performance evaluations are based upon the employee’s ___ and are based on performance for the specific period of time the evaluation is for, (i.e. monthly, quarterly, annually).

A

Current assignment (FTO program, probationary or full time)

237
Q

Once the rater has completed the evaluation, it will be submitted to the rater’s immediate supervisor (the reviewer), who will review it for: (4)

A
  • Fairness
  • Impartiality
  • Uniformity
  • Consistency
238
Q

When an employee’s job performance falls below the established standards of the job, the rater shall, as soon as practical:

A

Advise the employee in writing of the performance that does not meet standards in order to provide an opportunity for the employee to improve his/her performance.

239
Q

If a performance issue occurs within the ___ prior to the end of the rating period and will not result in an overall less than satisfactory rating, the evaluation may proceed on the normal due date.

A

Ninety (90) days

240
Q

If a performance issue will result in an overall

rating less than satisfactory, the evaluation and benefits will be:

A

Delayed to allow the employee to have up to Ninety (90) days to improve performance to a satisfactory level.

241
Q

All contested evaluations shall then be reviewed by ___.

A

The rater’s reviewer (LT).

242
Q

The City Performance Evaluation has the three following ratings: (3)

A
  • Below
  • Met
  • Exceeded
243
Q

The PSLPD Short Form evaluation has the following rating categories:

A
  • Meets Standards

- Exceeds Standards

244
Q

The PSLPD Long Form evaluation has the following rating categories:

A
  • Failed to Meet Standards
  • Met Standards
  • Exceeds Standards
245
Q

The City Human Resources Department prepares a list of personnel whose evaluations are due __.

A

On a monthly basis.

246
Q

Complaints of discrimination against the department shall be investigated by:

A

Human Resources / Administrative Services Department.

247
Q

Police officers conduct their duties pursuant to a grant:

A

Of limited authority from the community.

248
Q

Training in ethical standards to all Police Department personnel shall be conducted:

A

At a minimum biennially by the Professional Standards Division.

249
Q

LEO probation ends one year after:

A

Completion of the FTO Program.

250
Q

Property should only be seized when:

A

Needed for evidence or for the protection of an officer making an arrest.

251
Q

What is the Two Person Rule?

A

Two (2) members of PSLPD, one of which shall be a sworn supervisor, are required to verify and initial the packaging of any NARCOTIC or CURRENCY item submitted into Evidence.

252
Q

Any cash in excess of ___ or other property to be stored with a value in excess of ___ shall be stored in the temporary “slam” lockers during non-regular operating hours of the Evidence section.

A

$1000.00; $1,000.00

253
Q

When counting, opening or transferring currency in evidence, the ___ rule shall be employed.

A

Two (2) person

254
Q

The two (2) person rule shall be employed when: (2)

A
  • Weighing and/or counting narcotic or dangerous drug evidence.
  • Counting, opening or transferring currency in evidence
255
Q

If any firearms are found to be loaded and there is nobody available who is familiar with the firearm for submission into evidence, a __ shall be contacted.

A

Firearms instructor/armorer

Independent (7 decks)

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