Genesis Flashcards

Question

Linguistic Relativistic Theory

Answer 1

The linguistic relativity theory (ie, the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis) proposes that cognition is influenced and/or shaped by language; in its stronger version, this perspective would suggest that children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words.

Answer 2

The nativist theory, which proposes that language is not learned as are other skills/behaviors but is learned via an innate process hardwired in the brain, would suggest that only language exposure during a critical (time sensitive) period early in life results in fluency.

Answer 3

The learning theory, which proposes that language is acquired through conditioning and modeling, would be supported by evidence that praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again.

Answer 4

The interactionist theory proposes that language acquisition is the result of both biological (eg, normal brain development) and environmental/social factors, particularly the interaction that occurs between children and their caregivers.

Answer 5

Flashbulb memories are vivid, detailed autobiographical memories of an event that was extremely emotional or distinct or personally significant. Flashbulb memories may be best defined by the degree to which individuals feel confident about their recollections, even when the recollections are not completely accurate or consistent over time.

Answer 6

Fraction submerged is equal to the ratio of the object's density to the fluid's density

Answer 7

State functions describe the equilibrium state of a system as a relationship between various thermodynamic variables, and a process function describes the path taken by the system to go from one equilibrium state to another.

Answer 8

Heat is energy that flows from high temperatures to low temperatures. Heat can be transferred through direct physical contact (conduction), through the flow of fluids (convection), or through emission of electromagnetic energy (radiation)

Answer 9

An open system allows heat and matter to be exchanged with the surroundings. A closed system allows heat but not matter to be exchanged with the surroundings. An isolated system does not allow heat or matter to be exchanged with the surroundings.

Answer 10

1. Attachment: The bacteriophage comes in contact with the bacterial cell wall and attaches to the host bacterium using its tail fibers. 2. Viral genome entry: The phage uses its tail sheath to inject its genome into the cytoplasm of the bacterial host. 3. Host genome degradation: Viral enzymes degrade the host genome into its nucleotide components to provide the building blocks for replication of the viral genome. 4. Synthesis: Loss of the bacterial chromosome ends synthesis of host molecules. As a result, the host machinery (eg, ribosomes), now under the control of the viral genome, begins to synthesize the components needed for new viral progeny, which then assemble inside the host cell. 5. Release: Many newly assembled viral progeny (virions) are released as the bacterium disintegrates (lysis) due to the action of lysozymes on the host cell wall.

Answer 11

Mammalian sex is determined by the expression of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome. In males (XY), SRY expression induces the development of male sexual characteristics. In females (XX), the lack of SRY expression leads to the development of female sexual characteristics.

Answer 12

The intracellular scaffolding of a eukaryotic cell is composed of three families of protein filaments: Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. Intracellular transport of cargo (eg, organelles, vesicles) is mediated primarily by two microtubular motor proteins (kinesin and dynein). Kinesin mediates anterograde transport (ie, away from the nucleus) whereas dynein mediates retrograde transport (ie, toward the nucleus).

Answer 13

The volume of fluid filtered through the kidney per unit time is known as the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which can be modulated by controlling blood flow through the glomerulus. Higher hydrostatic (blood) pressure in the glomerulus increases GFR, and lower hydrostatic pressure decreases GFR.

Answer 14

Muscle fiber action potentials propagate along the sarcolemma, the plasma membrane of the muscle fiber. The sarcolemma burrows deep into the muscle fiber, forming hollow structures known as transverse (T) tubules.

Answer 15

Kinases transfer phosphate groups from NTPs to other molecules (or from other molecules to NDPs), phosphatases remove phosphate groups by hydrolysis, phosphorylases break bonds by adding inorganic phosphate across them, and ligases hydrolyze NTPs for the energy necessary to link two molecules together.

Answer 16

In operant conditioning, the outcome of a behavior impacts the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated; behavior increases due to reinforcement, and it decreases due to punishment. Positive reinforcement refers to a desirable stimulus being applied, whereas negative reinforcement is an undesirable stimulus being withdrawn.

Answer 17

A conditioned taste aversion is a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs when an organism becomes ill after consuming something (eg, food, alcohol). Whatever was consumed prior to the N/V can become associated with the illness (even if it did not cause the illness) and is avoided afterward, long term. Taste aversions almost always link illness with foods (or smells), which is thought to be an evolutionary adaptation. Taste aversion is a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs after just one instance of becoming ill following food/beverage consumption. Taste aversions are long lasting and can develop despite many hours passing between consumption and illness.

Answer 18

Acquisition refers to the learning that takes place as an association is formed between the unconditioned stimulus (eg, food) and the neutral stimulus (eg, bell).

Answer 19

Standardization refers to test administration and/or scoring being done in a uniform manner. Consistency of test administration and scoring allows researchers to better compare one subject or group to the next.

Answer 20

Reliability describes the degree to which a measure or experiment is consistent (eg, a test produces a similar score for one person who takes it twice). Validity refers to the accuracy of a measure or experiment (eg, a test accurately assesses what it was designed to measure).

Answer 21

McDonaldization is the process whereby efficiency reduces individuality, calculability reduces quality, predictability reduces uniqueness, and control reduces the need for a skilled workforce.

Answer 22

Ethnography is a qualitative method for the scientific study of human social phenomena. Using observation and interviews, ethnographies study people in their natural environments (within their own communities) and provide descriptive information about the cultures, behaviors, norms, and values in a given geographic location.

Answer 23

Social network analysis is an epidemiological technique mapping connections between individuals to study the spread of communicable diseases in a population.

Answer 24

Content analysis is a qualitative technique used to examine the text and images involved in human communication. It is used to assess one-on-one verbal communication, such as interview transcripts, or more widespread forms of communication, such as online content. Content analysis does not involve observations of individuals in their social environments.

Answer 25

Intersectionality describes the multiple, interconnected social identities (eg, gender, age, race, class) that intersect to impact individuals' lives, perspectives, and treatment in society.

Answer 26

Implicit/nondeclarative memory is memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled, such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes. Classically conditioned responses rely on implicit memory.

Answer 27

An ascribed status is one that is socially assigned, such as race. An achieved status is one that is attained, such as one's occupation (eg, doctor), notable achievements (eg, Olympic athlete), or failures (eg, college dropout). Master status, which is either ascribed (assigned) or achieved (attained), dominates in most social situations and thereby tends to influence most aspects of one's social life.

Answer 28

Labeling theory suggests that when someone is labeled as deviant, the act of being labeled produces further deviance. The initial act is called primary deviance and, if labeled, results in social stigma such as disapproval by others. Internalization of the deviant label leads to further acts of deviance, called secondary deviance. Labeling theory suggests that deviance lies not in the act but in the social response of applying a label to individuals. Labeling individuals as deviant has consequences, such as stigmatization, that lead to further deviance.

Answer 29

Charles Cooley (not Mead) proposed the concept of the looking-glass self, suggesting that beliefs about oneself are derived through social interactions with others throughout one's lifetime. The Mead theory differs from the Cooley theory by suggesting that interactions early in life result in one's conception of self or identity.

Answer 30

George Herbert Mead, who is most associated with the sociological theory of symbolic interactionism, argued that social (rather than biological) factors influence identity formation. Mead suggested that the experience of "self" emerges through social interaction with others who play important and formative roles in one's life (eg, family). The two aspects of the self are the "I" and "me," which develop in stages: 1. Preparatory (or imitation): Babies/toddlers imitate others (eg, a parent's hand gesture) and begin using symbols and language (eg, repeating a phrase used by a parent) without meaning comprehension. At this stage, children have no sense of "self" as separate from the world around them. 2. Play: Through play (eg, pretending to be a doctor), preschool-age children begin role-taking (ie, understanding the perspectives of others). When children understand themselves as individuals separate from others, the "I" component of the self has developed. Children then begin to imagine how others perceive them, which is the beginning of the development of the "me." 3. Game: School-age children become aware of their position/role in relation to others. They begin to see themselves from the perspective of the more abstract generalized other, further developing the "me" to incorporate the values and rules of the society in which they live.

Answer 31

Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that contradictory or incompatible beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors cause a state of mental discomfort (cognitive dissonance) that results in motivation to reduce the conflict by aligning thoughts and/or behaviors.

Answer 32

Stereotypes are overgeneralized beliefs about groups and can be positive or negative. Prejudice involves negative beliefs and feelings about members of a group. Discrimination involves actions based on stereotypes and prejudice that negatively impact a group.

Answer 33

The implicit association test (IAT) is a psychometric technique designed to measure unconscious attitudes. The test requires participants to match words or images to one of two opposite categories as quickly as possible. Faster response times imply a stronger association between the word and image because the participant does not have to deliberate about a decision for very long.

Answer 34

Social groups are composed of individuals who interact and identify with each other. As group size increases, the number of potential social ties (relationships between individual group members) also increases. Social groups can be large (eg, whole societies) or small. A dyad (relationship between two people) has only one social tie, making dyadic relationships the most intimate (eg, romantic couples, business partners); however, dyads are also less stable than larger groups because if either person leaves, the group ceases to exist. A triad (relationship among three people) can have three potential social ties, making triadic relationships more stable but less intimate than dyads. The presence of a cultural liaison increases the number of social ties, resulting in a more stable group.

Answer 35

The Doppler effect occurs when the observed frequency and wavelength of a sound are shifted from those of the original due to relative motion between the source and the observer. The frequency shift is positive when the source velocity is negative (moving closer) and negative when the source velocity is positive (moving away).

Answer 36

he Doppler effect can be approximated by the relative velocity between the source and the observer and the speed of the wave in the medium (∆f/f=v/c). The magnitude of the frequency shift is inversely proportional to the wave's speed. The Doppler effect of light will result in smaller observed frequency shifts because the speed of light is much greater than that of sound.

Answer 37

Transformation occurs when prokaryotes pick up foreign genetic material from their surroundings. Eukaryotes do not participate in transformation.

Answer 38

Electrical synapses transfer information from one cell to another via passive ionic current flow through gap junctions. In contrast, chemical synapses use neurotransmitters to transfer information, which is a slower process.

Answer 39

Desmosomes provide tensile strength to epithelial cell sheets by anchoring the cytoskeletons, specifically the intermediate filaments, of two cells together. This creates a continuous cytoskeletal network that spans the entire epithelial sheet, one through which mechanical stress (eg, pulling, stretching, tension) can be distributed. Desmosomes are found predominantly in tissues that are subject to high levels of mechanical stress (eg, muscle tissue, epithelial layers of the skin) and prevent tissue tearing

Answer 40

Gap junctions are cell-cell junctions that mediate communication between cells. Protein channels (connexons) in one cell align with complementary channels in another cell to form pores that facilitate the passive and bidirectional exchange of ions and small solutes. Gap junctions are found in cell populations that depend on coordinated activity, such as smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or neural tissue.

Answer 41

Tight junctions are cell-cell junctions that prevent water and solutes from diffusing between cells and across the epithelial cell layer. These junctions form a watertight seal that fully encircles the apical end of every cell in the basal epithelial sheet. Tight junctions serve as a barrier and separate tissue space; they are found in a number of tissues, including skin, gastrointestinal tract, and testis.

Answer 42

Esters are carboxylic acid derivatives formed by Fisher esterification, an acid-catalyzed reaction of a carboxylic acid and an alcohol. Esters are named by stating the alcohol chain prefix followed by the name of the carboxylic acid, with the suffix –ic acid replaced by –ate.

Answer 43

The Michaelis-Menten equation relies on three assumptions: 1. The free ligand approximation states that substrate concentration [S] is constant during the reaction. This approximation is only true during the initial phase of the reaction, before a significant amount of substrate is converted to product. Substrate can also be depleted when it binds the enzyme to form the enzyme-substrate complex (ES). To ensure that ES formation does not significantly impact [S], the total concentration of enzyme in solution should be much smaller than any substrate concentration tested (Number III). 2. The steady state assumption states that the concentration of ES remains constant over the course of the reaction, allowing the rate of product formation to remain constant. Once [S] becomes significantly depleted, ES levels decrease and the reaction slows. 3. The irreversibility assumption states that the reaction proceeds only in the forward direction, and product does not get converted back to substrate. Once enough product accumulates, the reverse reaction occurs at non-negligible levels and further slows the net rate of product formation.

Answer 44

The double-membrane system illustrated in the question was used to separate B. henselae and HCV on the basis of size. In comparison to eukaryotic cells (10–100 µm in diameter), B. henselae cells and viruses are much smaller. The average prokaryotic cell is 0.5–2 µm in diameter, and most viruses range between 0.02–0.3 µm in diameter. Therefore, both B. henselae and HCV can pass through the first membrane from chamber 1 into chamber 2 and infect healthy hepatocytes. In contrast, movement into chamber 3 is restricted to HCV because the 0.2-µm pores are too small for B. henselae (0.5 µm) to pass through. Because hepatocytes in both chambers 2 and 3 were infected, it can be concluded that HCV played a role in the infection and not B. henselae (Choices B and D). The question suggests the use of light microscopy in chamber 3 to observe the presence of the causative agent. A light microscope has a resolution of 200 nm (0.2 µm); consequently, investigators can use it only to observe cells larger than 0.2 µm. For viruses such as HCV, which are 100 times smaller than bacteria and 1,000 times smaller than eukaryotic cells, visual observations require greater resolution. As a result of the 0.2-µm pore size leading to chamber 3 and the low resolution of the instrument, investigators will be unable to observe the causative agent of the hepatitis visually using a light microscope.

Answer 45

Retroviruses are enveloped, positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses that convert their RNA genomes into double-stranded DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. During their lysogenic cycles, retroviruses enter the nucleus and integrate their reversed transcribed DNA with the host genome. +ssRNA viruses such as HEV replicate their genomes in the cytoplasm of a host cell using their own viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which is translated from the original viral genome upon infection.

Answer 46

A disproportionation reaction is a redox reaction in which both the oxidation and reduction occur to atoms of the same element. Disproportionation reactions can be easily identified by assigning oxidation numbers and then comparing the oxidation number of the given element in the reactants with the oxidation number of the same element in the products. If a compound undergoes disproportionation, some of the compound molecules supply atoms of a particular element for oxidation, and other molecules of the compound supply atoms of the same element for reduction.

Answer 47

Formal charge assesses the allocation of charge to an atom by dividing bonding electrons evenly between atoms. Oxidation state assesses the gain or loss of electrons by an atom by assigning all bonding electrons to the more electronegative atom.

Answer 48

Glyceraldehyde is an aldose that can be derived from the oxidation of glycerol. It contains an aldehyde and two hydroxyl groups. D/L designations for all other molecules are based on D- and L-glyceraldehyde.

Answer 49

The Venturi effect refers to the reduction of fluid pressure that occurs when flow velocity increases at constricted sections of a tube. Therefore, the Venturi effect is irrelevant to the pressure in the alveoli and lung exhalation. In fact, constricted airways can cause significant reductions in pressure that cause them to collapse.

Answer 50

The resiliency of the lungs refers to the lungs' ability to recoil after being stretched.

Answer 51

Elastic recoil refers to the elasticity of elastin fibers making up alveolar tissues. These fibers are crosslinked and are capable of being stretched like a spring. When stretched, these fibers exert a restorative force on the lungs following inspiration.

Answer 52

Surface tension refers to the tendency of a liquid to reduce exposed surface area due to attractive intermolecular forces between its molecules. Surface tension is signficant at alveolar surfaces due to hydrogen bonds between water molecules lining the alveolar sacs. Because surface area increases when the alveoli expand, surface tension exerts a collapsing pressure on the alveoli.

Answer 53

Turbulent flow refers to a disorganized type of fluid flow that occurs at high velocities, not high pressures. Turbulent flow increases flow resistance, which would impede exhalation.

Answer 54

Social facilitation is a phenomenon whereby the mere presence of others enhances performance on easy, well-rehearsed tasks. Social impairment occurs when the presence of others hinders performance on difficult or unfamiliar tasks.

Answer 55

Deindividuation is a loss of individual self-awareness when one is part of a large group engaged in an emotionally arousing activity (eg, a large crowd at a sporting event). Members of large groups tend to feel a reduced sense of personal responsibility and an increased sense of anonymity. When identities are masked (eg, Ku Klux Klan robes), deindividuation is even more likely to occur. Deindividuation results in reduced personal identity and inhibitions as identification with the group increases. This can lead individuals to engage in uncharacteristic behaviors (eg, rioting, looting) while part of a large crowd. Appalling group behaviors, like public lynching, are often attributed to deindividuation. Competing in a large bicycle race is not likely to induce deindividuation among the racers. Even though the cyclists consist of a large group such that identifying individuals may be difficult, the racers still bear a sense of personal identity because they are trying to earn distinction by winning the race.

Answer 56

The dramaturgical approach is a sociological theory suggesting that individual behavior can be explained using a theater metaphor. According to this theory, individuals behave as "actors" in front of others, the "audience."

Answer 57

The front-stage self-involves impression management, which is the process of attempting to influence how one is perceived by others. For example, wearing a white coat and speaking with a soothing tone are ways a doctor uses front-stage behavior to manage the impression her patients have of her. The back-stage self involves behaviors that occur in private or informal settings, when an individual is completely comfortable and has no fear of criticism. For example, that same doctor might curse about one of her patients when she is out of earshot or is at home with her partner.

Answer 58

Fads are trends or crazes occurring over a short period within a segment of the population. For example, wearing bell-bottom pants was a fad for hippies in the 1960s. The second paragraph states that resetting of norms regarding weight is widespread with no endpoint suggested, which is inconsistent with a fad.

Answer 59

Mass media includes all the routes through which information reaches large numbers of people in society (eg, television, Internet).

Answer 60

Popular culture is defined as the ideas, attitudes, and perspectives that are mainstream (ie, relevant to most people in society). Popular culture includes anything the majority of individuals in a society believe in (eg, freedom), do (eg, watch television), wear (eg, blue jeans), or buy/consume (eg, cell phones, McDonald's meals). Popular culture can be contrasted with high culture, which is relevant to a very small fraction of the population, usually those with wealth or education. For example, collecting museum-quality artwork is not considered part of popular culture.

Answer 61

1. Behavioral traits between related or unrelated individuals. 2. Occurs between or within generations 3. May occur slowly or quickly 4. Results from teaching, education, or scientific progress 5. Transmission by way of language, and behavior Cultureal evolution describes changes in human values, practices, and or beliefs that are not due to genes

Answer 62

It influences natural behavior through natual selection of genes. 1. Genetic traits from parent to offspring 2. Occurs from one generation to the next 3. Slow, over the course of many generations 4. Independent of learning 5. Transmission by way of gene

Answer 63

Periosteum, a thin layer of connective tissue that covers and protects the long bone.

Answer 64

Epiphyses, the rounded ends that have joint surfaces covered by articular cartilage. Beneath this is the spongy bone contains red marrow

Answer 65

Diaphysis, the hollow shaft (medullary cavity) filled with bone marrow. The yellow bone marrow is beneath diaphysis

Answer 66

Metaphyses, the regions where the diaphysis and epiphyses meet. The epiphyseal (growth) plate, a cartilaginous structure that lies between the epiphyses and metaphyses, is present only during childhood and serves as the site of longitudinal growth. When growth ceases, the growth plate is replaced with mature bone and is referred to as the epiphyseal line.

Answer 67

Compact bone is organized into concentric rings of bone matrix called lamellae. The entire unit of concentrically arranged lamellae surrounding a central Haversian canal is known as an osteon, or a Haversian system. Within each osteon, lacunae (spaces containing osteocytes) connect to one another via microscopic channels called canaliculi, which allow osteocyte waste exchange and nutrient delivery.

Answer 68

1. When the muscle fiber is at rest, the myosin head is in its high-energy conformation (upright and bound to ADP and Pi), and the actin filaments are bound by the regulatory proteins tropomyosin and troponin. Tropomyosin is an elongated protein that wraps around the actin filament to block myosin-binding sites on this thin filament. Troponin is a small protein complex associated with tropomyosin. 2. Following a depolarizing stimulus by a motor neuron, Ca2+ ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol. The abundant cytosolic Ca2+ ions bind troponin, causing a conformational change that ultimately pulls on tropomyosin and exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin filaments (Choice D). 3. When the active sites are exposed, the myosin head is able to bind strongly to the actin filament, forming a cross-bridge and promoting the release of ADP and Pi. 4. The dissociation of ADP and Pi causes the power stroke, which is the actual pivot of the actin-bound myosin head that drags the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere. This directly results in shortening of the sarcomere (Choice C). The myosin head is now in its low-energy conformation. 5. A new ATP molecule binds the myosin head and the cross-bridge disassembles (Choice A). 6. Hydrolysis of the ATP molecule allows the myosin head to shift back into its upright, high-energy conformation in preparation for a new cycle of contraction (Choice B). 7. The cycle of cross-bridge formation and disassembly continues until motor neuron signaling ceases, and Ca2+ is sequestered back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer 69

Aging involves biological, psychological, and social processes. Certain approaches include: activity, continuity, disengagement, and life-course

Answer 70

The activity approach to aging suggests that the transition to old age is eased by remaining physically active (eg, exercise) and socially involved (eg, community engagement).

Answer 71

The continuity approach to aging suggests that people attempt to maintain (or continue) the same habits and lifestyle as when they were younger.

Answer 72

Disengagement theory, a negative approach to aging, holds that there is a mutual withdrawal between aging individuals and society.

Answer 73

The life course approach is holistic and multidisciplinary, conceptualizing aging in terms of psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime. This approach emphasizes the reciprocal link between social context and individuals as they age. In other words, aging individuals influence and are influenced by the broader contexts in which they live (society, history, the economy).

Answer 74

Total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime. For example, in 1955 (the middle of the "baby boom") the TFR in the U.S. was 3.6 children per woman, whereas in 2012 the TFR was 1.8. For a population to remain constant without immigration, the TFR must be 2 (referred to as the replacement rate), which is the number required to replace the two individuals required to create the two children. A TFR above 2 means the population is growing and below 2, that it is shrinking.

Answer 75

The crude birth rate (CBR) is the number of live births per year for every 1,000 members of a population, regardless of sex or age. An underdeveloped country may have a CBR of 50, whereas a more developed country may have a CBR of 10. CBR is used as a rough estimate of population growth through birth only. The last paragraph mentions birth rates declining, but does not provide any numbers (no specific data for CBR).

Answer 76

The general fertility rate (GFR), the total number of live births per year for every 1,000 women of childbearing age in a population, which is a better measure of fertility than the CBR because it accounts for the age distribution and sex ratio of the population.

Answer 77

The age-specific fertility rate (ASFR) is the number of live births per year for 1,000 women in a certain age group in a population. For example, the ASFR per 1,000 women age 25–29 may be in the hundreds, whereas the ASFR per 1,000 women age 40–44 may be in the single digits.

Answer 78

A) Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles 1. Demonstrating the understanding of scientific concepts and principles 2. Identifying the relationships between closely-related concepts B) Scientific reasoning and Problem-solving 1. Reasoning about scientific principles, theories, and models 2. Analyzing and evaluating scientific explanations and predictions C) Reasoning about the design and execution of research: 1. Demonstrating the understanding of important components of scientific research 2. Reasoning about ethical issues in research. D) Data-Based and Statistical Reasoning 1. Interpreting patterns in data presented in tables, figures, and graphs. 2. Reasoning about data and drawing conclusions from data.

Answer 79

1. Inhibition is hindered with a molecule or antibiotic | 2. Temperature increases the function, efficiency of the translation

Answer 80

1) To assess temperature effects, look at the Keq, delta G values, and look at delta S 2) Look at if the efficiency or speed is affected by an increase in temperature

Answer 81

COOH-C=O-CH2-COOH