General Technical Flashcards
What does TEM stand for?
TEM stands for anticipate, recognize, recover
Examples include NADP2 for noise purposes, visual approaches conditions, point merge, and challenging destinations like Funchal and PDL.
When should minimum fuel and mayday fuel calls be made?
Calls should be made when:
* Any change of ETA will likely result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel
* Calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome is less than final reserve fuel.
What steps should be taken if performance is limited for take-off?
Steps include:
* OPT Improved Climb
* Change Flaps
* No engine bleeds take-off
If these do not work, consider offloading freight, then fuel, and possibly make an enroute stop to refuel.
What is the role of RFFS?
RFFS stands for Rescue and Fire-Fighting Services, which is essential at aerodromes like B737-800/8200 RFFS 7.
What are the conditions for planning minima for alternate airports?
Conditions include:
* TO alternate – not more than 1h flight time w/OEI
* Destination alternate – at least 1alternate; at least 2 alternates when conditions are marginal or no conditions exist.
* No alternate needed if approved by operations under specific criteria.
* Destination Alternates planning minima: type B instrument approach DA/H + 200ft, RVR + 800m; type A instrument approach DA\H MDA\H + 400ft RVR + 1500M.
What are the limitations for inexperienced First Officers?
Limitations include:
* XW more than 2/3 of limit
* Runway performance limited
* TO and LDG RVR <1000m
* Ceiling <100’ above decision altitude for PA, 200’ >MDA for NPA
* Runway contaminated
* Abnormal procedures due to system defects
* XW landing in excess of 15kts
* Visual approaches
* Forecast or reported wind shear on approach.
What is the specific amount of flight crew oxygen required for dispatch?
Required PSI for specific oxygen bottle size is detailed in the FCOM performance dispatch in route.
What should be done on departure and approach if birds are reported?
Actions include:
* Wait
* Inform ATC and request specific bird procedures
* Brief engine failure procedures
* Prepare for eventual loss of thrust on one or both engines
* Ask for a different runway if available.
What is the wind shear escape maneuver? Diff btw predictive vs warning. How to transition.
The wind shear escape maneuver involves:
* Weather radar predictive wind shear caution illuminated alert + aural sound
* GPWS hard warning call + aural sound
* On T/O or GA _ when actioned F/D commands: target speed until v/s is 600 fpm, then targets 15º NUA until stick shaker, then it keeps intermitent stick shaker.
* On Approach and Lading _ if not actionable by the pilots, the aircraft will keep altitude or GS without regard for AOA or stall.
* Transition occurs when warning stops (out of wind shear)
What speed should be flown when diverting?
Long Range Cruise speed should be flown.
What should be done at F300 regarding heading and bank?
Set heading select bank to 10º.
If ATC tells to increase rate due to conflicting traffic, respond ‘Unable; TCAS RA will protect us.’
What are Type A and Type B approaches?
Type A: (non precision approach or precision approach)
* 2D (lateral navigation only) or 3D (lateral and vertical navigation)
* DH >=250ft
Type B: (Precision approach)
* 3D DH < 250ft, >=200ft.
What are the restrictions for new commanders?
Restrictions include:
* Not operate to CATB restricted airports
* Confirm category of airports and alternates
* Not operate with an inexperienced co-pilot
* Not allowed to perform visual approaches unless no other approach is available.
What defines CAT A, CAT B, and CAT C airports?
Definitions include:
* CAT A: Straight-in 3D instrument approach with glide path no more than 3.5 degrees; at least 1runways not performance limited for TO or LDG (no special EOSID).
* CAT B: does not meet CAT A conditions. Non-standard approaches, unusual weather/turbulence/sheer/runway characteristics (lenght, width, slope, markings, lighting, special EOSID, training required)
* CAT B restricted: CAT B + narraw runway, LDA less than 1800m, circling required, other considerations identified.
* CAT C: Additional considerations than CAT B, flight crew experience or qualification stipulatedby authority.
What are the Madrid minimums for ILS?
The minimums are 280’ for Type A approaches.
Explain Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM).
Bowed Rotor Motoring (BRM) is the straightening of the rotor shaft during engine start on the 8200. It occurs when the engine start switch is moved to GND, allowing for even heating and reducing thermal deformation.
What is the bleed philosophy on MAX aircraft?
Bleed light logic after TO will illuminate if in incorrect bleed air configuration after TO or GA; NG will not illuminate.
What should be done if the CVR circuit breaker is pulled?
Call duty pilot, make a tech log entry, and contact MAINTROL.
What is the difference between a security check and a security search?
A security search occurs when unauthorized access is suspected or when the aircraft arrives from a third country, involving checks of the flight deck, cabin, wheel well, and external panels.
Flight Crew:
* Flight Deck (if left unattended)
* Wheel Well
* Air Conditioning Panel
* External Panels and hatches (if evidence of unauthorised tampering)
Cabin Crew
* Areas between the seats and between the seat and wall
Ground Crew:
* Aircraft Hold
What should be done if hail is encountered during flight?
Actions include:
* Engine Start Switches - CONT
* A/T - Disengage
* Thrust Levers - Adjust slowly
* IAS/Mach - Use a slower speed
* Consider starting the APU.
What considerations should be made for a passenger with a heart attack?
Consider diverting to a suitable airport, advising ATC with a PAN PAN, and requesting medical assistance upon arrival.
What are the conditions for executing an orbit?
Conditions include:
* Not less than 10Nm from touchdown
* Descent not below MSA or 3000’, whichever is higher
* Executed as a racetrack pattern
* Maximum flaps 10, speed brake use if necessary.
What is the procedure for a discontinued approach?
Use the TEM tool to mitigate risks, including:
* PF calls ‘Discontinued approach’
* Retract speed brake
* Point to the MAA on the LEGS page and call “XXX feet”. Point to the MCP altitude “SET”. (PM: “XXXX checked”)
* Confirm landing gear position.
* Confirm flaps configuration
* Call “Ready”
If below MAA:
* Execute go-around.
If above MAA:
* If required de-tune ILS
* Select appropriate roll and pitch mode
* Level OFF at MAA.
* At ALT HOLD: bug up, retarct flaps + gear
* After TO X-list
What is the stop climb procedure?
Use ALT HOLD to reset new MCP altitude and engage LVL CHG.
What are the memory items for loss of thrust on both engines?
Memory items include:
* Engine Start Switches (both) – FLT
* Engine Start Levers (both) - CUTOFF
* When EGT decreases, Engine Start Levers (both) to idle detent.
* If EGT reaches a redline or there is no increase in EGT within 30s: Eng Start Lever (affected Engine)..confirm…CUTOFF, then idle detent.
* if EGT again reaches a redline or the is no increase in EGT within 30s, repeat as needed.
Can ATC control your speed while descending in Class D airspace?
Yes, speed restrictions exist within Class D airspace.
What are TCAS RA and TA?
*TCAS RA: Resolution Advisory (full red square) —> 25s from impact
*TCAS TA: Traffic Advisory (full amber circle) —> 40s from point of contact
Proximate traffic (full white square) - within 6NM and less than 1200ft vertically
Other traffic (empty square) - outside 6NM more than 1200ft vertically
Xpdr mode A - TA
Xpdr mode C or S - TA / vertical RA
TCAS II - TA + coordinated RA
MODE S is mandatory to IFR In Europe.
What are the speed brake limitations?
- Do not extend beyond flight detent in flight.
- It should be avoided the use of speed brake with flaps.
- With flaps 15 or greater the use of speed brake should be avoided.
- Speed brake should be retracted below 1000 feet.
What extra checks should be made at the end of the flight if arriving from a third country?
Security Search include:
Flight Crew:
* Flight Deck (if left unattended)
* Wheel Well
* Air Conditioning Panel
* External Panels and hatches (if evidence of unauthorised tampering)
Cabin Crew
* Areas between the seats and between the seat and wall
Ground Crew:
* Aircraft Hold
What considerations are there for an inoperative stab trim?
No A/P, no A/T, manual trimming, increased workload, anticipationf of changes in energy, early configuration, asking for a long final, no CAT2/3, no RVSM flight, more fuel: lower flight level.
What is the procedure for UPRT recovery?
Procedures include:
* Nose High / Nose Low recovery
* Wind Shear Escape Maneuver
* Approach to Stall or Stall Recovery
* Terrain Escape Maneuver
* Rejected Take-Off.
What should be done in case of an engine failure in cruise?
Follow drift down procedure and manage by:
* Disconnect auto throttle + Set thrust to limit CON
* On the ENG OUT CRZ page notice Max altitude & Max speed
* Set Max speed on the MCP _ allow the A/C to decelerate _ engage LVL CHG _ deviate 45º from course
* Notify ATC and perform the non-normal checklist.
* When Level at target speed, maintain MCT.
* Insert new ALT on CRZ PAGE for an update on ETA and Top of Descent prediction
- If needed EEC will allow thrust up to the mechanical stop from the operating engine: below 15000ft and M.045.
How does probability of thunderstorms affect fuel planning?
With a 40% probability of thunderstorms, always dispatch with two landing airports available and carry discretionary fuel for holding.
What is the maximum number of days before a Cat C HIL, MEL item needs to be fixed?
Cat C has a 10-day limit before it must be fixed.
When can the forward door be opened?
The forward door can be opened when the password is given and the cabin crew is seen through the peephole.
What are the RFFS categories for departure and destination aerodromes?
RFFS Categories are services provided by rescue and fire fighting services to support safety in aircraft operations (based on fuselage length & width)
Departure and Destination Aerodrome:
- Equal or better than RFFS 7.
- Where a risk assessment has been made by the operator, then: 1 category bellow, or,
- 2 categories bellow in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4.
Take-off alternate and destination alternates:
- 2 categories below when a risk assessment has been made by the operator or
- 3 categories below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4.
En-route alternates:
- if at least 30min notice is given: a minimum cat 4.
- If less than 30min notice: 2 cat below or 3 cat below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72h or less but not lower than cat 4.
In flight, the cap may decide to land at an airport where RFFS is lower than specified is that is the safer course of action.
What are the memory items for engine limit surge stall?
Memory items include:
* A/T if engaged - disengage
* Thrust lever - affected engine - confirm - retard until indications stay within limits or thrust lever is closed
Until what point is MEL used?
MEL is used until the aircraft is moving under its own power.
What are the considerations for stall at high level vs low level?
High level stalls are easier to initiate.
What is the minimum CAT4 notice duration?
Less than 30 minutes, with conditions applied.
2 categories below or 3 categories below in case of a temporary downgrade of 72 hours or less, but not lower than RFFS 4.
What are the engine limit surge stall memory items?
A/T if engaged: disengage; Thrust lever: affect engine, confirm, retard until engine indication stays within limits or thrust lever is closed.
Until what point is the MEL used?
Until the aircraft is moving under its own power.
What are the considerations for stalling at high level vs low level?
High level: easier to stall but safer; Low level: more margin but shorter recovery space.
What is the main difference between the SFP package and normal NG?
SFP is designed to improve take-off and landing performance on short runways, with specific features like reduced idle delay and enhanced spoiler deployment.
- idle thrust delay reduced from 5sec to 2 sec.
- flight and ground spoilers deflection increased to 60º
- sealed LE Slats, moving to FULL EXT only w/ F30&40
What differentiates RNP1 from RNAV1?
RNP is purely GNSS (GPS); RNAV could be updates on GNSS, VOR, DME, LOC, IRS.
What are the differences between NADP1 and NADP2?
NADP1: Acceleration height 3000ft, ATC contact above 1000ft; NADP2: Acceleration height 1000ft, ATC contact after selecting Flaps UP.
What segment of flight utilizes RNAV1?
SID, STAR, Missed approach.
What is the legal effectiveness of BECMG?
Change in meteorological conditions starting at the beginning of the trend forecast period, completed by the end of that period, otherwise within 2 hours.
Are timed approach procedures allowed?
Yes, under specific conditions including FMC NAV Database availability and restrictions on VS and LNAV use.
What are the conditions for continuing a long landing?
Conditions: at discretion of the Captain unless operating on a short runway (<1800m). In that case a GA is mandatory.
Conditions for a long landing warning: within 100 feet AGL, passed 33% of the runway, airborne above 5 feet AGL or weight on wheels is false.
What defines inexperienced cabin crew?
Less than 3 months of operating experience or 125 flight hours as a Cabin Crew Member.
What are the considerations for compressor wash and related engine failure on takeoff?
No engine bleed takeoff after compressor wash, de-icing considerations, and increased workload with no engine bleed.
- Memory items. Non normal checklist.
- No engine bleed after takeoff x-list
- QRH Recovery X-List
What actions should be taken for window damage?
- Delaminated: continue normal operation;
- arcing: limit airspeed below Fl 100;
- cracked or shattered: follow specific procedures based on severity. Pressurization + window integrity (bird strike) are at risk.
What is the PA for rapid disembark and evacuation?
Disembarkation: a non-normal situation occurs while embarking/disembarking. Not an immediately threat to crew or passengers, but which may escalate.
‘Disembark the passengers immediately using all available doors’ (2x);
Evacuation: Real threat exists to crew and passengers within the airplane.
´This is an emergency, evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’ (2x).
What is the procedure for shutting down engines at stand?
Engine 1 and 2 less than 20% N2, anti-collision light OFF.
Why is manual flying discouraged at high altitudes?
High TAS, reduced margins, increased sensitivity of controls.
When should bleeds be configured during engine failure at 400ft?
Not below 1500ft; QRH assumes bleeds in normal position.
Can cabin crew be all in the back galley together?
Assumed no.
What can be done if going to an outstation without maintenance?
Raise a Hold Item List (HIL) with specific approval and procedures.
What is a two-phase call?
A confirmation bias mitigation technique.
When is ‘Cleared’ used in the two-phase call?
Only for Take-Off.
What actions should be taken after a level bust due to wind shear?
Pull CVR CB; file an ASR.
What are VMC and IMC definitions?
VMC: specific visibility and altitude conditions:
- above 3000ft or 1000’ above terrain which ever is higher:
- 1500m horizontally and 1000´vertically from cloud (300ft)
- until 1000 visibility 5km and 8km above 10000
- below 3000’ or 1000’ above terrain whichever is higher:
- clear of cloud and in sight of ground
- visibility 5Km
IMC: conditions less than VFR requiring instrument reference.
What is the controlling document before taxi and during taxi?
Before taxi: MEL
After taxi: QRH (plus MEL)
What should be done if a window is cracked at FL370?
Check QRH for window damage procedures.
What is the 3-2-1 rule?
Level bust mitigation: at 3 to go, less than 3000fpm; at 2 to go, less than 2000fpm; at 1 to go, 1000fpm.
How can you find Probe Heat light information in the QRH?
Alphabetical or chapter 3 (anti-ice, rain)
What configuration provides the greatest altitude loss per NM?
Flaps 10 + Speed Brake + 180kts.
What are the un-annunciated and QAI sections of the QRH?
Un-annunciated: checklists without alerts, light or other indications.
QAI: Quick Action Index, x-lists that need a quick response. Upper case —> are annunciated. Lower case —> are not annunciated.
What do chapters 6, 9, and 3 of the QRH cover?
6 – Electrical; 9 – Flight controls; 3 – Anti-ice, Rain.
What is the difference between reactive and predictive wind shear?
The source of the warning.
Predictive: weather radar
Reactive: GPWS
What is the difference between rapid disembarkation and evacuation?
Rapid disembarkation occurs when not life-threatening; evacuation occurs otherwise.
What should be done if TCAS RA is received at FL410 with a climb command?
Follow the climb command.
What should you say in the crew briefing to improve communication?
Encourage reporting anything strange or out of the ordinary.
What is the decision-making process during a non-normal situation?
Control the situation, mitigate the threat, assess options, collect information.
Piosee is a very good way to structure though.
If you first reach MFRA and then the turn point, what should you do?
Depends on any speed restriction.
With a speed restriction for the turn, we must finish the turn until accelerate and retract flaps.
Otherwise we procede as normal, bug up + retract flaps on schedule.
Attention: 15º AOB assumed up to v2 + 20.
25º AOB at or above flaps up maneuvering speed.
What is the procedure for deviation from a CB at FL350?
Plan with at least 40NM distance; deviate upwind; minimum distance 20Nm.
Cells exceeding 35000’ should be given extra distance
Avoid overflying cells at or above 25000’
Do not try to overfly a cell by less than 5000’ due to severe turbulence.
Avoid fly under a thunderstorm: ws, turbulence, hail..
What actions are taken for blocked flight controls after a turn?
Go to Jammed or Restricted Flight Controls NNC; both pilots should counteract the jam to try to override it (ice formation or dirt accumulation, cable brake, improper lubrication, worn parts).
Activate the override feature by independently forcing the controls: the one with most movement is not jammed.
With elevator jam: use trim; With aileron jam use rudder. With rudder jam, use aileron. With spoiler use rudder and/or aileron.
plan to land at nearest suitable airport.
Where can you find the list of Schengen countries?
Jeppesen documents.
What actions should be taken for an EFB fire on flight?
Remove from charging,
With flames / without flames:
- don oxygen, take gloves, discharge halon, repeat.
No flames:
- isolate: move ped from flight deck into forward galley.
What should be considered if there is no weather information for the destination?
Need for two destination alternates.
What data is used for OPT?
OEI F15 landing, 5ºC: VREF ICE so +15.
What are the RVSM requirements?
Two independent altitude systems, altitude alerting system, and specific error tolerances.
What should be done regarding TS avoidance?
Avoid upwind; deviate by specific distances based on altitude.
What to do if TCAS fails?
Do not operate in uncontrolled airspace; inform Ryanair Ops.
What does the QRH state regarding EGPWS caution?
Look out for traffic; maneuvers based solely on TA are not recommended.
What is the further distance you can plan an alternate?
As far as fuel allows – fuel + final reserve.
What can be done in IMC for terrain escape maneuver?
Perform the maneuver as in VMC.
What is the transition from terrain escape once clear of threat?
Transition into a go-around, assess your configuration.
When do you need two alternates?
No forecast at destination, forecast below minima, specific Flight Operation approved.
What is the wingspan of NG vs MAX?
NG: 35.79m; MAX: 35.92m.
What is the maximum tire speed dependent on?
Dependent on weight, calculated based on OAT and airport pressure altitude.
What are the engine overheat memory items if the light doesn’t extinguish?
A/T if engaged: disengage; Thrust Lever: affected engine, confirm, close.
What is the difference between overheat and surge/limit/stall?
Close thrust lever vs retard until indications stay within limits.
What to do in case of a tailpipe fire?
Confirm no engine fire indication; proceed to NNC.
What lights do you see at night when an aircraft flies in front, right to left?
Initially red then white when it passes.
How many LE slats are on the 737 and how many are heated?
8 slats (4 on each side), not heated.
How many flight spoilers are there and what is their role?
8 flight spoilers; increase drag and reduce lift.
What is the final reserve fuel requirement?
30 minutes holding at 1500ft in standard conditions above aerodrome.
What is the function of LAM on MAX?
LAM —> Landing Attitude Modifier
Helps maintain acceptable nose landing gear contact margin and increases drag.
- F 30 &40 symmetrical deployment flight spoilers to increase pitch angle to keep nose landing gear contact margins equivalent to the 737-800.
- F15 through 30 with thrust near idle -> symmetrical spoiler deployment to create additional drag to help maintaining glide as B737-800.
How is shear value calculated and where can it be found?
Calculated from wind speeds and direction samples; found in OMA part 8 Operating Procedures.
What does a significant weather chart indicate regarding CAT?
CAT is marked by a dotted line; jetstream speed is indicated by flags.
What does the green indicator on the FO side of the nose signify?
Oxygen pressure relief green disk indicates overpressure release has happen.
Max pressure 1859PSI. Disk discharges at 2600PSI. If the disk is not there, a discharge has happen.
What are the conditions for using rear steps during 40kts?
Requires GOPS approval; maximum wind speed allowed is 60kts.
What does the green disk on the oxygen pressure relief indicate?
Visual alert that the crew oxygen system is releasing pressure due to overpressure
This is a safety feature to notify crew of potential issues with oxygen systems.
What is the maximum wind speed allowed for operations with rear steps?
60kts including gusts until the wind goes below 60kts for more than 30 minutes
Special authorization from GOPS is required for use above 20kts.
What are the spoiler deployment angles for NG and SFP during ground operations?
NG: 33º-38º, SFP: 56º-65º down to 60Kts
Ground spoilers can deflect up to 60º.
How many flaps and slats are on the wing and where are they located?
LE devices: 4 flaps and 8 slats;
TE devices: 4 flaps
Krugger flaps are not present on NG or MAX.
When do we use all engine climb gradient?
When specified on the chart in Minimum Climb Gradient
What actions should be taken when presented with a restrictive SID Climb Gradient?
- Select CLB1/CLB2
- Remove assumed temperature (go full)
- Select higher TO thrust
- Activate I/C EXT
- Select optimum flaps
- Select A/C OFF
What is the penalty for uplifting extra fuel?
2.5% of the extra fuel per hour of flight.
What is the minimum fuel required at arrival?
1800kg
What type of extinguisher is used on the Flight Deck for NG and MAX?
NG: Halon/Halotron, MAX: Halotron
Halon is more effective but Halotron is less expensive.
In cruise, what does PAA stand for?
Problem, Action, Additional Information
What should you do if you over fuel?
- Request a holding and burn some fuel
- Use F5 + Speed brake
What are the definitions of BCMG, TEMPO, and PROB considerations?
- BCMG: Permanent change over 1 to 2 hours
- TEMPO: Transitory change lasting less than an hour
- PROB: Probability of occurrence
What are the priorities when encountering volcanic ash and engine overheat light simultaneously?
- Turn the a/c around 180º
- Descend
- Execute memory items for engine overheat
- Then address volcanic ash
How do you calculate how much fuel to burn off to achieve MLW?
Landing Weight (PROG4) minus maximum landing weight (OPT)
Why does the white box flash during engine start?
Flashing white box indicates an impending hot start
- fuel is ignited before enough air is flowing
- slow engine acceleration
- incorrect fuel scheduling
- compressor stall
Box and dial become Red indicates EGT limit exceeded. EEC automatically shuts the ignition and fuel valve.
Wet start
- engine start fails within 15s start lever moved to IDLE
- wet means fuel was delivered but not combusted
What is the role of Refuel Supervision A?
A qualified person designated by the captain who maintains visual contact with the fueling environment
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Supplies additional hydraulic fluid to raise the landing gear when system A engine driven pump volume is lost
What is the difference between caution and hard warning?
- Caution: Awareness calls in amber
- Warning: Serious announcements in red requiring action
What is the latest FCI regarding duty-free boxes in the aft galley?
Duty-free boxes will be located in the AFT galley as standard; extra boxes must be included in the OPT
Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT) is prohibited in which conditions?
- Anti-shid inop
- Electronic Engine Control in Alternate Mode
- Snow, slush, ice or standing water in the runway
- When operating a landing gear extended flight
- If the aircraft has been de-iced
- Potential windshear
- Engine bleeds OFF
- if prohibited by Airfield Brief
- Crosswind in excess of 10kts
- Actual T/O Weight is within 500kgs of the RTOW
Action with Moderate to Heavy Rain, Hail or Sleet
- Always try to avoid
- Engine Start Switches: CONT
- A/T _ Disengage
- Thrust Levers _ Adjust Slowly
- IAS/Mach _ use slower speed
- Consider starting the APU
