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BCSE Notes to Cards > General Prep > Flashcards

General Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Name a side effect of doing castration.

A

prostate atrophy

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2
Q

Ferrets tend to have stomach probelems so one should avoid __.

A

Barium

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3
Q

Antagonist of Medetomidine

A

Atipamezole

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4
Q

Aqueous humor is secreted by

A

Ciliary body

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5
Q

Normal intraocular pressure

A

15-20mmHg

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6
Q

Circling disease in sheep is caused by

A

Listeriosis

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7
Q

Screw worm plague is cause by

A

Yersinia pestis

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8
Q

What parasite can block the cranial mesenteric artery

A

strongyles vulgaris

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9
Q

Name of horse stomach worm

A

gastrophilus intestinalis

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10
Q

Which part of the intestine is not involved in impaction?

A

Jejunum

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11
Q

When is the best time, during surgery, to give analgesics?

A

pre-operative

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12
Q

What is the treatment for the Dorsal Displacement of the Soft Pallet?

A

Staphylectomy

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13
Q

Clinical sign of Copper Toxicity in Sheep

A

Hemoglobinuria

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14
Q

What parasitic disease causes Extravascular Hemolysis?

A

Anaplasmosis

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15
Q

What parasitic disease causes Intravascular Hemolysis?

A
  • Leptospira
  • Babesia
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16
Q

What duct do the testis develop from?

A

Wolffian Duct

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17
Q

Quinidine toxicity in Horses causes what major clinical signs?

A
  • AV Block
  • Ventricular Arrhythmia
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18
Q

What is the surgical technique used for the treatment of Entropion?

A

modified hotz-celsus procedure

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19
Q

What is the diagnosis for bunny hopping gait in dogs?

A

Hip Dysplasia

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20
Q

What is the diagnosis for animals that show heat seeking behavior?

A

Hypothyroidism

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21
Q

Terminalization is due to what kind of tumor?

A

Sertoli Cell Tumor

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22
Q

An increase in the intraocular pressure can be caused by?

A

Closure of the Iridocorneal Angle

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23
Q

What kind of cells would you expect to find in the case of a mast cell tumor?

A

An increase in eosinophils and nucleated cells (immature RBCs)

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24
Q

What animal plays the roll of reservoir for the West Nile Virus?

A

Birds

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25
Q

What is the largest part of the forestomach in a calf?

A

Abomasum

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26
Q

What is the diagnosis for renal tubular dysfunction?

A

Na Clearance

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27
Q

The urine of horses is normally cloudy due to the presence of what?

A

Mucus and Calcium Carbonate Crystals

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28
Q

What species of animal is the most sensitive to the effects of Xylazine?

A

Bovines

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29
Q

Normocytic, Normochromic, Non-regenerative Anemia is diagnostic of what disease?

A

Chronic Renal Failure (CRF)

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30
Q

Spherocytes, Anemia (IMHA), and Icterus can all be diagnosed using what test?

A

Coombs Test

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31
Q

When given a caudal epidural anesthesia in dogs can desensitize which area?

A

The perineum

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32
Q

Protein deficiency inhibits wound healing by inhibiting the synthesis of what?

A

Collagen Synthesis

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33
Q

What is the pathology behind the lesions in Diamond skin disease?

A

Vasculitis and Thrombus formation

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33
Q

What is the treatment given if sings of Stringheat are given?

A

Tenectomy of the lateral ligament

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34
Q

What is the diagnostic test used for detection of Hypoadrenocorticism?

A

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) stimulation test

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34
Q

Which meniscus is commonly affected in cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

A

Caudomedial

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35
Q

A 6 month old calf showing blindness, ataxia, but the PLR is present/positive - what would be the diagnosis?

A

Vitamin A Deficiency

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36
Q

What is the drug of choice against Beta-Lactamase positive bacteria?

A

clavulanic acid has an inhibitory effect on Beta-Lactamase.

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37
Q

During a caudectomy or tail docking what part of the tail has an arterial supply?

A

Ventral part of the tail

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38
Q

What does the lack of bedding material during the anesthesia in the house cause?

A

Facial Nerve Paralysis

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39
Q

To avoid an artifact of Static Electricity in an X-ray, what should you do?

A

increase the humidity in the room

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40
Q

Anesthesia of which muscle allows examination of the eye?

A

Orbicularis Oculi Muscle

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41
Q

What disease causes excitability tremors in cattle?

A

Hypomagnesemia (low Mg)

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42
Q

At what stage of anesthesia should you extubate a dog?

A

When the dog starts swallowing

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43
Q

What is the most common form of Bovine Leukosis in Cattle?

A

Mediastinal Bovine Leukosis

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44
Q

Which muscle is responsible for the erection of the penis?

A

The Corpora Cavernosa Muscle

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45
Q

Proteinuria is a positive sign in what disease?

A

Fever leads to loss

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46
Q

A dogs PCV is 15%, reticulocyte is 12%, then what is the corrected reticulocyte count?

A

Corrected Reticulocyte= ((Patient PCV)(Patient Reticulocyte))/[45% Normal PCV]

CR = ((15)(12))/[45] = 9%

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47
Q

What may cause a 6 year old dog to have a heart rate of 180 during anesthesia?

A

Hypercapnia - Higher than normal CO2 in the blood.

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48
Q

Hypercalcemia is associated with all of the following except?
A. Lymphosarcoma
B. Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma
C. Hypoadrenocorticism
D. Blastomycosis
E. Milk Fever

A

Milk Fever - hypocalcemia

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49
Q

How long do Neutrophils usually remain in the peripheral blood?

A

10 Hours

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50
Q

What is the best flotation method for fecal samples?

A

Sugar Solution (591.300)

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51
Q

In which species is it normal to find neutrophils during Pancreatitis?

A

Equine

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52
Q

Which species is the least sensitive to Xylazine?

A

Porcine

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53
Q

Generally during surgery, blood is administered when PCV falls below __?

A

below 25%

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54
Q

What is the most potent alpha-2-agonist currently available?

A

Medetomidine

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55
Q

In recurrent episodes of thrombocytopenia, the least report is usually that of what?

A

splenectomy

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56
Q

What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a horse?

A

Quinidine

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57
Q

What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a dog?

A

Digitalis

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58
Q

What is the main treatment of Atrial Fibrillation in a cat?

A

diltiazem

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59
Q

HF has recurrent infection but lack of pus formation - Dx?

A

Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

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60
Q

Treatment of brisket edema in cow

A

move it to a lower altitude

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61
Q

What are the best views for cardiac radiography?

A
  1. Right Lateral
  2. Ventrodorsal on inspiration
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62
Q

In a chronic infection, what cells will you find high in number?

A

Lymphocytes

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63
Q

In an acute infection, which cells will you find high in numbers?

A

Neutrophils

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64
Q

What do polychromatic cells in a smear suggest?

A

Regenerative anemia

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65
Q

How long does the iron storage in piglets last?

A

7 days

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66
Q

What is the treatment for isoerythrolysis in foals?

A

Give 3 times saline washed RBCs from the dam

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67
Q

What cells are seen in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

Schistocytes (RBC fragments)

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68
Q

What age group of cattle is usually affected by Anaplasmosis?

A

3 years and older cattle develop this disease

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69
Q

What is the dose rate of aspirin in cats with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

A

10mg/kg but every 3rd day (max 80mg)

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70
Q

In Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA), what is the proper location to approach for ligation?

A

The left 4th intercostal space

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71
Q

What causes Heinz Body Anemia in cats?

A

Caused by Acetaminophen

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72
Q

What causes Heinz Body Anemia in horses?

A

caused by Red mapel leaves, Onion, and Phenothiazine

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73
Q

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) is transmitted by?

A

Blood sucking insect flies, Tabanids, and Contaminated needles

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74
Q

Feline Infectious Anemia (FIA) is transmitted by what?

A

Fleas

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75
Q

Congenital Platelet Function Disorder

A

Chediak Higashi Syndrome

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76
Q

Congenital WBCs (aka leukocytes) Functioning Disorders

A

Pelger-Huet anomaly (PHA)

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77
Q

Congenital deficit of maturation of collagen fibers (type 1) in cats

A

Cutaneous asthenia

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78
Q

In an acute infection, what will increase?

A

Fibrinogen (Clot) and WBCs (infection)

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79
Q

Cat was treated for heart worm and is now showing dyspnea, what will you do?

A

Give oxygen and steroids

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80
Q

which drug is contraindicated in feline heartworm treatment for when embolism occurs?

A

Aspirin

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81
Q

What will you find in a cat that is tested positive for heartworm?

A

Glomerulonephritis

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82
Q

What does hyperkalemia in cats cause?

A

bradycardia

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83
Q

What is the most common blood group of cats in the USA?

A

A - about 99%

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84
Q

How do you make a Major Cross Match?

A

Recipient plasma and Doner Erythrocytes

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85
Q

How do you make a Minor Cross Match?

A

Recipient Erythrocytes and Doner Plasma

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86
Q

What does the Coomb’s Test detect?

A

Used to detect antibodies against the body’s own erythrocytes (ex: IMHA or EIA)

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87
Q

What causes Hemophilia A?

A

Factor 8 Deficiency

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88
Q

What causes Hemophilia B?

A

Factor 9 Deficiency

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89
Q

What is the diagnosis of a cat having anemia and parasites in its RBCs?

A
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90
Q

What is the treatment for Feline Infectious Anemia?

A

Tetracyclines
- Doxycycline (10mg/kg/d x 2wks)

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91
Q

American cocker spaniel is prone to which coagulopathy?

A

Factor 10 Deficiency or Stuart-Prower factor deficiency

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92
Q

A cat with ascites and jugular distention is brought into the clinic - what is your diagnosis?

A

Pericardial effusions

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93
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in dogs?

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

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94
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in cattle?

A

Ventricular Septal Deficits

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95
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in horse?

A

Ventricular Septal Deficits

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96
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in cats?

A

Ventricular Septal Deficits

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97
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiovascular deficit in pigs?

A

Tricuspid Valve Dysplasia

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98
Q

A cat is eating its own feces - what will you do for diagnosis?

A

Blood Chemistry should be done

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99
Q

Treatment for Diaphragmatic fluttering in horses?

A

Calcium gluconate

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100
Q

A dog is having anemia, however total protein is normal, what will you give?

A

Packed RBCs

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101
Q

A dog with anemia, however total protein is decreasing, what will you give?

A

whole blood

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102
Q

First degree heart block

A

P-R interval prolonged

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103
Q

Second degree heart block

A

R-R interval is increased

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104
Q

Third degree heart block

A

bizarre QRS

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105
Q

What is the diagnostic test for hematuria?

A

centrifuge the urine

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106
Q

What is the diagnostic test for hemoglobinuria?

A

centrifuge the urine and then examine the sediment - if RBCs are present then it is positive.

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107
Q

What is the diagnostic test for myoglobinuria?

A

Centrifuge the urine and then examine the supernatant - Red brown in color add (NH4)2SO4 – if the supernatant remains brown it is myoglobinuria and if precipitation occurs then it is hemoglobinuria.

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108
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Mature leukopenia, non-regenerative anemia, and thrombocytopenia - all present in E. canis.

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109
Q

Anticoagulant for CBC

A

EDTA

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110
Q

Anticoagulant for blood coagulation study

A

Sodium Citrate

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111
Q

Anticoagulant for blood glucose

A

Sodium fluoride

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112
Q

Why is an IV in horse only given on the right sided jugular vein?

A

To prevent injury to the phrenic nerves that supply the diaphragm.

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113
Q

Which drug causes Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) in dogs?

A

Trimethoprim Sulphate
Ormethoprim

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114
Q

Which drug causes Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA) in cats?

A

Propylthiouracil

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115
Q

What is the location of the rota virus in the body?

A

Small intestine

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116
Q

What is the treatment of lipidosis in cats?

A

External Tube Feeding

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117
Q

Which diseases cause immunosuppression in cattle?

A

Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD), Hog Cholera, Border Disorder

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118
Q

What parasite causes tumors along the margo plicatus in the stomach of horses?

A

Habronema (Draschia migastoma)

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119
Q

GIVEN A PICTURE OF A HORSES STOMACH WHICH SHOWS TUMOR LIKE GROWTHS SINCE IT WAS 2 YEARS OLD. What will be your action?

A

Euthanasia

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120
Q

Longitudinal folds in the cats esophagus

A

Herringbone pattern of esophagus

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121
Q

What are the clinical signs of liver flukes, F. hepatica, in cattle?

A

Submandibular edema

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122
Q

What parasite causes extensive anemia in dogs?

A

Hookworm ( ancylostoma duodurdis)

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123
Q

Diagnosis of 2-4day old piglets with watery diarrhea and acidic ph.

A

E. coli

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124
Q

How will you control an E. coli infection in dairy?

A

Isolation > colostrum restriction > vaccination of pregnant cow (6 weeks and 2 weeks before parturition)

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125
Q

What is the monoclonal antibody given to new born piglets to protect them from E. coli infections?

A

Monoclonal antibody K88

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126
Q

What biochemical changes will you see in a dog with parvovirus that has vomiting and diarrhea?

A

Hyponatremia (low Na), Hypokalemia (low K), Hypochloremia (low Cl), Hypoalbuminemia

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127
Q

Treatment for Ancylostoma caninum

A

Fenbendazole

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128
Q

How do you prevent Parascaris equorum in foal?

A

Daily administration of pyrantel tartrate once foal starts consuming grains

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129
Q

What is the most common tapeworm in dogs and how do your prevent it?

A

Dipylidium caninum - flea control

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130
Q

What is the most common tapeworm in cats and how do you prevent it?

A

Taenia taeniaeformis - rodent control

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131
Q

blood picture of chronic diarrhea in cats

A

lymphocytic plasmacytic enteritis

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132
Q

blood picture of acute diarrhea in cats

A

neutrophilic with epithelial disruption

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133
Q

How is strongyloidies transmitted to foal?

A

Sucking the milk form the udder of the mare

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134
Q

Abomasal nodules in cattle is caused by what?

A

Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm)

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135
Q

What is the most common cause of spleen abscess in cattle?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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136
Q

Acidosis in calves is mainly due to which type of diarrhea?

A

E. coli diarrhea -(- watery diarrhea in suckling pigs)

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137
Q

Name monoclonal antibody given to newborn calf to protect it from E. coli.

A

Monoclonal antibody K99

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138
Q

Picture given of thin emaciated horse, what question will you ask the owner?

A

Ask about the dental prophylaxis

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139
Q

Campylobacter jejuni act on which part of the intestine?

A

Jejunum and Ilium

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140
Q

Treatment for Brachygnathia in small animals?

A

removal of the mandibular canine tooth

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141
Q

What is the most common coccidia in dogs and cats?

A

Isospora

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142
Q

What is the treatment for isospora in dogs and cats?

A

Trimethyl sulphate (TMS)

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143
Q

What intestinal parasites found in dogs can be transitted to man?

A

Giardia

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144
Q

What is the treatment for GIardia?

A

Metronidazole

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145
Q

How do you diagnose Giardia?

A

Zinc Sulphate (ZnSO4) Flotation Method

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146
Q

Diagnose a large swelling on the lateral side of the anus of a dog.

A

Adenocarcinoma of the Apocrine Gland of the Anal Sac

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147
Q

Diagnose a large swelling on the gingival cavity in cats

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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148
Q

What metabolic changes occur in Left Displacement of Abomasum?

A

Metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia, hypokalemia,

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149
Q

Treatment of cecal/large colon obstruction in horses

A

IV fluids, analgesics, intragastric mineral oil and dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate

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150
Q

What is the treatment for sand impaction in horse?

A

Psyllium (Intragastric)

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151
Q

Treatment of enteroliths in horses

A

Surgery - Ventral midline celiotomy

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152
Q

horse due to high grained diet - what do you do?

A

Restrict water intake for 18-24 hours and remove grain from the diet

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153
Q

In which disease is the rumen of cattle “L” shaped?

A

Vagal indigestion - L shaped rumen and papple shaped abdomen

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154
Q

What is the drug of choice for strongyloides?

A

Ivermectin or albendazole

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155
Q

What is the drug of choice for tapeworm in dogs and cats?

A

Praziquantel

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156
Q

At what age does JD occur in cattle?

A

Cattle 2-6 years are most prone

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157
Q

What are cheek teeth?

A

P2, P3, P4

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158
Q

Amylase and Lipase increase in Pancreatic disease, which other condition can cause this to occur?

A

Urinary disease

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159
Q

How do you control Cryptosporidiosis?

A

Good hygiene - it is a self limiting oocyst and can also be killed by 5% ammonia solution

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160
Q

Ping is observed on the right paralumbar fossa, what is the diagnosis?

A

Cecal rotation

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161
Q

Ping on the right side at the area of the 10th to the 13th intercostal space on the middle upper side - what is the diagnosis?

A

Right Displaced Abomasum (RDA)

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162
Q

What is the most common canine hookworm in canada and alaska?

A

Uncinaria stenocephala

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163
Q

The echogenicity in the liver changes in what disease?

A

Liver/Hepatic Lipidosis

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164
Q

What disease can cause neutropenia in horses?

A

Salmonellosis

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165
Q

What is the best diagnostic tool for Giardiosis

A

Zinc Sulphate Flotation Test (ZnSO4)

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166
Q

What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?

A

Vomiting is an active neural reflex.
Regurgitation is a passive retrograde reflux.

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167
Q

Mode of transmission of E. coli from animals to humans?

A

Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, etc..)

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168
Q

How is Yersinia enterocolitica transmitted to man?

A

Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)

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169
Q

How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted to man?

A

Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)

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170
Q

How is Cryptosporidium transmitted to man?

A

Feco-oral route (Fecal contamination of water, milk, improperly prepared meat, etc..)

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171
Q

What are the lesions of Johne’s Disease (JD)?

A

Thickened small intestine (corrugated intestines), enlargement of the lymph nodes, and serosal lymphangitis

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172
Q

What is the main cause of large intestinal impaction in dogs?

A

Foreign body

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173
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Toxocara canis in dogs?

A

Transplacental transmission of disease

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174
Q

In cattle, what is the pH of the ruminal fluid during acidosis?

A

pH < 5.5

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175
Q

What condition can cause feline lipidosis?

A

A period of prolonged anorexia in an obese cat

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176
Q

Treatment of cyathostominosis in horse?

A

Fenbendazole

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177
Q

What is the sequalae of Fasciolosis in cow?

A

Liver cirrhosis

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178
Q

What is the diagnosis of nasogastric reflux in horse with clinical signa?

A

Intestinal obstruction in horse

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179
Q

Which side is the nephrosplenic ligament present in horse?

A

the ligament is present on the left side

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180
Q

What is the most dangerous parasite of man?

A

Taenia solium

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181
Q

What parasites are transmitted from cats to man without an intermediate host?

A

Echinococcus multilocularis, Toxoplasma

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182
Q

How do you diagnose E. coli (test)?

A

ELISA for K99 in feces

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183
Q

How do you diagnose megaesophagus?

A

Acetylcholine Antibody Assay

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184
Q

Some cattle are seen eating feed and some cattle are seen just standing in the ally - what should you check?

A

The concentrate to roughage ratio of the feed

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185
Q

What is the sequelae of acidic indigestion in cattle?

A

Mycotic Ruminitis

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186
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Demodex?

A

Amitraz and Rotenone

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187
Q

A picture of is given - what is the treatment?

A

Ivermectin and Selamectin

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188
Q

What is the first antibody to act during an infection?

A

IgM

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189
Q

What is elevated during cholestasis?

A

ALKP increases and severe ALP

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190
Q

A dog is on phenobarbital, what enzyme is likely to be elevated?

A

ALP (Phenobarbital causes liver damage which leads to an increase in ALP)

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191
Q

What causes Ileitis, Porcine intestinal adenomatosis, porcine proliferative enteritis, and proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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192
Q

Why do we not use Atropine in horses?

A

Prolapse of penis and Paralytic ileus

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193
Q

What is the appropriate site to approach to make an incision for surgery at the spiral colon?

A

The right flank

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194
Q

An obese cat was put on a low calorie diet and is now anorectic, what will you do?

A

Fine Needle Liver Biopsy (check for feline lipidosis)

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195
Q

What is the correct Ca:P ratio of a lactating swine?

A

2:1

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196
Q

What do you check when presented with a dog showing signs of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Increased bile acids (total bilirubin)

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197
Q

What drugs are used to increase appetite?

A

Diazepine, Cyproheptadine, Prednisone, Oxazepain, Stinazaloe,

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198
Q

Presented with a foal with occasional colic, bruxism (a condition where a person grinds, clenches, or gnashes his or her teeth), and rolling around - what is your diagnosis?

A

Gastroduodenal Ulcer

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199
Q

What is not a cause of hypoalbuminemia?

A

Acute hepatitis

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200
Q

What animal is more predisposed to anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinoma?

A

Older Dogs

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201
Q

What is the most common cause of death in piglets?

A

Crushing by the sow, perinatal hypothermia, hypoglycemia

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202
Q

What is the treatment of a Grade I rectal tear in mare?

A

Broad Spectrum Antibiotics

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203
Q

What is the treatment of a Grade II rectal tear in mare?

A

Grade II is only the muscle layer - Extensive Immediate Surgery

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204
Q

What is the treatment of a Grade III rectal tear in mare?

A

Grade III involves the submucosa + muscularis extending to the mesorectum - Extensive Immediate Surgery

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205
Q

What is the treatment of a Grade IV rectal tear in mare?

A

Grade IV involves all layers up to the peritoneum - Grave prognosis

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206
Q

What is the best way to study a rare disease?

A

Case control

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207
Q

What is the most common form of anthrax in humans?

A

Wool sorters disease (Hemorrhagic mediastinitis)

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208
Q

What is a Melting Ulcer in a Horse cause by?

A

Herpes Virus

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209
Q

How does man get the Hunta Virus Disease?

A

Aerosol route through the secretions and excretions of rodents

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210
Q

What is the most sensitive way to diagnose Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)?

A

ELISA

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211
Q

What does ELISA in FeLV detect?

A

Antigens

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212
Q

What does ELISA in FIP detect?

A

Antibodies

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213
Q

What does Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency cause?

A

Mulberry Heart Disease and Hepatosis dietetica (HD)

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214
Q

Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia occurs in what age group of horses?

A

1-3 years old

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215
Q

What is the catalase test used for?

A

E. coli and Staphylococcus

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216
Q

What type of cardiac rhythm abnormality is seen in a dog with Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus?

A

Ventricular Premature Complex

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217
Q

What is the most common complication of Parascaris equorum?

A

Impaction, Colic

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218
Q

What is the most common complication for Cervical mucocele?

A

Pain and Fever

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219
Q

What is the prefered diagnostic test for Campylobacteriosis?

A

Dark Field Microscope Phase Contrast Microscopy

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220
Q

What are the clinical signs of Tyzzer’s Disease in Foals?

A

Liver - Hepatic Necrosis
Heart - Myocardium white streaks
Intestines- Paint brush hemorrhages

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221
Q

Overo horses are mated and the foals die on the second day - what will be your diagnosis?

A

Ileocolonic aganglionosis

Overo horse - two colored horse

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222
Q

What tooth is involved in an oronasal fistula?

A

Maxillary Canine

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223
Q

What is the treatment of an Oronasal fistula?

A

Infrabony grafting

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224
Q

What is the most important aspect in the diagnosis of Colic in horses?

A

Rectal Contamination

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225
Q

Persistent infection of calves with BVD occur if fetal infection occurs when?

A

1-4 months of pregnancy

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226
Q

What causes Summer distress and other respiratory infections in horses?

A

Parascaris equorum

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227
Q

Which gland is involved in Salivary Mucocele?

A

Sublingual Salivary gland, Mandibular salivary gland

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228
Q

What is the treatment of Lymphocytic Plasmacytic Enteritis in Cats?

A

prednisone (corticosteroid for inflammation) and metronidazole (antibiotic)

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229
Q

What is the treatment of Trichuris in Pigs?

A

Dichlorvos + Levamisole + Fenbendazole

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230
Q

What changes occur in Hepatic Lipidosis?

A

Increased ALP, Increased Bile Acids, GGT my be normal or increased

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231
Q

Non-regenerative, Normocytic, Normochromic __ + __

A

Anemia + stress leukogram

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232
Q

How do you diagnose Hepatic Lipidosis?

A

Increased ALP, hyperbilirubinemia,

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233
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Portosystemic Shunts?

A

Postprandial bile acid test
(after food)

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234
Q

What is the treatment of Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A

A protein restricted diet, neomycin, lactulose

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235
Q

What is the treatment of eye glaucoma?

A

Carbonic anhydrase –> Acetazolamide inhibitor

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236
Q

What is the main reason for doing an exploratory laprotomy in cat?

A

Foreign Body

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237
Q

What breed has a predisposition for immunoproliferative enteropathy?

A

Basenji dog

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238
Q

Edema disease in pigs is caused by what?

A

E. coli (Hemolytic forms)

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239
Q

What is the contraction rate of the rumen of cattle?

A

1-3/min

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Perfectly
240
Q

What is the contraction rate of the rumen in goats?

A

1-4/min

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241
Q

What nerve supplies the teeth?

A

Maxillary branch of the Trigeminal Nerve

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242
Q

What is the treatment of Cyathostomiasis in horses?

A

Low Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (LDDS Test)

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243
Q

What is the confirmatory test for Cushing’s Disease?

A

Plasma ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

244
Q

What test do you use to detect Pituitary-Dependent Hyperadrenocorticism and Adrenal Tumor?

A

High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test (HDDS)

245
Q

What is the most overdiagnosed disease in dogs and cats?

A

Hypothyroidism

246
Q

A dog is gaining weight even when put on a low calorie diet - what is your diagnosis?

A

Hypothyroidism

247
Q

What is the screening test for hypothyroidism?

A

Serum total T4 and Serum Cholesterol Determination

248
Q

In hypothyroidism you have calculated the total T4, what is the next step?

A

Calculate the free T4

249
Q

What is an abnormality of Hypothyroidism?

A

Normocytic Normochromic Nonregenerative Anemia

250
Q

What is the diagnosis of a dog that has thick skin folds?

A

Hypothyroidism

251
Q

What is the diagnosis if a dog has thin skin folds?

A

Cushing’s Disease

252
Q

What disease causes large thick hair in horses?

A

Pituitary Pass Intermediary Disease ( aka Equine Cushing’s Disease, Hirsutism now Hypertrichosis )

253
Q

What is the Treatment for Cushing’s Disease?

A

Mitotane
L-deprenyl (Selegiline HCl)
Ketoconazole

254
Q

Abnormalities in Hypoadrenocorticism (aka Addison’s Disease)?

A

Hyperkalemia, Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia, P-wave is absent on EKG, Spiked T-wave, Ventricular fibrillation, Bradycardia

255
Q

What is hypercalcemia in dogs most commonly associated with?

A

Malignancy, lymphosarcoma, adenoma of the anal sac, multiple myeloma

256
Q

What are some abnormalities in Cushing’s Disease?

A

Hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycemia, Decreased BUN, Increased Basophilia, Increased AP, Increased ALP (**stress leukogram)

257
Q

Cushing’s Disease is common among what age group?

A

7-12yrs old

258
Q

Diagnose - Persistent hypercalcemia in an old spayed female dog?

A

Adenoma of the apocrine gland of the anal sac

259
Q

Diagnose - Persistent hypercalcemia in an old neutered male dog?

A

Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma

260
Q

Diagnose - Polyuria, Polydipsia, and an enlarged abdomen?

A

Cushing’s Disease

261
Q

What is the side effect of Mitotane?

A

Vomiting, Diarrhea, and CNS signs.

262
Q

What is the treatment of Hyperthyroidism?

A

Methimazole Propylthiouracil (not in Cats)

263
Q

What is the side effect of Methimazole in Cats?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Hemolytic Anemia
Agranulocytosis

264
Q

Oral hypoglycemic agent in cats?

A

Glipizide

265
Q

Glipizide is contraindicated in what species?

A

Contraindicated in Dogs

266
Q

If you give an all meat diet to a cat, what will happen?

A

An all meat diet is low in calcium which will lead to hypocalcemia with then leads to Hyperparathyroidism

267
Q

A thyroidectomy was done in a dog - what will you manage first?

A

Hypothyroidism

268
Q

Name 2 Isotonic Crystalloid Solutions?

A

Normal Saline Solution (NS) and Ringer’s Lactated Solution (RL)

269
Q

If serum sodium is normal, what should be given?

A

RL

270
Q

What is the normal serum sodium in dogs?

A

140-153.9 mEq/L

271
Q

What is the normal serum sodium in cats?

A

145-158.7 Eq/L

272
Q

If serum sodium is <115mEq/L what should be done?

A

Do not infuse NS too quickly

273
Q

If serum sodium is >115mEq/L what solution should be given?

A

NS

274
Q

What is the infusion rate of potassium?

A

0.5 mEq/Kg bwt./hr

275
Q

What is the etiology of Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)?

A

Lentivirus

276
Q

What causes Bovine immunodeficiency virus (BIV)?

A

Lentivirus

277
Q

What causes Caprine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE)?

A

Lentivirus

278
Q

What causes Equine Infectious Anemia?

A

Lentivirus

279
Q

What causes Simian immunodeficiency viruses (SIVs)?

A

Lentivirus

280
Q

What breed is predisposed to Immunoproliferative enteropathy?

A

Basenji breed

281
Q

What breed is predisposed to Histiocytic colitis

A

Boxer breed

282
Q

What breed is predisposed to Parvovirus?

A

Rottweiler

283
Q

What breed is predisposed to Bullous pemphigoid?

A

Collies and Dobermans breed

284
Q

Which nerve is involved in ventrolateral stabismus in cat?

A

Oculomotor - 3rd Cranial Nerve

285
Q

What disease is man prone to caused by contaminated water?

A

Leptospira

286
Q

Treatment of narrow budding (C. neoformans)

A

Flucytosine

287
Q

What is the use of a grid in an x-ray?

A

To avoid surrounding scatting rays

288
Q

Sheep that were grazing on lush pastures died - what is your diagnosis?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

289
Q

There is a turbinate bone infection - what is the diagnosis?

A

Aspergillosis

290
Q

What causes the S1 sound?

A

AV valve closure

291
Q

What causes the S2 sound?

A

Semilunar valve closure

292
Q

What causes the S3 sound?

A

Ventricular filling / Ventricular diastole

293
Q

What causes the S4 sound?

A

Atrial systole

294
Q

The bronchodilation effect of atropine is due to?

A

Blocking of muscarinic receptors

295
Q

Name a condition where irreversible cell damage occurs.

A

Apoptosis and Necrosis

296
Q

A nondisplaced fracture present on bone - what is the treatment of choice.

A

Femur – Intramedullary pinning
Radius/Tarsals – Full cast

297
Q

What is the ideal site to collect bone marrow aspirate in ruminants?

A

Sternum and Ribs

298
Q

Non-Autolyzed fetus abortion is caused by?

A

Aspergillosis

299
Q

In the auricular nerve block, which muscles are desensitized?

A
300
Q

What is the GDV electrolyte abnormality normally seen?

A

Metabolic acidosis

301
Q

What is the name of the pre-anesthetic to be given to prevent the side effects of xylazine?

A

Atropine

302
Q

Lamsoma Intracellularis signs in pigs?

A

Porcine proliferative enteritis, ileitis, porcine hemorrhagic enteropathy

303
Q

What suture material and needle type is used in urinary bladder surgery?

A

Absorbable material and swagged needle

304
Q

What is the difference between tunica media of femoral artery and thoracic aorta ?

A

Thoracic aorta has more elastic tissue in the tunica media than the femoral artery.

305
Q

Causes of anemia in acetaminophen toxicity

A

Heinz body

306
Q

Treatment of ventricular tachycardia in dogs?

A

Lidocaine

307
Q

Treatment of ventricular tachycardia in cats?

A

Propranolol

308
Q

Zoonotic disease obtained from milk of domestic animals?

A

Tuberculosis

309
Q

Zoonotic disease obtained from meat of domestic animals?

A

Salmonella

310
Q

How is heartwater disease transmitted?

A

Ticks

311
Q

What is the most common disease in the Common Bones (3rd Metacarpal) of Horses?

A

Bucked Shins

312
Q

Common disease in the Splint Bones (2nd metacarpal) of horses?

A

Slab fractures

313
Q

A newborn calf is showing signs of blindness - which dificiency?

A

Vitamin A

314
Q

Treatment of atrial fibrillation of horse?

A

Quinidine

315
Q

Treatment of atrial fibrillation of dogs?

A

Digoxin

316
Q

Treatment of atrial fibrillation of cats?

A

Diltiazem

317
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in dogs?

A

PDA

318
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in cats?

A

VSD

319
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in cattle?

A

VSD

320
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in horses?

A

VSD

321
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in pigs?

A

Tricuspid valve dysplasia

322
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect in cats?

A

mitral valve insufficiency

323
Q

Type of suture used in hollow abdominal cavity?

A

Simple interrupted suture

324
Q

A 2 day old foal with pale mucosa membrane and anemia - what is your diagnosis?

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

325
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis occur if the mare is negative for which blood group?

A

Mare (Aa- and Qa+)
Stallion (Aa+ and Qa+)

326
Q

What is the method of diagnosis of Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion (FORL)?

A

X-ray

327
Q

In testis, which muscle withdraws them toward the body during the winter?

A

External Cremaster Muscle

328
Q

Seminal vesicle and cowper’s gland are absent in what species?

A

Dogs

329
Q

Present of skin petechiation in erysipelas is due to what?

A

Erythema

330
Q

Cantharidin toxicity effects on horses

A

Colic and Hypocalcemia

331
Q

In hepatic necrosis which liver enzyme is increased?

A

ALT and AST are increased

332
Q

The ampulla gland is absent in which species?

A

Pigs, Dogs, Cats, and Swine

333
Q

The vesicular gland is absent in which species?

A

Cats and Dogs

334
Q

Which ligament holds the ureter?

A

The round ligament

335
Q

What type of suture material is used in closing the Urinary Bladder?

A

Absorbable material (Polydioxanone aka PDS)

336
Q

What is the most common Malignant Tumor in Hamsters?

A

Lymphosarcoma

337
Q

What is the location of Sarcoptes in Dog?

A

Elbow, Chest, and Ventral Abdomen are the usual locations

338
Q

Insertion of Deep Digital Flexor Tendon (DDF) in Horse?

A

Palmar surface of the 3rd phalanx

339
Q

Insertion of the Superficial Digital Flexor Tendon (SDF) in horses?

A

Distal part of 1st phalanx and Proximal part of 2nd phalanx

340
Q

A bat was seen in a dogs mouth - what do you do next?

A

Report it to the authorities

341
Q

In a cat, a smear was made of black crusty wax seen in the cats ear canals and ear flaps - what is your diagnosis?

A

Otodectes (cynotis)

342
Q

What is the drug of choice for Pseudomonas infection in dogs?

A

Enrofloxacin

343
Q

Cow with tachycardia (HR>90 bpm), pyrexia (104F), pleuritis with fast shallow, respiration, muffled lung sounds present, machinery sound present - what is your diagnosis?

A

Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis (TRP)

344
Q

What are the nerves responsible for contraction of the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerve

345
Q

In goats, stones are usually trapped in which papillae?

A

Filiform Papillae

346
Q

What is the etiology of Swine Dysentery?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

347
Q

Chicken presented with respiratory signs, ocular discharge, nasal discharge, and swollen infraorbital sinus - what is your diagnosis?

A

Bird Flu / Avian Influenza (H5N1)

348
Q

What is the most common type of Mange in Cattle in the USA?

A

Chorioptes bovis

349
Q

What is the drug of choice for Acute Glaucoma?

A

Demecarium bromide

350
Q

An IV injection of Phenylbutazone in Horses causes what?

A

Laryngeal hemiplegia - affects the upper respiratory airway and decreases airflow to the lungs causing exercise intolerance and roaring.

351
Q

What is the diagnosis of lameness with abduction of shoulder joints in horses?

A

Suprascapular Nerve Damage

352
Q

Relapsing pancreatitis and chronic pancreatitis is primarily controlled by what method?

A

Nutritional management

353
Q

Samples for histological diagnosis of bone tumor is collected by what method?

A

Jamshidi Biopsy Needle

354
Q

What percent of xylazine is required by cattle, sheep, and goat for sedation as compared to horse

A

Cattle require 10% for xylazine by horse

355
Q

A health certificate expires 30 days from when?

A

The inspection date

356
Q

On abdominal radiographs of dogs 2.5-3.5 times of length of normal kidney length is what?

A

The second lumbar vertebrae

357
Q

A cat is presented with skin lesions and respiratory dysplasia - what is your diagnosis?

A

Cryptococcus

358
Q

The use of extreme cold to destroy unwanted tissue is called what?

A

Cryosurgery

359
Q

In cats, adenocarcinoma affects which part of the GIT most commonly?

A

Ilium

360
Q

What are the life threatening toxic drugs in cats?

A

Cisplatin (affects the phrenic nerve causing dyspnea and death), and 5-Fluorouracil ( neurotoxic causing seizures and ataxia)

361
Q

A picture is given of a Horse with its toe on the ground and heel raised - what is your diagnosis?

A

Rupture of the Extensor Tendon

362
Q

In endoscopy - if we see the adduction of the arytenoid cartilage, what will be your diagnosis?

A

Laryngeal Hemiplegia

363
Q

In broiler farms, if you find swelling of wattles and combs what will be your diagnosis?

A

Infectious Coryza

364
Q

Hi BP in cats is due to what?

A

Renal Failure

365
Q

Non-regenerative anemia is related to what?

A

Chronic Renal Failure

366
Q

History of Anemia, Pale Mucous Membrane, presence of Spherocytes - what test will your perform for diagnosis?

A

COOMBS Test

367
Q

What is the major cause of Abortion in Goats?

A

Chlamydophila

368
Q

An epidural anesthesia desensitizes which region?

A

Perineal Region

369
Q

Atropine is an alpha-2-adernergic _______?

A

antagonist

370
Q

What type of Ration is used in Hepatic Lipidosis?

A

High Protein, High Carbohydrate, No Fat Ration

371
Q

Common complication in castrated sheep?

A

Cystitis

372
Q

Etiology of cutaneous larval migrations?

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

373
Q

Etiology of visceral and ocular larval migrations?

A

Toxocara canis

374
Q

History of non-autolysed abortion - diagnosis?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

375
Q

What is the effect of Medetomidine in Horses?

A

Slows the heart (alpha-2-adrenergic agonist)

376
Q

Diet for Lymphangiectasia?

A

Low fat and low long chain fatty acid diet

377
Q

What is the diet for a diabetic animal?

A

High fiber and Complex Carbohydrates

378
Q

What is the role of Parietal Cells in the Stomach?

A

HCl Secretions

379
Q

What is the ideal sterilization of endoscopes?

A

Ethylene oxides

380
Q

A non painful swelling in female dogs after spaying?

A

Seroma - abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in a dead space containing plasma or lymphatic fluid

381
Q

Sample to submit after strychnine poisoning?

A

Stomach contents, liver, kidney, and urine

382
Q

How do you prevent ruminal bloat in a sheep after a c-section?

A

Give the sheep an Anti-Foaming agent (such as Dimethicone 2.0%)

383
Q

What is the treatment of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) in Cats?

A

Diltiazem and Furosemide are the drugs of choice

384
Q

What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in cattle?

A

Co1 and Co2 block

385
Q

What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in dog?

A

L7 - S1 Block

386
Q

What is the proper nerve block for vaginal prolapse in pigs?

A

L7 - S1 block

387
Q

What organ is affected in Copper Poisoning?

A

Blood and Liver

388
Q

What are the clinical signs of Arsenic Poisoning?

A

Abdominal Pain, Diarrhea, Vomiting, Hematochezia (fresh blood in the stool) are the usual clinical signs

389
Q

What is the predominant cell type in all infections?

A

Neutrophils

390
Q

Contents of the umbilical cord

A

Whartons Jelly, Umbilical arteries, and Umbilical vein.

391
Q

Young cattle has a corneal ulcer - what is your diagnosis?

A

Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)

392
Q

Old cattle with unilateral exophthalmos - diagnosis?

A

Bovine Leukosis Virus

393
Q

What is the diagnostic test for FIP in cats?

A

Organ biopsy

394
Q

How many years do you have to keep records in the clinics?

A

7 years

395
Q

How do you sterilize a vaginal mouth-scope?

A

Autoclave

396
Q

What is contraindicated for seizures in dogs?

A

Acepromazine

397
Q

In what disease of horse do you isolate the but not treat?

A

Strangles (Equine Distemper) and Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

398
Q

What organ is affected in Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency?

A

Heart

399
Q

Which neuromuscular relaxant cannot be effectively antagonized?

A

Succinyl choline

400
Q

What causes the accommodation of the cornual lense for near vision?

A

Ciliary muscles contract and zonular relax.

401
Q

What drug is most likely to cause fever in cats?

A

Tetracycline

402
Q

Which component of the immune system is considered nonspecific in function?

A

IgM

403
Q

What drug most effectively controls diarrhoea in dogs?

A

Loperamide (an opioid)

404
Q

How do you diagnose pregnancy in goats?

A

elevated urinary SO4(-2) levels at 50 days of pregnancy

405
Q

Stationary night blindness is an inherited condition that is common in which horses?

A

Appaloosa Horses

406
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans is found in the soil and can remain viable for months to years in what?

A

pigeon droppings

407
Q

What is the drug of choice for Hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Mitotane, Ketoconazole, and L-Deprenyl Spray

408
Q

What instruments are used to exteriorize ovaries in female dogs?

A

spay hook and snook

409
Q

What are Large and Pale RBCs called?

A

Macrocytic Hypochromic Anemia

410
Q

What type of anemia does Haemonchus contortus cause?

A

Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia

411
Q

Where do the parasitic morula of Ehrlichia canis present?

A

in Monocytes

412
Q

What is the vector of Leucocytozoon simondi?

A

Simulium (black fly)

413
Q

Crotalaria photosensitization is due to what?

A

Liver Damage

414
Q

Strongylus vulgaris blocks the mesenteric artery causing what?

A

Colic

415
Q

Example of Monocryl?

A

Poliglecaprone

416
Q

What are the blood groups in dogs?

A

DEA 1.1 and 7 (1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8)

417
Q

What are the major blood groups in cats?

A

A and B

418
Q

What is the major blood group in equine?

A

A, C, Qa

419
Q

Major blood group in bovine?

A

B, J

420
Q

Major blood group in Ovine?

A

B, R

421
Q

What is the etiology of leukemia?

A

FeLV (Feline Leukemia Virus) - a retrovirus

422
Q

What is the treatment for Strongylus in Horses?

A

Ivermectin and Moxidectin (FENBENDAZOL 10mg/kg/x5d)

423
Q

4 week old piglet had profuse diarrhea, vomiting, and the mortality rate is >90% - what is your diagnosis?

A

Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE)

424
Q

What is the most common complication in an Ovariohysterectomy?

A

Ligation of the ureter with the Round Ligament

425
Q

Treatment of Intussusception?

A

Hold the intussuscepted part from the neck and milk it out.

426
Q

What is the diagnosis if there is regurgitation after food ingestion?

A

Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)

427
Q

How do you sterilize plastic objects?

A

Ethylene Oxide and H2O2

428
Q

What is the mechanism of action of an autoclave?

A

Uses steam under pressure

429
Q

What is the mechanism of action of thermal sterilization?

A

Protein denaturation by heat

430
Q

What is the name of the suture cutting scissors?

A

Mayo Scissors

431
Q

Name the part of the spinal chord that will cause paralysis in all four limbs if damaged.

A

C3-C5

432
Q

A dog comes into the clinic with all four limbs swollen and painful - what is the next step?

A

Take an X-ray of the Liver

433
Q

Where are pneumatic bones present in mammals?

A

In the Skull

434
Q

An unvaccinated cat was seen playing with a bat - what is the next step?

A

Advise the owner to euthanize and check for rabies.

435
Q

Ammonia Urate Crystals are most commonly found in what species of dog?

A

Dalmatians

436
Q

Flunixin Meglumine is NEVER to be used with what drug?

A

Dexamethasone

437
Q

What kind of drug is PHENYLBUTAZONE?

A

NSAIDs

438
Q

Diagnosis of black leg muscle with crepitation?

A

Black Leg Disease (Clostridium chauvoie)

439
Q

What organ is most affected by Tyzzer Disease (TD)?

A

Liver

440
Q

What to do if Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) is found present?

A

Isolate and Euthanize

441
Q

A horse is showing gurgling sounds during and after races - what is your diagnosis?

A

Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH)

442
Q

Hemosiderin laden macrophages are found in a tracheal wash - what is your diagnosis?

A

Exercise-Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage (EIPH)

443
Q

History of stones stuck in the Os penis of a dog - what is the treatment?

A

Surgical Urethrostomy

444
Q

What are the signs of Stage II of General Anesthesia?

A
  • Pupil Dilatation
  • Involuntary Increased Respiration Rate
  • Unconsciousness
445
Q

How can a new disease be introduced into a farm?

A

By introducing a new Bull

446
Q

Diagnose: A sheep is found with alopecia, skin crusting, and hyperkeratosis.

A

Zink Poisoning

447
Q

Diagnose: A sheep is found with Blindness that was not blind before.

A

Lead Poisoning

448
Q

Ewes (Femal Sheep) aborted without autolysis - what is your diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

449
Q

Vesicular disease showing Ulceration was found on a pig Coronet - what is your next step?

A

Report it to the authority.

450
Q

What is the Drug of Choice in bone surgery in dogs?

A

Cefazolin

451
Q

Bloody diarrhea is a common finding in what kind of poisoning?

A

Arsenic Poisoning

452
Q

What samples should be collected if Strychnine Poisoning is suspected?

A

Liver and Gastrointestinal Tract

453
Q

Cats in the South-Western USA can have what zoonotic disease?

A

Yersinia pestis (Plague)

454
Q

What type of suture material is used to close a bladder after surgery?

A

Absorbable PDS

455
Q

What type of needle is used to close a bladder after surgery?

A

swagged needle

456
Q

What is the difference between the tunica media of the femoral artery and the tunica media of the thoracic artery?

A

The tunica media of the thoracic aorta have more elastic tissue than the femoral artery

457
Q

What is the drug of choice for Tachycardia in dogs?

A

Lidocaine

458
Q

What are the clinical signs of Jejunal Strangulation?

A

-Gastric Reflux
-Dyspnea
-Acute Pain

459
Q

Bloody diarrhea is seen in a 7-day old pig and 95% mortality, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Enterotoxemia

(Clostridium perfringens Type-C)

460
Q

What is the most common disease in the Medial Splint (2nd Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?

A

Slab Fracture

461
Q

What is the most common disease in the Common Bone (3rd Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?

A

Bucked Shin

462
Q

What is the most common disease in the Later Splint (4th Metacarpal) of the Metacarpal Bones of a Horse?

A

Chip Fracture

463
Q

What is the Drug of Choice for Atral Fibrillation?

A

Quinidine

464
Q

What type of suture is used tin a hollow abdominal cavity?

A

Simple Interrupted Suture Pattern

465
Q

How do you control Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis in goats?

A

Testing > Segregation > Culling

466
Q

What is the preferred method of diagnosing Feline Odontoclastic Resorptive Lesion (FORL)?

A

X-ray

467
Q

A 2-day old foal is showing diarrhea, and the organism is acid fast - what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

468
Q

What causes Atrophic Rhinitis in Pigs?

A

Pasteurella multocida and Bordetella bronchiseptica

469
Q

A patient comes in with a history of cough, vomiting, diarrhea, bilirubinuria, and a picture of damaged kidney - what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

470
Q

What is the major cause of abortion in goats?

A

Chlamydophila psittacosis
(Chlamydophilosis)

471
Q

Which region is desensitized during Epidural Anesthesia?

A

Perineal Region Desensitization

472
Q

Shoulder joint pain is seen on palpation - what is the most likely cause?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)

473
Q

What drugs are safe to give in pregnancy?

A

Penicillin, Erythromycin, and Cephalosporin

474
Q

What is “irreversible cell death caused by disease, injury, or failure of blood supply” called?

A

Necrosis

475
Q

What is “programmed cell death” called?

A

Apoptosis

476
Q

How do you support the atlantooccipital joint?

A

Ventral support

EXAMPLE: Neck brace in humans

477
Q

What is the most common type of necrosis in the brain?

A

Liquefactive Necrosis

478
Q

The Sciatic Nerve is caudal to what?

A

coxofemoral Joint

479
Q

If there is over-flexion of the hock joint, then which nerve is there most likely a problem in?

A

Tibial Nerve

480
Q

Which type of dysfunction most commonly occurs in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

A

Diastolic Disfunction

481
Q

What is the most common organ that is affected in an inguinal hernia?

A

Intestine

-a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, specifically in the inguinal canal.

482
Q

In which part of the kidney absorbs the most amount of Sodium?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

-About 65%

483
Q

Where in the kidney do NSAIDs have their maximum side effects?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

484
Q

What is the normal Partial Pressure of Carbon Dioxide (PaCO2) of a Horse?

A

35-45mmHg

485
Q

Which antibiotic is Contraindicated for use in Foals (young horses)?

A

Enrofloxacin

-risk of articular cartilage damage

486
Q

An 18-year-old horse is showing a head tilt to the right and circling to the right - where is the lesion most likely located?

A

Right Side
-lesion on same side as the head tilt

487
Q

What is the most common etiological agent that causes pneumonia in foals?

A

Streptococcus equi

488
Q

An 18-year-old horse is showing head tilt, circling, and nystagmus with the fast phase going towards the left - where is the lesion most likely located?

A

Right Side

489
Q

A horse is showing signs of a Haematobia irritans (horn fly) infestation, what other species is most likely close to the horse?

A

Cattle

-The female horn fly lays eggs in fresh cow manure, even before the cow completes defecation.

490
Q

Which drug does not have extensive hepatic metabolism?

A

Ampicillin

-excreted by the kidneys

491
Q

What electrolyte findings would you expect to see in a horse with significant blood loss?

A

Normocytic normochromic anemia, hypoproteinemia, and responsive bone marrow

492
Q

Which virus is normally found in the Upper Respiratory Tract in horses?

A

Equine adenovirus

493
Q

A horse is presented with megalocytosis, periportal fibrosis, and biliary hyperplasia - what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pyrrolizidine alkaloidosis

494
Q

What is the most common noninfectious cause of abortions in horses?

A

Twinning

495
Q

Where do the most common conduction disorders occur in horses?

A

AV Node

496
Q

Which toxin does sweet clover contain and what are its harmful effects?

A

Dicoumarol (a natural chemical substance of combined plant and fungal origin) > Dicumarol is a potent vitamin K antagonist and anticoagulant leading to Vitamin K deficiency > Coagulopathy

497
Q

What class of drugs is active against gram negative organisms?

A

Aminoglycosides

EXAMPLE: Gentamicin, Kanamycin, Neomycin, Amikacin

498
Q

During surgery of a horse in the case of colic, the left kidney is not visible - what is the most probable cause?

A

Nephrosplenic entrapment of large colon

499
Q

Which tooth is the oldest tooth in horse?

A

Premolar 1 (also known as the Wolf Tooth at 5-6 months)

500
Q

Which test is used for the diagnosis of corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection?

A

Synergistic Hemolysin inhibition (SHI) test

-detects antibodies against the phospholipase D exotoxin is available at many diagnostic laboratories.

501
Q

Where is the Patent Foramen Ovale is normally located?

A

New Born Calves

502
Q

What is the best sample to submit in an Anthrax diagnosis?

A

Blood Sample

503
Q

What is the effect of steroids on leukocytes/WBCs?

A

Leukocytosis with lymphopenia, increased neutrophils, decreased monocytes, decreased basophils, decreased eosinophils

504
Q

What is the agglutination lysis test is used for the diagnosis of?

A

Leptospira

505
Q

Which mycoplasma is highly pathogenic in chicken?

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

506
Q

Which mammal is highly susceptible to avian tuberculosis?

A

Pigs

507
Q

What are scales on shanks, beak, toenails, and feet a modification of?

A

Epidermis

508
Q

Limberneck in chicken is caused by which toxin of the Clostridium botulinum bacterium?

A

Type C

509
Q

What is the best antibiotic for treatment of respiratory disease in chickens?

A

Tylosin

-macrolide antibiotic and bacteriostatic feed additive, broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive organisms, and a limited range of Gram-negative organisms.

510
Q

What is the most potent renal toxin?

A

Methyl guanidine

511
Q

What is Odontodystrophy ?

A

Hypoplasia of the enamel of teeth

512
Q

What is the most common type of tumor of the GIT in bovines?

A

Lymphosarcoma

EXAMPLE: Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

513
Q

What is some virus induced tumor in the oral cavity in dogs?

A

Viral warts and, most commonly, papilloma

514
Q

What is the most common oral benign tumor in dogs?

A

Epulis Tumors

515
Q

What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs?

A

Malignant melanoma

-a serious form of skin cancer that originates from melanocytes

516
Q

What is the most common oral malignant tumor in cats?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

-SSC is a type of skin cancer that affects cats; can occur in various areas, including the eyelids, top edge of the nose (nasal planum), lips, ears, and other regions exposed to ultraviolet rays (sunlight). Cats with sparser hair and lighter pigmentation are more susceptible; Tumors may appear as shallow or deep sores (ulceration), raised reddened areas, or cauliflower-like growths.

517
Q

What is the most common site for the development of ulcers in the stomach in pigs?

A

Diverticulum region

518
Q

Torsion of the colon is commonly reported in horses, what does it generally involve?

A

Left Dorsal Colon

519
Q

Which parasite has a flattened operculum at one end?

A

Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke)

520
Q

What does the term Silhouette mean when referring to x-rays?

A

2 structures of the same radiographic density are in close contact, and their margins cannot be distinguished radiographically.

521
Q

An air bronchogram identifies which type of lung pattern?

A

Alveolar Lung Pattern

522
Q

After a bone fracture, when does periosteal new bone appear radiographically?

A

7-10 weeks

523
Q

Hemomelasma ilei, nodules/hemorrhagic lesions in the ilium and jejunum of horses, is due to what?

A

migration of Strongylus vulgaris or Oxyuris equi larvae

524
Q

What is Sleepy Foal Disease (Joint Ill) caused by?

A

Actinobacillus equuli

525
Q

Which aminoglycosides are the least toxic?

A

Neomycin and Streptomycin

-Gentamycin and kanamycin are the most toxic

526
Q

What is Constrictive Pericarditis is pigs caused by?

A

Haemophilus parasium

(Glasser Disease caused by Haemophilus parasuis)

527
Q

A deficiency of what causes Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) in cats?

A

Taurine

528
Q

What is the most common myocardial disease in dogs?

A

Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)

529
Q

What is the most common myocardial disease in cats?

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

530
Q

What is it called when there is pus in the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

Hypopyon

531
Q

What is COR-Pulmonale?

A

pulmonary hypertension

(heart disease is secondary to disease in the lungs)

532
Q

What is PLR?

A

Pupillary Light Reflex

-also known as the photopupillary reflex
-an automatic response of the eye to changes in ambient illumination

533
Q

What is retroillumination?

A

an indirect lighting technique used in slit lamp examination to assess the integrity and clarity of the cornea and crystalline lens.

-Retroillumination involves shining light from directly behind the eye structures (cornea, lens, and iris). The reflected light provides valuable information about opacities, defects, and abnormalities.

534
Q

How do you diagnose the patency of the Nasolacrimal Duct?

A

A fluorescence dye is given in the eye and if it drains through the nose there is patency of nasolacrimal duct.

535
Q

What is Distichiasis?

A

having an extra row of eyelashes

-cilia growing from the membrane glad which can abrade the surface of the cornea

536
Q

Pupil constriction muscles are supplied to by which nerve?

A

Oculomotor (CN3)

537
Q

The lacrimal gland is supplied to by which nerve?

A

Facial (CN7)

538
Q

Which antibody is present in the respiratory mucosa?

A

Immunoglobulin-A

539
Q

The nasal passages have about 50% resistance to air. What is the olfactory epithelium rich in which protective enzyme?

A

Cytochromes P450 (P450s or CYPs)

-a superfamily of enzymes containing heme as a cofactor that mostly, but not exclusively, function as monooxygenases.

540
Q

Inclusion Body Rhinitis (IBR) in pregnant sows may cause what?

A

Mummification of the Fetus

541
Q

What is Hashimoto Thyroiditis?

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

-Hashimoto’s disease is characterized by the immune system attacking healthy thyroid tissue. This leads to the gradual destruction of the thyroid’s hormone-producing cells.

542
Q

What are 95% of Hypothyroidism cases in dogs due to?

A

Primary destruction of the thyroid gland due to an autoimmune disease or idiopathic reasons

543
Q

What is seen in case of Hypothyroidism?

A

decreased resting serum T4, Hypercholesteremia, and normocytic normochromic anemia

544
Q

In which condition is calcitonin increased?

A

Hypercalcemia

RECALL: a hormone produced by the C-cells in your thyroid gland that’s main role is to regulate blood calcium levels by decreasing them.

545
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor of the Adrenal Medulla

546
Q

What are the typical signs of hypoadrenocorticism?

A

vomiting, diarrhea, melena, muscle weakness, and hypovolemia

high blood pressure is NOT a sign of hypoadrenocorticism

547
Q

Growth hormone deficiency is hereditary in what dog breed?

A

Pomeranians

548
Q

What is the most frequent type of pancreatic tumor type?

A

Carcinoma - originates from epithelial tissue

549
Q

Which exocrine pancreatic enzyme digests carbohydrates?

A

Amylase

550
Q

What do alpha cells in the endocrine pancreas produce?

A

Glucagon

RECALL: Glucagon raises blood sugar levels by promoting the release of stored glucose from the liver. It also increases fatty acid levels in the bloodstream.

551
Q

What is the carcinoma of the beta cells called?

A

Insulinoma

552
Q

What type of diabetes do 50-60% of cats have?

A

Type 1 Diabetes

553
Q

How long is the prepatent period of Trichuris Vulpis?

A

3 months

554
Q

What is the common lesion of salmonellosis in horses?

A

Fibro-necrotic Fibrosis of the Colon

555
Q

List the digestive organs of psittacine (birds) from most cranial to most caudal.

A

mouth, esophagus, crop, proventriculus, ventriculus or gizzard, intestine, ceca, rectum, and cloaca

556
Q

What kind of toxin causes food born botulism?

A

Neurotoxin

557
Q

What causes Milk Spots on the liver of pigs?

A

Ascaris suum

558
Q

Which species possess Atropinase?

A

Lagomorphs (hare, rabbits, pika, etc.)

559
Q

What is the most popular pet in America?

A

Tropical Aquarium Fish

560
Q

What type of toxin causes food born staphylococcosis?

A

Enterotoxin

561
Q

Adult echinococcus granulosis reside in the intestines of what species?

A

Dogs

562
Q

What is the most common type of arrhythmia associated with IV use of Thiopental in dogs?

A

Ventricular Bigeminy
-a heart rhythm characterized by alternating normal sinus beats with premature ventricular complexes

563
Q

Which disorder is most likely to cause transudative ascites?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

-can be caused by damage to the glomerulus, which are clusters of small blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess water from the blood.
-Disease-specific to the kidneys, Congenital infections, Diabetes, etc.

564
Q

More than 50% of all rabies cases in the US involve transmission via what animal?

A

Raccoons (>50%)

565
Q

Allergies result in the production of which antibodies?

A

IgE

566
Q

What is the lack of immune response to the self-called?

A

Tolerance

567
Q

What is the immune response to the self-called?

A

Autoimmunity

568
Q

Which of the following is NOT an opioid: Butorphanol, Morphine, Methadone, Medetomidine, or Meperidine?

A

Medetomidine is an Alpha-2-Adenergic Agonist

569
Q

Which layer of the Integument contains melanocytes?

A

Stratum germinativum

-Also known as the basal cell layer, it’s responsible for cell division and the production of new skin cells.

570
Q

What does the chordae tendineae attach to?

A

Papillary Muscles

-chordae tendineae are thin, fibrous strands of tissue int he hearts that connect the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid) to the ventricles.

571
Q

Which of the following is NOT an exocrine gland: Ceruminous glands, Eccrine, Sebaceous, Apocrine, or Pineal?

A

Pineal gland is an endocrine gland

572
Q

What cells secrete Pepsin?

A

Chief Cells

-located at the base of the gastric gland and are present in the fundus

573
Q

What cells secrete HCl?

A

Parietal cells

-epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach

574
Q

Which hormone is known to increase bowl motility?

A

Gastrin

-a hormone produced by the digestive system that helps break down food by stimulating the stomach to release hydrochloric acid (HCl)

575
Q

What is the tube that links two osteons called?

A

Volkmann’s Canal

-a network of small channels in cortical bones that allow blood vessels to pass from the periosteum into the bone. They also connect the Haversian canals, which run inside osteons, to each other and to the periosteum. Volkmann’s canals are also known as perforating holes or channels.

576
Q

What is the naturally occurring mineral form of calcium called?

A

Hydroxyapatite

-Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2
-Hydroxyapatite (HA) is an inorganic mineral that’s a key component of bone and tooth enamel, providing hardness and structural strength. It’s also known as calcium apatite or calcium phosphate.

577
Q

What is the optimum number of days per year to milk a cow?

A

305 days

(Lactation for about 10 months with a 2-month dry period in which the cow prepares to give birth)

578
Q

How tall is an 18-hand horse?

A

6 feet at the withers

CALCULATIONS:
-(1 hand = 4in) & (12in=1ft)
-(18 hands) x (4 inches) = 72 inches
-(72 inches) / (12 inches) = 6 feet

579
Q

What are the Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors?

A

Coagulation Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10

580
Q

What is the process by which calcium is deposited secondary to necrosis?

A

Dystrophic calcification

  • The abnormal accumulation of calcium salts in injured or degenerated tissues.
    -This type of calcification is often seen in areas of cell necrosis, such as hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules.
581
Q

What is the approximate half-life of Vitamin D3 as Calcidol (known as calcifediol or 25-hydroxyvitamin D3)?

A

15 days

582
Q

What is the approximate half-life of Vitamin D3 as Calcitriol (known as 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)?

A

15 hours

583
Q

Which of the following is NOT among the top 3 Vitamin D rodenticide in the USA: d-Con, Quintox, Rampage, Rat-B-Gone?

A

d-Con is an anticoagulant rodenticide not a Vitamin D rodenticide.

584
Q

What is the antidote for Vitamin D rodenticides?

A

Salmon Calcitonin

-a peptide hormone found in salmon that’s used to treat osteoporosis, Paget’s disease of bone, and hypercalcemia.

585
Q

Which of the following is the specimen of choice to check the level of arsenic: Serum, Liver, Kidney, or Urine?

A
  1. Urine
  2. Liver or Kidney
  3. Serum
586
Q

What is the drug/treatment of choice for Arsenic Poisoning?

A

Dimercaprol

-Dimercaprol, also known as British anti-Lewisite (BAL), is a medication used to treat acute poisoning by arsenic, mercury, gold, and lead.

587
Q

In what part of the GIT is Iron absorbed?

A

Duodenum and Jejunum

588
Q

What is the best chelator used in Iron Toxicity?

A

Deferoxamine

-a medication that binds iron and aluminum

589
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be affected by Iron Toxicity: Heart, Liver, Intestine, or Nervous System (brain)?

A

Nervous System is least likely to be affected

590
Q

A penny is comprised of how much (%) of Zinc?

A

> 90% zinc in a penny

591
Q

Pennies used to be made of copper, what year did they change to Zinc?

A

1982-1983

592
Q

What are the changes in the RBCs seen in Zinc toxicity?

A

SPHEROCYTES, BASOPHILIC STRIPPING, and TARGET CELLS

-SPHEROCYTES (red blood cells that take on a round shape instead of the typical biconcave disc shape when observed under a microscope)
-BASOPHILIC STRIPPING (also known as punctate basophilia, refers to the presence of numerous basophilic granules dispersed throughout the cytoplasm of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in a peripheral blood smear.)
-TARGET CELLS (also known as codocytes, exhibit a distinctive appearance under the microscope. They resemble a shooting target with a bullseye.)

592
Q

What is the chef clinical sign of Zinc toxicity?

A

Intravascular hemolysis

593
Q

In the case of Hemolytic Anemia, it is important to rule out Zinc Toxicity - what is the color of the appropriate tube used for collection?

A

-Green top (Heparinized)
-Royal Blue/Purple top (EDTA Vial)

594
Q

What does Acetaminophen toxicity cause in cats?

A

Methemoglobinemia

-and Heinz Body Anemia

595
Q

What is the drug/treatment of choice for Ionophore Toxicity?

A

There is no antidote

RECALL: Ionophores are lipid-soluble molecules used in veterinary medicine to transport ions across cell membranes. They disrupt ion concentration gradients for calcium, potassium, hydrogen, and sodium ions in microorganisms, leading to antimicrobial effects. Common ionophores include monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin, narasin, maduramicin, semduramicin, and laidlomycin propionate.

596
Q

Cotton Seed Meal can cause what type of toxicity?

A

Gossypol Toxicity

597
Q

What is the treatment for choice for Permethrin Toxicity?

A

Methocarbamol

-a muscle relaxer used to treat skeletal muscle conditions such as pain or injury.

598
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Organophosphate Toxicity in Dogs?

A

-Diazepam and Pentobarbital are used to control seizures.
-Atropine is used to control salivation.
-Pralidoxime Chloride to reactivate cholinesterase which has been inactivated by phosphorylation due to an organophosphate.

599
Q

What are the pathognomic signs of Uria Toxicity in Cattle/Bovine?

A

Toxicity and Nonprotein Nitrogen (NPN) wildly aberrant behavior also known as Bovine Bonkers

-Clinical signs associated with this syndrome include CNS effects, such as stampeding, ear twitching, trembling, champing, salivating, and convulsions

600
Q

What plant is associated with High Mountain Disease?

A

Locoweed

-also crazyweed and loco
-a common name in North America for any plant that produces swainsonine, an alkaloid harmful to livestock.
-Astragalus and Oxytropis spp.

601
Q

Which plant is associated with photosensitization?

A

Horse Brush

(Tetradymia glabrata, T. canescens)

602
Q

What is the drug of choice for Antifreeze Toxicity in Dogs?

A

Fomepizole

-an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase used as an antidote in confirmed or suspected methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning

603
Q

What is the drug of choice for Antifreeze Toxicity in Cats?

A

Ethanol (20%)

-If a cat ingests antifreeze, intravenous treatment with ethanol can be helpful if administered promptly.
–The recommended dose for cats is (5 ml of 20% ethanol solution per kilogram intravenously every 6 hours) for 5 treatments, followed by (every 8 hours) for 4 additional treatments.

604
Q

What is the Drug of Choice for Urea/NPN toxicity in cattle?

A

2-8L acetic acid and 3-10 gallons of cold water

605
Q

What is the drug of choice for Ethylene Glycol Toxicity?

A

Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole)

-a competitive ADH inhibitor used to block metabolism of ethylene glycol and methanol to their toxic metabolites.

606
Q

What is the drug of choice for Permethrin (an insecticide)?

A

Methocarbamol

-Treatment of feline permethrin toxicity with IV methocarbamol is widely recommended (55–220 mg/kg up to 330 mg/kg/day, give half the dose rapidly, not exceeding 200 mg/min and then the rest to effect).

607
Q

What is the drug of choice for Organophosphate Toxicity?

A

Pralidoxime Chloride

BCSE Notes to Cards (7 decks)

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