Approach Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum altitude for visual contact with the ground at night?

A

500 AAL

AAL stands for Above Aerodrome Level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is required for a visual landing at night to a runway less than 2000m?

A

Approval required

Additionally, RVR must be a minimum of 800m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the initial approach requirement for circling at night?

A

Instrument approach with a break at MDA

PAPIS/VASI must be used for landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is it important to comply with speed restrictions during Go-Around and SID?

A

To avoid overshooting and risking collision with terrain or entering other airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the controlling RVR during an approach?

A

Touchdown RVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many approaches can be performed before weather must improve for a third?

A

2 approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the GA flap speeds for F15, F5, F1, and FUP?

A

800:
* F15 172
* F5 182
* F1 202
* FUP 222
8200:
* F15 175
* F5 185
* F1 205
* FUP 225

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum number of wind shear events permitted?

A

2 max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why should APP mode not be armed before 1 dot above glide?

A

To avoid capturing a false glide path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the stabilized criteria for an approach?

A

500 Continue/500 Go-Around, target approach speed Vref+5 to VRef+20, correct vertical and lateral path, only small changes allowed, vertical and lateral alignment within specified limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What actions should be taken if unstable before gear down with G/S not captured?

A

Set MAA and discontinue approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be done in IMC with engine overheat below 1000’?

A

Go around at 1000’ IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum speed to intercept the GS from above?

A

Max Flap 5 maneuver speed plus 10Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the white bug indicate on the speed tape during take-off vs Go Around?

A

On TO gives Vref + 15Kts, on GA gives Vref + 20kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the threats of landing with 5 tons of fuel?

A

CSFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should Cold Temperature Correction be applied?

A

Below MSA when temperature is 0ºC or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the stable criteria for an RNAV approach?

A

Normal stabilized approach criteria, target approach speed Vref+5 to Vref+15, appropriate thrust, landing checklist complete, vertical speed appropriate

18
Q

Can you land with RCC 3,3,1 with runway lengths of 2000m or 3000m?

A

It depends on actual landing distance required

19
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use for NG and MAX?

A

NG 158’; MAX 111’

20
Q

What is required if sink rate is high after the landing gate?

A

Prompt correction required, not GA

21
Q

What is the latest point to capture the ILS?

A

4/5NM when applying the Capture GS from above technique

22
Q

What is the approach ban condition for low visibility CATIII?

A

When VIS or controlling RVR is less than applicable minimums

23
Q

What do DA/H or MDA/H refer to?

A

Minimum decision Altitude MDA or Height MDH

24
Q

What are the wind limitations for autoland?

A

Headwind 25Kts; Crosswind 20Kts; Tailwind 10Kts

25
Q

What is a monitored approach?

A

An approach performed by the FO with the captain assuming control at minimums under specific visibility conditions

26
Q

What limitations exist for arming APP and LOC?

A

ILS must be tuned and identified, airplane must be on inbound intercept heading, clearance must be received

27
Q

What is Boeing’s recommendation for RNP approach?

A

Perform the RNP approach with autopilot A

28
Q

What should be included in the briefing for an ILS?

A

Follow the chart’s disposition from top left to bottom right

29
Q

What are the threats when arriving high to the minima in Tangier at 40 degrees?

A

Disconnect A/P earlier, manage profile manually, engines less responsive

30
Q

What considerations must be made when diverting?

A

Fuel available, conditions at alternate, contact ops to inform

31
Q

What are the components of fuel quantity before take-off?

A

Taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency, destination alternate, final reserve, discretionary fuel

32
Q

When do you commit to using alternate fuel?

A

When committed to land at a specific aerodrome

33
Q

What roll mode is used for a VOR approach into DUB?

34
Q

What roll mode is used on an NDB approach?

35
Q

What are the additives for destination alternate RVR and ceiling?

A

Type A: 3D + 2D, DA/H MDA/MDH + 400ft, RVR/VIS + 1500m; Type B: 3D, DA/H + 200ft, RVR/VIS + 800

36
Q

What options are available if HEA is not recoverable below and above MSA?

A

Below MSA: Go-Around; Above MSA: Discontinued Approach

37
Q

What are the limitations for VNAV/LNAV approaches?

A

Type A approach, temperature restriction, crew and aircraft qualified, altimeter differences, final approach limits

38
Q

What does RAAS call -800 plus indicate?

A

Change in long landing call

39
Q

What are the minima, offsets, and flight director requirements for NPA?

A

Minima + 40ft, offsets > 5 degrees require CDA and increased RVR

40
Q

What is the SOP for V/S approaches and the need for a 2NM level segment?

A

Energy management, precision on descent, workload management

41
Q

Can you continue with an LVO approach if ATC informs of a secondary power system failure for runway lights?

A

Refer to OMA chapter 8 Table for effects on landing minima