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Kevin's KMK Flashcards > General Pharmacology > Flashcards

General Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 classes and 1 individual drug that inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, and Bacitracin

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2
Q

Which class of antibiotics alter the 30S subunit and 50S subunit, respectively?

A

30S»Aminoglycosides & Tetracyclines

50S»Chloramphenicol, Macrolides, and Clindamycin

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3
Q

Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim =?

A

Bactrim (used for MRSA)

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4
Q

Sulfadiazine + Pyrimethamine = ?

A

Toxoplasmosis treatment

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5
Q

Which enzymes do Fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

DNA gyrase + Topoisomerase IV

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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Penicillins & Cephalosporins?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase

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7
Q

Is Bacitracin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal agent

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8
Q

Does Bacitracin target gram + or - bacteria?

What is it used to treat?

A

Gram + only. Comes in ointment form..used to treat Blepharitis

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9
Q

What antibiotics are found in Polysporin?

A

Bacitracin (gram + coverage) + Polymyxin B (gram - coverage)

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10
Q

Which drug is the drug of choice for MSSA? (methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcal infections)

A

Dicloxacillin

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11
Q

Which bacteria do Cephalosporins target? from 1st to 4th generations?

A

1st and 2nd gen are more gram +, while 3rd and 4th more effective against gram (-).

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12
Q

What is Cephalexin?

A

prescribed for skin infections caused by gram (+) bacteria including dacroadenitis, dacryocystitis, and pre-septal cellulitis

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13
Q

IV ceftriaxone is the treatment of choice for _______________ and ______________.

A
  1. Gonococcal conjunctivitis

2. Orbital cellulitis

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14
Q

What treatment is used for corneal ulcers?

A

Fortified Gentamicin with fortified Cefazolin

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15
Q

Topical ophthalmic aminoglycosides are notorious for causing ______________.

A

Superficial puntate keratitis

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16
Q

In which conditions can Doxycycline be used to treat?

A
  1. Meibomianitis»decreases the release of irritating free fatty acids and alters the configuration of oil glands
  2. Acne Rosacea
  3. chlamydial ocular infections (trachoma, adult inclusion conjunctivitis)
  4. recurrent corneal erosions
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17
Q

What are the adverse effects of Tetracyclines?

A

pseudotumor cerebri, bone growth retardation, and discoloring of teeth

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18
Q

What are 2 side effects of Minocycline?

A
  1. Blue sclera

2. Pigmented cysts of the conjunctiva

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19
Q

Oral Azithromycin (Z-pack) is commonly prescribed for which disease?

A
  1. Chlamydial infections (ex. trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis)
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20
Q

Topical Azithromycin (Azasite) is used to treat which diseases?

A
  1. Bacterial conjunctivitis (BID X 2 days, then QD x 5 days)

2. Blepharitis

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21
Q

Topical ophthalmic erythromycin ointment is commonly used prophylactically for preventing which disease in newborns?

A
  1. Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
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22
Q

Which bacteria are targeted when Lincomycin and Clindamycin are prescribed?

A
  1. MRSA

2. Anaerobic infections

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23
Q

What other drugs, besides Lincomycin & Clindamycin are used to treat MRSA?

A
  1. Bactrim (Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole)

2. Doxycycline

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24
Q

If MRSA is suspected in the skin around orbit, what drugs can be used to treat it?

A

Doxycycline & Bactrim

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25
Q

If MRSA is suspected in the eye, what drugs can be used to treat it?

A

Polytrim + Besivance

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26
Q

Which bacteria did 1st generation Fluoroquinolones target?

A

targeted more gram (-)

|&raquo_space;4th generation target more gram (+), but are still potent against gram (-)

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27
Q

What is one adverse side effect of taking ORAL Fluoroquinolones?

A

TENDINITIS

28
Q

Which Antibiotics are Bacteriostatic agents?

A
  1. Tetracyclines
  2. Trimethoprim
  3. Erythromycin
29
Q

Which Antibiotics are Bactericidal agents?

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Bacitracin
  3. Aminoglycosides
  4. Cephalosporins
  5. Fluoroquinolones
30
Q

What are the 4 drugs used for TB treatment?

A
  1. Ethambutol
  2. Rifampin
  3. Isoniazid
  4. Pyrazinamide
31
Q

What is the main adverse effect of Rifampin and Isoniazid?

What is another side effect of Isoniazid?

A

HEPATOTOXICITY

> > Pyridoxine (Vit. B6) deficiency

32
Q

What is the main adverse effect of Ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

33
Q

What are the routes of transmission for Hepatitis A through E?

A 
A. oral/fecal
B. blood/body fluids
C.  blood/body fluids
D.  blood/body fluids
E. oral/fecal
34
Q

What is the most common side effect of Hepatitis C therapy (Ribavirin)?

A

Conjunctivitis

35
Q

What are the common side effects of Ribavirin?

A 
Remember the name:
R: Retinal detachment
I: Ischemia (CWS)
B: Bleeding (hemorrhages)
AV: Arterial and Venous occlusions
iriN: Optic Neuritis
36
Q

When can Viroptic be used?

A

Used to treat Herpes Simplex Keratitis
»inhibits DNA polymerase
»corneal toxicity b/c of thimerasol

37
Q

How does Ganciclovir differ from Viroptic?

A

Ganciclovir has BAK preservative, while Viroptic contains thimerosal

38
Q

Which corneal disease and retinal disease, respectively is treated with Zirgan (Ganciclovir)?

A
  1. HSV keratitis
  2. CMV retinitis

> > Foscavir can be used for CMV retinitis if Zirgan fails.

39
Q

What is the MOA for Natamycin, Amphotericin B, and Nystatin?

A

bind to ergosterol and form pores within the fungal cell membrane

40
Q

What is the MOA of Ketoconazole?

What is it used for?

A

Inhibits Ergosterol synthesis

> > Used for treatment of SEVERE fungal corneal ulcers

41
Q

What is the MOA of Greseofulvin?

A

Inhibits fungal mitosis by interfering with Microtubule formation.

42
Q

Which 2 drugs are combined to treat Toxoplasmosis?

A

Sulfadiazine + Pyremethamine

43
Q

The initial sign of bull’s eye maculopathy is ____________ within the macula.

A

RPE mottling

44
Q

What are the 2 main MOA’s for Chloroquine?

A
  1. builds up heme that is toxic to Plasmodium parasite from Malaria
  2. Inhibits phospholipase A
45
Q

What is Lindane (Kwell) used to treat?

A

Treats Pubic lice

46
Q

What roles do COX 1 and COX 2 play, respectively?

A
  1. COX 1»syntheside prostaglandins that mediate inflammation.
  2. COX 2»synthesize prostaglandins that inhibit gastric secretions
47
Q

Which systemic conditions use Hydroxychoroquine (Plaquenil) for treatment?

A

Lupus, RA, and Malaria

48
Q

For which conditions can Triamcinolone (Kenalog) be used to treat?

A
  1. Diabetic macular edema
  2. Graves
  3. Intermediate and resolving post. uveitis
  4. Chalazia
  5. Irvine-Gass CME and all other macular edemas
49
Q

What are ocular side effects from taking Indomethacin (NSAID)?

A

whorl keratopathy and pigmentary retinopathy

50
Q

NSAIDS are contraindicated in which patients?

A

Heart disease patients

51
Q

What is the only Ester based steroid in the market today?

A

Lotemax (Loteprednol)

52
Q

What are the 4 main Indirect cholinergic Agonists?

A

Edrophonium, Echothiophate, Pyridostigmine, and Neostigmine

53
Q

What is the MOA of Donepezil?

A

It is a CNS acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (indirect cholinergic agonist)

54
Q

Which 1st generation H1 blockers are cholinergic antagonists?

A

Diphenhydramine, brompheniramine, chlorpheniramine, and promethazine

55
Q

Which antipsychotics are Cholinergic Antagonists?

A

Chlorpromazine, and Thioridazine

56
Q

Which antidepressants are Cholinergic Antagonists?

A

TCA’s (amitriptyline, imipramine) and MAOI’s

57
Q

Which systemic B-drug is the only long-acting B2 agonist?

A

Salmeterol

–is NOT to be used for a rescue inhaler!

58
Q

What are the main systemic alpha-1 antagonists?

A

Tamsulosin, Terazosin, and Prazosin

59
Q

What are the main systemic beta-1 specific antagonists?

A

Atenolol, and metoprolol

60
Q

What is the MOA of Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)?

A

Non-specific alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonist

61
Q

What are some adverse effects of Sudafed?

A

Tachycardia, Bronchoconstriciton, Nervousness, Agitation, Diplopia, and Blurred Vision
»avoid giving to patients taking MAOI’s and pts. with elevated IOP

62
Q

What are the side effects of H1 systemic anti-histamines?

A

> > 1st gen. have CNS penetration»as well as anti-cholinergic effects like Mydriasis, dry eyes, dry mouth, and tachycardia
(2nd generation H1 anti-histamines have LESS CNS penetration)

63
Q

What is the MOA of systemic H2 blockers?

A

Prevents histamine stimulation of gastric acid secretion by blocking H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells

64
Q

What is the MOA Proton pump inhibitors?

A

Inhibits H+/K+ ATPase pumps

–1st line therapy for peptic ulcer disease and GERD

65
Q

What are the 3 main Short-Acting B2 Agonists?

A
  1. Albuterol
  2. Metaproterenol (no longer prescribed for asthma)
  3. Isoproterenol (no longer prescribed for asthma)
    - -Beware of IOP elevation in glaucoma patients
66
Q

What is MOA of Acetylcysteine? What can it be used to treat?

A
  1. A mucolytic agent that breaks disulfide bonds in proteins of mucus
  2. Prescribed QID for filamentary keratitis

Kevin's KMK Flashcards (13 decks)

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