Genetics + Chemo Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Retinblastoma proteins

A

Tumour suppressor protein that is dysfunctional in several major cancers (Protein name abbreviated pRb; gene name RB or RB1).
Prevents excessive cell growth by inhibiting cell cycle progression.
If an oncogenic protein binds to and inhibits pRb
this can lead to cancer.
Protein is encoded by the RB1 gene on Chr 13. If both alleles are mutated early in life the protein is inactivated and results in the dev of retinoblastoma.
Astd with:
Retinoblastoma
Lung Ca
Bladder breast osteosarcoma and melanoma.

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2
Q

What is Pancytoketarin AE1 and AE3

A

Keratin cocktail that detects CK1 - 8, 10, 14 - 16 and 19, but does not detect CK17 or CK18

Confirm or rule out epithelial nature of tissue, tumors or components of tumors (example: breast ductal lavage foam cells are not epithelial, Diagn Cytopathol 2002;27:261)
Identify metastatic carcinoma in lymph nodes (Gynecol Oncol 2007;105:683, J Clin Pathol 2006;59:518), bone marrow (Int J Cancer 2007;120:1603) or at frozen section (Acta Histochem Cytochem 2011;44:133) by immunohistochemistry or (uncommonly) flow cytometry

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3
Q

What was the FIRES study and what were its pertinent findings

A

The FIRES study was a prospective study of 385. It aimed to identify the sensitivity and negative predictive value of sentinel lymph node biopsy in presumed early stage endometrial cancer. (Lancet Oncology Mar 2017).
Indocyanine green 1mL to lateral cervix. sentinal nodes identified and taken and then completion lymphadenctomy - pelvicin all and paraaortic in 74% (robotic OT)
Overall - sensitivity 97% of +ve nodes were identified by the sentinal nodes
negative predictive value 99.6% ( only one pt had +ve nodes with -ve sentinal nodes)

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4
Q

What proportion of Endometrial Cancer is attributable to Obesity and lack of physical activity

A

70% ( American Cancer Society 2018)

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5
Q

What is the SNL detection rate of Indocyanine green? How does that compare to Blue + Tc-99

A

detection rate of SLN biopsy was
97.3% (143/147) for women in the Tc99m + BD group and 96.9% (189/195) for women in the ICG group (p = 0.547).

bilateral mapping rate for ICG was
84.1%-significantly higher with respect to the
73.5% obtained with Tc99m + BD (p = 0.007).
NO DIFFERENCE in sensitivity and false -ve rate in women with LND and SNL Algorithm.
Overall same detection rate but higher bilateral rate in Indocyanine Green.

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6
Q

In Endometrial cancer. What % of women will have +ve Para-aortic nodes when the pelvic nodes are -ve

A

1.5%
Chiang 2011
OBJECTIVE:
To describe and review the incidence of para-aortic (PA) nodal metastasis in completely staged endometrial cancer patients who are negative for pelvic nodal metastasis.

METHODS:
Using an institutionally maintained database, we identified all patients with endometrial cancer from 2002 to 2006 who had both pelvic and aortic nodal dissections and determined the rate of isolated para-aortic nodal metastasis in non-malignant (i.e. negative) pelvic nodes.

RESULTS:
201 endometrial cancer patients were surgically treated at our institution from 2002 to 2006. 171 patients had both pelvic and PA nodes removed during surgery, and specimens examined by a pathologist. Only 2 (1.2%) had PA nodes that tested positive for malignance (i.e. positive PA nodes) with pelvic nodes that tested negative for malignancy (i.e. negative pelvic nodes). The final International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) grade for the endometrial tumor cells in the two patients was “G1” with endometrioid adenocarcinoma and “G3” with endometrioid adenocarcinoma and mucinous differentiation, respectively.

CONCLUSION:
Based on the very low incidence of patients inflicted with endometrial cancer that have positive para-aortic lymph nodes (PALNs) with negative pelvic nodes found both in our literature review (1.5%) and in our own study (1.2%), the addition of PA lymphadenectomy in all patients was found to have minimal diagnostic and therapeutic value. At the present, the role of complete PA lymphadenectomy in all patients with endometrial cancer should be re-examined. Individualized algorithms should be developed based on risk factors and status of pelvic nodes.

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7
Q

What is Cowden Syndrome

A

AKA Multiple Harmatoma syndrome is an Autosomal Dominant inherited condition characterised by:
- Benign overgrowth (harmatomas)
- increased risk of Br, Thyroid, Uterine cancer + others

Risk about 1: 200,000
Astd with mutations in PTEN on 10q23.3

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8
Q

What is the PTEN gene mutation

A

Phosphatase and Tensin Homolog is encoded by the PTEN gene.
PTEN acts as a TUMOUR SUPPRESSOR GENE - through the action of its phosphatase protein prude. This phosphatase involved in the regulation o the cell cycle, preventing cells from growing and dividing too rapidly.

Mutations lead to a reduction or loss of activity. This leads to increased cell proliferation and reduced cell death. These are common in prostate CA (~70% of cases) as well as glioblastoma, endometria Ca.

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9
Q

What % of +ve lymph nodes have palpable/macroscopically abnormal nodes at OT

A

Fewer than 10% of pts with lymph nodes metastases have grossly enlarged lymph nodes.

Creaseman WT et al., Surgical pathologic spread patterns of endometrial CA 1987

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10
Q

in GOG-33 What % of women with presumed stage I endometrial carcinoma had more advanced disease

A

9% of women had pelvic nodal disease, 6% had para-aortic nodal disease, 5% had disease that had spread to the adnexa and 6% had other extrauterine metastases at the time of OT.

GOG-33
The surgical pathologic features of 621 patients with Stage I carcinoma of the endometrium are
presented. All patients were treated with primary surgery consisting of total abdominal hysterectomy,
bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, selective pelvic and paraaortic lymphadenectomy and peritoneal cytology. An appreciable number of patients (144-2296) with Stage I cancers have disease outside of the
uterus (lymph node metastasis, adenexal disease, intraperitoneal spread and/or malignant cells in
peritoneal washings). Multiple prognostic factors particularly grade and depth of invasion are related to
extrauterine disease. This study adds credence to the primary surgical approach with individualized
postoperative therapy as indicated.
Cancer 60:2035-2041. 1987.

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11
Q

What % of Tumour grade is upgraded after final histology for endometrial Ca after Pipelle and D&C

A

Pipelle - 26% upgraded
D&C 10%

Daniel AG. Accuracy of office and operating room curettage in the grading of endometrial Ca Obstet Gyn 1998

Larson et alk. Comparison of D&C and office endometrial biopsy in predicting final histopathologic grade in ENdomerial Ca Obstst Gynael 1995

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12
Q

What is a POLE mutation and how is it relevant

A

POLE - encodes a polymerase that plays a major role in DNA synthesis and nucleotide and base excision repair. ALtered in 6.4% of endometrial Cancers. Astd with very high mutation burden

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13
Q

How often is there a HER2/neu mutation in Uterine Serous Adenocarcinoma

A

~ 40%

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14
Q

How often are HGSC of the ovary MSI-H

A

~ 1.5 %

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15
Q

How often do Endometrial andenocarcinoma have POLE mutations

A

~ 5 % (6.4%)

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16
Q

What are the Amsterdam II criteria for Lynch Syndrome?

A

3 or more relatives with verified lynch syndrome associated cancers - CRC, Endometrial, TCC of the Ureter or renal pelvis, small bowel)
- 1 of whom is a 1st degree relative of the other 2 and in whom FAP has been exluded.
- 2 generations are involved
- 1 or more cancers were diagnosed < 50 yo.

“3-2-1 rule” (3 affected members, 2 generations, 1 under age 50)
The sensitivity and specificity of Amsterdam II criteria for a diagnosis of Lynch syndrome are 22 and 98 %, respectively.

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17
Q

What are the Bethesda criteria for testing of MSI in colorectal cancer attempting to identify Lynch syndrome.

A

Testing for MSI should be conducted if:
- CRC @ < 50 yo
- Presence of synchronous, metachronous colorectal, or other HNPCC-associated tumors, regardless of age.
- CRC with MSI-H like histo @ < 60 yo ( tumour infiltrating lymphocytes. Crohn’s-like lymphocytic reaction, mucinous/signet-ring differentiation, or medullary growth pattern.)
- CRC in pt with >/= relative with a HNPCC related tumour, with one < 50 yo.
- CRC in pt with >/= 2 or more 1st or 2nd degree relatives with HNPCC related tumours regardless of age.
Sensitivity and specificity are 82 & 77% respectively.

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18
Q

FOXL2

A

Forkhead box2. PLays an important role in ovarian development and function and regulares granulosa cell differntiation.
Found in adult granulosa cell tumours - not in juvenile granulosa cell tumorus or other ovarian cancers. Astd with sex determination, eyebrow thicknes.s, Blepharophimosis-ptosis-epicanthus inversus syndrome

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19
Q

DICER1

A

Regulates gene expression and acts as a tumour suppressor. Autosomal dominant. increased risk of Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours - probably a majority of patients but not clear. all should be tested for. Also early childhood lung Ca.

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20
Q

BRIP1

A

BRCA Interacting Protein 1. Chr 17
~ 10 - 15 %
? increased lifetime risk for breast cancer, including triple-negative breast cancer.

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21
Q

PALB2

A

Partner And Localizer of BRCA2. Chr 16
PALB2 works together with BRCA2 to repair damaged DNA.
Ca Risk - by 80yrs
Br Female - 53%
Br male 1%
OVarian 5%
Pancreatic 2-3%
Consider RRSO after age 50 years unless there are early ovarian cancers in the family. The age of RRSO may be individualised based on family history

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22
Q

In the Kuchenbaecker study, the risk of Br Ca up to the age of 80 in women with BRCA 1 mutation?

A

72%

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23
Q

In the Kuchenbaecker study, the risk of Br Ca up to the age of 80 in women with BRCA 2 mutation?

A

69%

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24
Q

In the Kuchenbaecker study, the risk of ovarian Ca up to the age of 80 in women with BRCA 1 mutation?

A

44%

25
Q

In the Kuchenbaecker study, the risk of Ovarian Ca up to the age of 80 in women with BRCA 2 mutation?

A

17%

26
Q

How do alkylating agents work? Name 6

A

Interfere with DNA replication by crosslinking DNA strands, breaking strand and abnormal pairing of base pairs
effective throughout the cell cycle - better in rapidly dividing
Major Tox: Haem, GI and reproductive + secondary malignancies
E.g. Cyclophosphamide, Melphalan, Ifosfamide, Chlorambucil, Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaliplatin.

27
Q

What do antimetabolites do, toxicities, cell phase and name 2

A

Act as false metabolites that are then incorporated into DNA strand. Interefere with DNA and RNA synthesis.
Mostly specific for S phase therefore more effective for fast growign tumours.
Major toxicities in GI and haemotopoietic systems.
E.g.
Methotrexate,
5-Fluorourocil

28
Q

What do Anti tumour antiBIOTICs do, toxicities, cell phase and name 2

A

AKA Anthracyclines interfere with RNA and DNA synthesis.
Cell cycle non specific
Toxicity in Haemotopoetic, GIT, Cardiac and Reproductive systems.

Cardiac toxicity - acute ECG and arrhythmias.
existing heart disease are most at risk.
Bleomycin, Daunorubicin, and Doxorubicin
Actinomycin D

29
Q

What do plant alkaloids do, toxicities, cell phase and name 2

A

Bind to microtubule proteins during metaphase, causing mitotic arrest. cell cannot divide –> apoptosis therefore mainly for M phase
Toxicity in haematopoietic, integumentary, neurologic and reproductive systems.
Hypersensitivity iks common - need cover. reactions also may occur during administration of these agents.
Three subgroups
vinca alkaloids (vincristine and vinblastine)
Epipodophyllotoxins e.g. etoposide and teniposide
Taxanes e.g. paclitaxel and docetaxel.

30
Q

What do hormones do for chemotherapy. toxicities, cell phase and name 2

A

alter the internal / extracellular environment.
Cell cycle phase non-specific.
action depends on the presence of hormone receptors in the tumours themselves. classification:
adrenocorticoids, eg. Prednisone
androgens, eg. testosterone propionate
oestrogens, eg. diethylstilbestrol
○ selective oestrogen receptor modulators, eg. tamoxifen citrate
○ selective aromatase inhibitors, eg. anastrozole
○ progesterones, eg. megestrol acetate
○ antitestosterone , eg. flutamide
- Major toxicities occur in the gastrointestinal, sexual / reproductive systems and mood and sleep pattern changes

31
Q

What do monoclonal antibodies do in Ca treatment, toxicities, name 3

A

First targeted therapies. targeta a specific antigen. To be effective need to have a target on malignant cells only. be densely expressed, the target antigen related to tumour response. The role of the target antigen in cell survival and prolieferation is instrumental in cell destruction.
Unconjugated lead to an immunologic reponse and the host destroying the cel - e.g. rituximab (CD20) Trastuzumab (HER2) Alemtuzumab (CD52)
Conjugated - carry conjugates (toxins, radiation etc) that kill the cell without any host interaction e.g. gemtuzumab ozogamicin e… also Bev, cetuximab

32
Q

What do TKI do in Ca treatment, toxicities, name 3

A

TKI are small molecules that block ATP binding site of the Tyrosine kinase enzyme. Multiple TKI involved. E.g. BRC-ABL, platelet derived growth factor, Epidermal grouth factor receptor. E.g. Imatinib, Erlotinib inhibits EGFR-1, Lenvatinib - multiple TKI - VEGFR1, VEGFR2, VEGFR3 kinases + PDGFR alpha, c-KIT and RET protooncogene.

33
Q

What is the MAP kinase pathway?

A

MAPK/ERK pathway AKA Ras-Raf-MEK-ERK - chain or proteins in the cell that communicates a signal from a receptor on the surface of the cell to the nucleus. Ends when the DNA in the nucleus expresses a protein and produces some change in the cell, such as cell division.

Pathway includes The pathway includes many proteins, including MAPK (mitogen-activated protein kinases, originally called ERK, extracellular signal-regulated kinases), which communicate by adding phosphate groups to a neighboring protein (phosphorylating it), which acts as an “on” or “off” switch.

When one of the proteins in the pathway is mutated, it can become stuck in the “on” or “off” position, which is a necessary step in the development of many cancers. Components of the MAPK/ERK pathway were discovered when they were found in cancer cells. Drugs that reverse the “on” or “off” switch are being investigated as cancer treatments.[1]

34
Q

What is NF1 and what is it associated with?

A

NF1 is Neurofibromatosis Type 1 - astd with an increased risk of Ovarian Cancer.
Neurofibromatosis also astd with: 1:3500, Flat coffee coloured birth marks, freckles, neurofibromas - harmless, soft, neurofibromas, retinal tumorus

35
Q

What is RB1 and what is it associated with?

A

RB is a tumoru suppressor protein
pRb restrics the cells ability to replicate DNA by preventing its prgression fomr G1 to S phase.
Astd with an increaed risk of multiple Ca including OVarian Ca.

36
Q

What are disadvantages of Docetaxel vs Paclitaxel

A

Docetaxel astd with a higher risk of hypersensitivity, N&V , Neuropathy and neutropenia.

37
Q

What is the standard BEP regimen

A

Bleomycin – 30,000 IU IM/IV Days 1,8 & 15
Cisplatin – 20mg / m2 IV Day 1 to 5
Etoposide 100mg/m2 IV Day 1 - 5

Pegfilgastrim 6mg SC Day 6

Every 21 days for 3 cycles for low risk disease and 4 for intermediate or poor risk.

38
Q

What is the response rate of Sex cord stromal tumours to adjuvant chemotherapy

A

63 - 80%

39
Q

Doxorubicin is associated with cardiac toxicity - describe.

A

Cardiomyopathy – incidence depends on cumulative dose with incidence of ~ 4% with dose of 500 – 550 mg/ m2 up to 18% with 550 – 600 mg/m2 and 36% when the dose is > 600mg/m2. May be due to oxidative stress, downregulation of genes for contractile proteins, and p53 apoptosis. Risk is increased for patients over 65, those who have had anthracyclines before and those with one or more cardiac RF. Significantly less in PLD than standard doxorubicin.

40
Q

Agents that work in the G1 phase and what is G1 phase.

A

G1 (RNA and protein synthesis) – asparginase, corticosteroids

41
Q

Agents that work in the S phase and what is S phase?

A

S (DNA synthesis, chromosome replication) – Vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine), 5-FU, Antemetablolites: methotrexate, hydroxyurea, doxorubicin, cytarabine, gemcitabine, etoposide, topotecan, capecitabine, cytarabine, prednisolone

42
Q

Agents that work in G2 phase and what is G2 phase?

A

G2 - period of rapid cell growth and protein synthesis during which the cell prepares itself for mitosis: – bleomycin, actinomycin, irinotecan, topotecan

43
Q

Agents that work in M phase and what is M phase?

A

M (mitosis) – taxanes (paclitaxel) , vinca alkaloids (vincristin / Vinblastine) etoposide

44
Q

Cell cycle non specific agents?

A

platinums (cisplatin, carboplatin), alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, mephalan, ifosfamide)

45
Q

In Pl sensitive recurrent Ovarian what is the response rate for Platinum + liposomal doxorubicin?

A

26 % NCCN guidelines

46
Q

In Pl sensitive recurrent Ovarian what is the response rate for Platinum +Topotecan

A

20% NCCN guideline

47
Q

In Pl sensitive recurrent Ovarian what is the response rate for Platinum + Gemcitabine

A

19% NCCN guideline

48
Q

In Pl sensitive recurrent Ovarian what is the response rate for Platinum + Oral etoposide

A

27% NCCN guideline

49
Q

In patients with Pl RESISTANT recurrent ovarian Ca the response rate for single agent docetaxel is?

A

22% NCCN guideline

50
Q

In patients with Pl RESISTANT recurrent ovarian Ca the response rate for single agent paclitaxel is?

A

21% - NCCN guideline

51
Q

For which Germ cell tumours does NCCN recommend adjuvant treatment regardless of stage?

A
  • Embryonal tumours or endodermal sinus tumour (yolk sac)
  • Grade 2 or 3 immature teratoma
52
Q

Post treatment for malignant germ cell tumours - what are the options for radiographic residual tumour with normal tumour markers?

A

Observation or surgical resection - most of these will be necrotic tumour only.

53
Q

In the present of definitive signs of recurrence of a malignant germ cell tumours what are the options?

A
  • high dose chemotherpay with stem cell transplantation
    Additional standard chemotherapy - e.g. TIP -Taxol, Iphosphamide and cisplatin.
54
Q

In regards to long term development of foetuses exposed to chemotherapy - what is the single most important factor?

A

Gestational age at delivery.

55
Q

How soon after the last dose of chemotherapy should delivery be planned?

A

Plan for at least 3 weeks. Transient haematotoxicity is a potentionally serious neonatal side-effect
GCSF may be needed.

56
Q

Which CT agent family is associated with cardiotoxicity in adults and maybe for exposed foetus

A

Anthracyclines - e.g. Doxorubicin, epirubicin.
Can have acute and late toxicity. Foetal cardiac toxicity has been reported although little of the drug crosses the placenta.

57
Q

Which CT agent has been associated with ototoxicity in foetus’ exposed toit?

A

Cisplatin.
All platinum based CT can cross the placenta.

58
Q

In cervix cancer - what is the risk of parametrial invasion where the lymph nodes have been identified as being -ve?

A

“Negligible” - ESGO Pregnancy ca guideline.