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Getting Ready > General Orders > Flashcards

General Orders Flashcards

1
Q

Department members will notify who when aware of the need to execute a high risk arrest warrant?

A

SWAT commander

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2
Q

What are the four approved restraining devices?

A

handcuffs, flex cuffs, ripp hobble restraint, leg-cuffs

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3
Q

To prevent positional asphyxiation sworn members shall not place or leave persons in custody in a what position for an extended period of time?

A

prone

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4
Q

Unless exigent circumstances exist, department sworn members will not handcuff a prisoner to what?

A

a fixed object

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5
Q

Can prisoners be handcuffed to one another?

A

yes

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6
Q

Can prisoners be handcuffed to a department member?

A

No, never

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7
Q

Detention facilities will not accept prisoner property in excess of what?

A

an average sized suitcase or bag

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8
Q

If prisoner property has to be placed in property at GPD, what shall the department member do?

A

prisoner will sign a prisoner property notification form before member leaves the jail or document why the did or couldn’t sign, leave a copy of the from with the prisoner’s property at the jaili

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9
Q

Members delivering persons in custody to the jail shall identify, describe, inventory, and document in the report items of value and/or prescription medications left with the detainee. What is considered an item of value?

A

value over $200

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10
Q

For a criminal traffic citation what shall be pulled and written on the citation?

A

case report number

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11
Q

When a person is arrested only for misdemeanor criminal traffic charges, the citations may serve as what?

A

the arrest documents ( no mittimus needed)

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12
Q

When a person is arrested from criminal traffic charges and for a felony or misdemeanor or city ordinance violations, then all charges shall be listed in the charge section of what?

A

the mittimus

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13
Q

Court dates for what type traffic charges are NOT set by the arresting member?

A

felony traffic

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14
Q

When will an NTA NOT be issued?

A

accused fails to identify themselves or their identity cannot be confirmed, accused refuses to sign citation and provide fingerprint, member believes that the continued liberty of the accused constitutes a reasonable risk of bodily injury to themselves or others, member believes accused may have a warrant, the accused has FTA in history, crime involves a charge of domestic violence

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15
Q

What copies of a criminal traffic citation should have a right thumb impression of offender?

A

reverse of the original copy and the officer’s copy (pink)

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16
Q

Department members within how many hours will notify the Alachua County Office of the Superintendent of Schools or other jurisidictional school board whenever a school board employee is charged with a felony, a misdemeanor involving the abuse of a minor, or sale/possession of a controlled substance?

A

48 hours (investigating officer shall complete an Employee School Board Notification form)

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17
Q

What are the included educational institutions for school board notification?

A

FLorida School for the Deaf and BLind, university development research schools, and private elementary and secondary schools

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18
Q

When a current enrolled UF student is arrested by GPD , members should included what in the documentation and what form needs to be submitted to Student Judicial Affairs?

A

Student ID number and UF Conduct and Conflict Form

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19
Q

Is it required to identify UF students as such in an incident report or NTA for drug and alcohol arrests?

A

yes

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20
Q

Who forwards reports involving drug and alcohol arrest related to UF students to UF?

A

records

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21
Q

Reports can be held longer than the end of the employee’s workday if supervisor approves it but should be submitted when?

A

within 24 hours (general order says Supervisors shall now allow reports to be held more than 24 hours. Pretty sure a typo and it should say NOT instead of NOW)

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22
Q

When is a report not required?

A

only charging document is a traffic citation or a NTA exception

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23
Q

If handcuffs, or other approved physical restraints are used during the arrest the member will document this on the charging document. True or False

A

True

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24
Q

The department will abide by the objective reasonable standard as defined by what case law for each and every lawful application of force?

A

Graham v Conner, 490 US 386 (1989)

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25
Q

What is a member’s responsibility for use of force?

A

notify supervisor, ensure medical attention is given, remain at the scene for serious or life threatening injuries until the supervisor responds (unless exigent circumstances exist), complete a report or supplement

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26
Q

Can a department member view any department generated video prior to completing a report that includes the circumstances of the use of force?

A

yes, except in deadly force (deadly force the member can only view their own video)

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27
Q

Incident report including use of force must be written by when?

A

within 24 hours

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28
Q

When deadly force is used a on duty shift commander must respond immediately and do what?

A

secure it, make the appropriate notifications, coordinate with FDLE supervisor, initiate a preliminary field investigation, contact CID commander, contact assigned investigators, assist the involved members, issue a replacement firearm asap, ensure prelim report is completed by the end of shift and forwarded to Chief and all investigating parties, confirm use of force summary is initiated

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29
Q

In a deadly force incident what is the operations commander’s responsibility?

A

to notify FDLE and make a request for the Officer Involved Shooting team to respond

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30
Q

When non-deadly force is used how long does the supervisor have to complete the Use of Force summary?

A

15 calendar days

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31
Q

Members directly involved in a use of deadly force incident shall be considered to be on administrative assignment immediately and it shall be for a period of what and what are the requirements?

A

no less than 60 days; first 7 calendar days the member will be on a no work status, the chief can extend the 60 days by increments of the 30 days by verbal communication to the member

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32
Q

Can a member who is on administrative assignment due to a deadly force incident work in the field?

A

yes if there is an emergency response to a critical incident. member must be part of a task force or response team and not act alone

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33
Q

After a deadly force incident the involved members will be required to undergo a debriefing by a licensed mental health professional provided by the department as soon as possible but usually within what time frame?

A

24 hours

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34
Q

Office of Internal Affairs will conduct the following for use of force:

A

use of force investigations where there may be a policy violation, administrative review of all incidents where a firearm was discharged, comprehensive use of force report annually by March 1, review and analyze all use of force for the calendar year - by Feb 1 (include all assaults on leo to determine trends, patterns, with recommendations to enhance officer safety, revise policy, or address a training issue

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35
Q

Members in junior rank will assume command only when the member in charge is disabled or incapacitated due to what?

A

mental or physical condition

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36
Q

What are the meetings the Chief will regularly attend:

A

command staff, tactical briefing, assistant chief bi- weekly meeting, by-weekly cabinet meeting, eac meeting

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37
Q

At the end of each shift what is the shift commander responsible for?

A

uploading shift status report to aggregator

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38
Q

This type of agreement grants both signing agencies the authority to take police action within the other’s jurisdiction when requested by another agency regarding routine law enforcement situations.

A

voluntary routine assistance agreement

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39
Q

The Alachua County Sheriff’s Office has granted approval/authority for GPD sworn personnel to make an on view arrest, within the county’s jurisdiction, in cases involving what?

A

critical, life threatening situations, to prevent bodily injury to citizens, secure the apprehension of criminals whom the law enforcement officer may encounter

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40
Q

This type of agreement grants both signing agencies the authority to take police action within the other’s jurisdiction when requested by one of the agencies regarding some emergency situation.

A

Requested operational assistance

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41
Q

Which agencies have voluntary routine assistance agreements with GPD?

A

Santa FE CC and UFPD

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42
Q

Which agencies authorized on view arrest authority to GPD?

A

ACSO, Santa Fe CC, UFPD

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43
Q

Which agencies have requested operational assistance agreements with GPD?

A

ACSO, Alachua County Traffic Enforcement, Alachua PD, Santa Fe CC, UFPD

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44
Q

Who may request for assistance from another agency by notifying their agency head or designee from whom the assistance is required?

A

lieutenants or acting shift commanders

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45
Q

How is the National Guard called into assist GPD?

A

emergency that is beyond local leo resources, incident commander notifies bureau commander who notifies the chief if it is justified, chief notifies the Alachua County Emergency Management director who will arrange and coordinate National Guard assistance

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46
Q

AOA where a report is not required must be documented in an IOC and forwarded to who?

A

bureau commander via chain of command

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47
Q

If a question arises about a member’s ability to perform his/her essential job functions due to an apparent low level of health or fitness what may the member be required to submit to?

A

physician’s examination and if possible bring his/her health up to an acceptable level

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48
Q

What are the three types of overtime?

A

billable, city-paid, city-cosponsered

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49
Q

In order for a Lieutenant to be eligible for city paid overtime assignments there must be a minimum of how many positions posted?

A

two or more positions

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50
Q

What is considered prior to allowing a full time covert member to participate in an overtime assignment?

A

how much exposure to the public the member may encounter, how many covert/uc operations the member has been or is currently involved in, and potential risks posed to the member or the unit

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51
Q

When is overtime posted?

A

second Wednesday of the month at 1900

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52
Q

Prior to Open Sign Up Dates members may sign up for:

A

2 overtime slots per day, 2 overtime slots per employee/overtime detail per calendar month (exception if the overtime detail spans more than one month it can be treated as one detail if special events supervisor decides)

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53
Q

When is an OT slot considered open?

A

unfilled 7 days prior to the exact date and start time of the detail

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54
Q

Once an overtime slot becomes open (7 days out from assignment) members may sign up for:

A

3rd slot and then a 4th slot if still unfilled 48 hours out

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55
Q

If an OT slot is unfilled with less than 24 hours before the start date and time the member can:

A

sign up and doesn’t count against 2 sign ups per day, will not count against limit of how many slots a member may have each month for a detail, but WILL count against maximum hours a department member is allowed to work per week

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56
Q

The three main overtime rules are:

A

no more than 18 hours consecutively, no more than 18 hours in any 24 hour rolling period, more than 25 hours of OT a week (unless limit is raised)

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57
Q

Who shall be notified when there is a last minute notification that a member cannot report to or complete an OT assignment?

A

no later than an hour prior to the start of the scheduled assignment notify the on duty shift commander AND send an email to the Special Events Coordinator

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58
Q

If an OT assignment is not completed by a member within how many hours after the completion of the OT assignment the member’s OT account in the module will be locked until the member completes the assignment

A

24 hours

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59
Q

Members shall complete their overtime details in the OT module within how many hours after the end of the detail?

A

72 hours

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60
Q

What is a short notice OT detail?

A

one with a start date and time less than 24 hours away or 48 hours if the assignment is on the weekend

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61
Q

What are the four reasons a member cannot work OT?

A

suspension, limited or restricted duty, administrative assignment, overtime privileges have been suspended as part of disciplinary action

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62
Q

Everyone is required to wear the official uniform except who?

A

K9 officer if they have their K9, prior approval from Special events coordinator if it is a plain clothes detail

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63
Q

Members working scheduled city-paid assignments may be entitled to a meal break when the consecutive hours to total at leas this many hours, staffing allows, and the OIC of the OT detail approves it?

A

8 hours

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64
Q

All progressive violations are considered what violation?

A

Inefficiency in Job Performance

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65
Q

Employee must not use accumulated sick leave or PTO earned as a city employee for any injury sustained while engaged in outside employment and Leave Bank may not be established. True or False

A

True

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66
Q

Before engaging in or continuing secondary employment, members in a restricted duty status who desire to continue to engage in off-duty employment must obtain the approval of these four people:

A

their doctor, Personnel Unit Commander, City Nurse, and the Chief

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67
Q

Approval for continuation of secondary employment must be resubmitted by what date each year?

A

January 31st

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68
Q

What secondary employment is off limits?

A

process server, bill collector, private investigator, investigator for or an assistant to defense attorneys, tow companies, places monitored by GPD (pawn shops, etc)

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69
Q

Department members are limited to a cumulative total of how many employment hours per week, which shall include normal work hours, scheduled and/or anticipated OT, and off duty employment?

A

60 hours

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70
Q

Can probationary employees engage in outside employment?

A

typically no unless granted special permission from the chief

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71
Q

Sworn members, non certified police officers, and PST are permitted how many free visits a year to EAP psychologist/psychiatrist? How many for all other department members?

A

unlimited, three

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72
Q

Immediate family members are allowed how man free EAP visits a year?

A

three

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73
Q

Any member receiving self initiated treatment may use the services of the contractual psychologist/psychiatrist without the knowledge of the department, except when ?

A

there is evidence of concern for fitness for duty or imminent harm to self and others

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74
Q

Medications taken by the member that has any potential to impair safety, performance, or motor functions shall advise who before reporting to work under the influence of such medication or drug?

A

personnel services division commander who will review and refer the employee to EHS for a work status determination

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75
Q

What are the qualifying conditions from mandating EAP participation?

A

traumatic incident, danger to self or others, work performance concerns

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76
Q

If a member does a self referral to EAP for a traumatic incident the member shall schedule with the next how many days and be willing to confirm the appointment with supervisor?

A

3 business days

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77
Q

If a supervisor refers for a traumatic incident and immediate intervention is not indicated the member shall be referred to personnel that day or if after hours when?

A

the next business day

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78
Q

Within five days a traumatic incident, the employee may be granted up to how many days of paid leave by the CHief, based on the recommendation of the Personnel Services Division Commander?

A

2 days

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79
Q

If a member is referred to EAP due to danger to self or to others what must the provider submit?

A

written report to Personnel Commander that states if member is fit for duty or not

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80
Q

If a work performance EAP issue appears to be medical who does the employee get referred to?

A

personnel services division commander

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81
Q

If mandatory counseling is warranted through EAP as a result of poor work performance the personnel division commander will consult with who and determine a course of action?

A

the Chief

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82
Q

A supervisor may recommend that the member recieve evaluation and treatment when a member is exhibiting diminished work performance due to outside factors such as what?

A

marital, financial, family, psychological, or other influences

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83
Q

Personal calls should not exceed how many minutes per month?

A

60 minutes

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84
Q

Texting is not permitted to or from a NON smart phone issued or owned by the department. True or False

A

True

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85
Q

City policy requires City Commission approval of any contract in excess of what amount?

A

$25,000

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86
Q

Any documents with legal ramifications (contracts, mous, deals, negotiations, etc) must be approved by who before execution of the document?

A

legal advisor and Chief

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87
Q

Members shall not institute a civil suit arising from their official duties without first doing what?

A

notify the Chief in writing

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88
Q

Members who become a defendant or witness in a civil suit arising from their employment shall notify the Chief in writing within how many days of becoming aware of it?

A

3 working days

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89
Q

Court Liaison will NOT accept service for officers who are individually named as defendants in law suits. True or False

A

True (officers must deliver a copy of the court document to the department’s legal office the day they are served (by fax or in person)

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90
Q

Members who are served with a subpoena or other civil process relating to the department’s operations, policies, or procedures shall notify the Chief within what timeframe?

A

immediately unless it is a subpoena for the prosecution of a routine criminal case

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91
Q

Updated residences, telephone numbers, names and emergency contact information is required to be completed and forwarded to the Personnel Services Division by when?

A

the end of the first business day after the change goes into effect

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92
Q

Sick call outs should be made at least this many minutes before shift starts?

A

60 minutes

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93
Q

Members who do not report to work for how many consecutive days without being on approved leave shall be considered to have abandoned their employment and may be terminated.

A

3 days

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94
Q

The length of meal breaks for sworn members working 8 or 10 hour days during which the meal break is inclusive shall be how many minutes?

A

45 minutes

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95
Q

The length of personal break is defined by what?

A

the applicable labor agreement

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96
Q

Members may take a break where?

A

within geographic district, in an adjacent zone that isn’t in their district, a location contiguous or adjacent to a street or border that defines the district or has been authorized by shift commander

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97
Q

What is the maximum allowed number of marked units at any one break location?

A

three

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98
Q

A police vehicle intended to blend in with routine vehicle traffic, and which have no visible police marking or equipment.

A

non-descript police vehicle

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99
Q

Vehicle that have the same or similar body style as marked patrol cars, are solid color, and are not conspicuously marked.

A

unmarked fleet vehicle

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100
Q

A conspicuously marked police vehicle which has blue striping, lettering, and a department seal. May or may not have overhead lights

A

Marked Fleet vehicle

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101
Q

fleet vehicles either marked or unmarked that are equipped with emergency lights and sirens

A

emergency vehicles

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102
Q

Members shall notify the Chief how as soon as possible if they are arrested, issued a criminal summons, criminal traffic citation, have their DL suspended, have active warrants, or are served an injunction?

A

in writing via the chain of command as soon as possible

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103
Q

What level of blood alcohol can a member have in their system when on duty or on a standby status?

A

non. this supersedes DFWP limits

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104
Q

Can members smoke on duty?

A

yes, out of the open view of the public

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105
Q

Can members use smokeless tobacco products (snuff, chewing tobacco)?

A

No it is prohibited on duty, in uniform, and/or on the grounds of the police department

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106
Q

To be considered protect speech, the speech must be on a matter of public concern, and the employee’s interest in expressing himself/herself on any particular matter must not be outweighed by an injury the speech could cause to the interest of the city, as an employer, in promoting the efficiency of the public services it performs through its employees. True or False

A

True

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107
Q

An employee notice form that requires suspension, demotion, or termination must be signed as reviewed by who prior to issuance?

A

HR/OD Department

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108
Q

Who normally initiates an employee notice?

A

immediate supervisor

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109
Q

A probationary or temporary employee may be dismissed with or without cause at the sole discretion of the Department Head (if any) with review by who?

A

HR/OD Department

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110
Q

Normal termination procedure- Prior to the proposed termination the employee shall be suspended without pay pending the outcome of informal conference and shall concurrently or immediately thereafter receive written notice. What will the notice entail?

A

reasons for the proposed termination and a time for an informal conference between 2-5 working days following the employee’s receipt of notice

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111
Q

Special Employee’s termination procedure- Prior to the proposed termination the employee shall be suspended without pay pending the outcome of informal conference and shall concurrently or immediately thereafter receive written notice. What will the notice entail?

A

reasons for the proposed termination and a time for an evidentiary hearing between 2-20 working days following the employee’s receipt of notice in front of the charter officer

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112
Q

After a Special Employee’s evidentiary hearing for termination the Charter Officer’s written decision to terminate or not to terminate must be rendered when and how long does the employee have to appeal?

A

10 days for decision and 60 days after that to appeal

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113
Q

If an employee is aggrieved at termination they have how many days to serve notice to pursue a grievance to the charter officer and within what time frame shall the charter officer hold an evidentiary hearing?

A

10 days to grieve and within 30 days for a hearing

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114
Q

After an employee’s termination hearing how long does the charter officer have to render their decision and how long does the employee have to appeal it?

A

20 days for a decision and then 60 days to appeal

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115
Q

The Code of Conduct is not intended to supersede departmental rules and regulations approved by the Charter Officer, such as police and fire employees, but is intended to supplement them. True or False

A

True

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116
Q

For progressive discipline the department head will not consider prior infractions of the same rule which occurred more than how many years previously, except in discharge cases in which the overall disciplinary record of the employee may be taken into consideration

A

2 years

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117
Q

Members may issue parking citations to what vehicles?

A

vehicles illegally parked on a city street, city right of way, thoroughfare, or other locations where the public has a right to travel by motor vehicle (not a private parking lot)

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118
Q

A vehicle parked for 72 hours without being moved is always considered an abandoned vehicle. True or False

A

False

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119
Q

A vehicle that appears to be incapable under its own power of safe operation upon a public street, and/or vehicle not having a current vehicle registration tag properly attached.

A

abandoned vehicle

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120
Q

Vehicles left for excessive periods and are cited after 72 hours and still remain unmoved and do not fit the classification of abandoned can only be reticketed when?

A

every subsequent 72 hours

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121
Q

Who should primarily deal with abandoned vehicles

A

city codes enforcement

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122
Q

Department members should not tow vehicles from private property unless:

A

the vehicle is stolen, evidence, instrumentality of a crime or the vehicle is determined to be dangerous and immediate removal is indicated

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123
Q

What documentation is needed when you tow a vehicle?

A

tow report, tow receipt, and citation (affixed to vehicle being towed)

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124
Q

What are examples of property of value when conducting an inventory search of a vehicle being towed?

A

camera, firearm, money

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125
Q

If the GPD Tow Rotation List is utilized the member should do what when the wrecker arrives?

A

confirm the tow company dispatched is the one that showed up, confirm tow truck driver has the proper permit, confirm the tow truck has property inspection sticker, inspect the scene and makes sure tow truck driver cleaned up the debris, confirm tow truck driver secured vehicle using straps and lights, obtain a receipt, and provide wrecker info to the owner of vehicle

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126
Q

Vehicles that are used for specific duties that do not primarily involve traffic enforcement (pick up trucks, golfcarts)

A

Unconventional fleet police vehicles

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127
Q

If a offender is booked into the jail on DWLSR charge using a traffic citation, what else needs to be done?

A

an incident report to document the handcuffing and transport

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128
Q

Department members should not engage in safety and regulatory activities pertaining to trucks and carriers. What is responsible for conducting safety inspections and enforcement?

A

The Florida Department of Transportation’s Motor Carrier Compliance in Ocala, FL

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129
Q

If you complete a traffic stop in plain clothes what must be noted on the warning or citation?

A

how you were identified as an officer (badge, GPD jacket, etc)

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130
Q

United States and state legislators may be issued civil traffic citations or criminal traffic citations if the person is released. True or False

A

True

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131
Q

Regardless of the level of immunity from criminal arrest, foreign diplomats/consular officers may be issued citations for non-criminal, traffic infractions. True or False

A

True

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132
Q

Who does a member submit a traffic checkpoint proposal to?

A

Operations Bureau commander via the chain

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133
Q

During a traffic checkpoint can you run a license or a wanted check of the driver?

A

No unless the officer has reasonable grounds that a violation has been or is being committed.

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134
Q

The PIO should be notified of a traffic checkpoint in sufficient time to publicly provide notice at least how many hours before the event?

A

24 hours

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135
Q

The supervisor in charge of the traffic checkpoint operation should submit an after action report to the operations bureau commander no later than how many days after the checkpoint?

A

10 days

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136
Q

While on duty status, employees are prohibited from using privately owned property to engage in personal use of social media. True or False

A

True

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137
Q

Employees are prohibited from using city of Gainesville or GPD property (whether on duty or not) to engage in personal use of social media. True or False

A

True

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138
Q

Department members wishing to have an undercover social media account must do the following:

A

get written approval from the Police Chief or his designee prior to engaging in such activity, provide their supervisor with username, password, and email account associated to each account, supervisors should file this at the bureau level

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139
Q

Any requests for a posting which contains photographs or videos of non-department members which are not related to a criminal case shall include what?

A

a City of Gainesville Photograph waiver

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140
Q

Photographs of suspects (whom probable cause exists) shall not be released without the permission of who?

A

the assigned detective, his/her supervising bureau commander, and/or the PIO

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141
Q

Juvenile arrestee information may not be released by PIO unless the exemptions exist:

A

felony, 3 or more misdemeanor violations, transferred to adult court, taken into custody for violation of law subject to the provisions of 985.227/2/b, transferred to adult system but sentenced to the juvenile system

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142
Q

For victims of agg batt, agg stalking, harassment, and DV what information is exempt from disclosure

A

home and work phone, home and business address, and personal assets

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143
Q

Traffic crash investigations are exempt from release to public for a period of how many days the report was filed?

A

60 days

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144
Q

To provide confidential information not authorized to receive it or to receive.obtain confidential information not authorized to receive it is what degree crime?

A

felony of the third degree

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145
Q

With the approval of the ranking supervisor in charge of an investigation and the PIO the media may be allowed to enter after the crime scene has been secured, the area has been searched, and the preservation and processing of all evidence has been completed. True or False

A

True

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146
Q

Once the crime scene investigation has been completed, media access is a matter beween media and who?

A

the property owner

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147
Q

The term “hate crime” does not refer to a criminal offense itself and is only used for what?

A

classifying the degree of the criminal penalty

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148
Q

Who is responsible for submitting a monthly report of hate crimes to FDLE?

A

The records division

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149
Q

Who is the point of contact for support, advice, and information regarding harassment issues and complaints?

A

the personnel services division commander/designee

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150
Q

Members can report harassment to who internally?

A

supervisor, personnel commander, internal affairs commander, and the chief of police

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151
Q

Members can report harassment to who outside of GPD?

A

HR, City of Gainesville Equal Opportunity Office, the State or Federal Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

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152
Q

Who retains the maintenance, service, and calibration records for speed measuring devices?

A

traffic unit supervisor

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153
Q

How often do vehicle speedometers need to be calibrated?

A

twice a year

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154
Q

A member who operates a laser unit must conduct what test prior to and after using a laser unit?

A

internal check, display check, distance and alignment check, and sight alignment check

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155
Q

What is required to carry a firearm other than department issued?

A

approved through chain of command, approval from training and education division commander, and completion of qualification course

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156
Q

Personnel in plain cloths assignment whose duties do not routinely include making arrests may carry an approved, inspected off duty or secondary survival firearm which has been inspected and approved by the Training and Education Division Commander in lieu of their issued weapon. True or False

A

True

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157
Q

In order to carry a personally owned shotgun on duty what is the requirements?

A

approved by Training and Education Division commander, must meet requirements, an member must pass a qualification course

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158
Q

In order to carry a personally owned rifle on duty what are the requirements?

A

Approved by Training and Education Division commander, must meet requirements, pass department rifle training, proficiency, and qualification course, rifle must be zereoed and zero target kept on file by training

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159
Q

What is required before a member destroys an injured animal?

A

supervisor approval when practical and reasonable attempts have been made to request assistance from a support agency (Humane Society, ANimal control, etc)

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160
Q

Who has to carry chemical weapon (spray)?

A

uniform patrol on their duty belt, detectives dont have to wear on their person but must have it immediately available, administrative personnel to not have to carry it all whether in uniform or not

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161
Q

What is chemical post exposure follow up?

A

remove individual from the area, flush exposed areas, attempt to establish verbal rapport, provide emergency medical attention for extreme reactions, monitor subject

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162
Q

What are the restrictions for impact weapon use?

A

do not intentionally hit a subject in the head, solar plexus, kidneys, coccyx(tail bone), or groin unless deadly force is justified

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163
Q

What are the requirements to carry a taser?

A

10 hour course with 1 hour of annual training

164
Q

Intentional taser probe deployment should not target what areas?

A

head, neck, or groin

165
Q

What is the primary point of aim for taser deployment to the front of the subject shall be where?

A

abdomen

166
Q

After the taser deployment what should happen with the taser and deployed cartridges?

A

direct supervisor should conduct a taser download and forward and email to Training and Education Division Commander and the Chief Inspector incident by email confirming that the taser download is complete. cartidge goes into evidence

167
Q

Procedure for Accidental DIscharge of taser where no property damage or injury

A

IOC to Training via Chain of Command

168
Q

Procedure for accidental discharge of taser where there is property damage or injury

A

Case report, direct supervisor will complete AIR and blue team entry

169
Q

Procedure for accidental discharge strikes a member

A

city accident analysis form, IOC to training via chain of command

170
Q

A supervisor may issue a new cartridge for an accidental discharge of taser after what?

A

IOC completed and forwarded by member

171
Q

Members may carry on their persons one additional non-survival tool (muli-tool or leatherman’s tool or pocket knife) without what?

A

they do not have to submit a request to carry/use non issued equipment

172
Q

For secondary survival weapons, the holster must have what?

A

safety strap, snap, or internal design such that it securely fastens the firearm and covers the trigger so that the gun cannot be fired when secured or while being drawn

173
Q

What type of shotguns are prohibited?

A

shotguns with detachable magazines

174
Q

How long are the taser wires for the taser cartridges that we carry?

A

25 ft

175
Q

Does the member have to provide the ammunition for approved personally owned duty weapons or secondary weapons?

A

only if it is a caliber not normally approved for primary duty use

176
Q

What is the qualification course for on duty and off duty/secondary firearms?

A

minimum 40 round course of fire for on-duty firearms, minimum 20 round course for secondary and off duty firearms

177
Q

If the Chief of Police and or Major or Captain elects to carry a baton and or chemical spray while in uniform he/she will be required to satisfactorily demonstrate proficiency. True or False

A

True

178
Q

Members must be retrained and qualify at least how often for other less lethal weapons and weaponless control techniques?

A

biennially

179
Q

Sworn members who have failed to qualify with their duty firearms during annual qualifications and/or have received remedial training will be scheduled for reinspection within what time frame?

A

three months or 90 days

180
Q

Who is responsible for inventory tracking?

A

bureau commanders

181
Q

City inventory requires annual inventory of items that are valued at what AND have a useful life expectancy of what time frame?

A

$2000 and useful life of one year or longer

182
Q

What are the required inventory items for gainesville police department inventory?

A

firearms, pagers, cell phones, laptop computers, and vehicles and items that are critical to bureau units (example surveillance equipment) or are valued in excess of $500

183
Q

Inventory records shall be retained at the bureau level and made available to who?

A

Chief’s office, fiscal office, or the support services division upon request

184
Q

What is operational readiness?

A

includes care and cleaning, preventative maintenance, repair, workability, and responsiveness

185
Q

Members called to active military duty from a reserve status for what time frame SHALL turn in all department issued equipment and property except badge and ID card.

A

three months or longer

186
Q

Members may use their department computer for personal use limited to how many minutes per week?

A

15 minutes

187
Q

To ensure appropriate compliance is occuring with computer usage what bureau will forward the monthly internet usage to each bureau commander

A

administrative services bureau

188
Q

Commander has how much time to report back to IT via IOC or email about internet usage

A

within 3 weeks

189
Q

Members who have a legitimate need to visit a site that may be considered inappropriate shall notify the Administrative Services Bureau Commander in writing within how many hours of accessing the site?

A

four hours

190
Q

How often will IT audit the departments computer system to ensure that only current employees and other authorized persons have appropriate computer access?

A

at least once a year

191
Q

Damages of any kind to the laptops require what response?

A

immediately forward an IOC to IT through supervisor and chain of command

192
Q

BWC non evidentiary data will be retained up to how many days?

A

180 days

193
Q

Can a person declined to be recorded?

A

yes when there is a reasonable expectation of privacy (example residences)

194
Q

When may a member temporarily deactivate the recording function of their BWC?

A

while completing reports, during personal discussions with other officers, when on breaks or engaged in personal activities, when on the scene of a bomb threat or explosive device, special duty assignments

195
Q

How often will a immediate supervisor randomly review at least one BWC per officer to ensure that equipment is operating properly and that officers are using the devices appropriately in accordance to policy and to identify any areas that need improvement?

A

Once a month (1 BWC and 1 In car video unless officer has only one camera and then 2 videos from what ever video source the officer has)

196
Q

Can an officer deactivate BWC when speaking with a victim of sexual assault?

A

yes once it is determined the victim has been sexually assaulted

197
Q

Officers shall make every effort to ensure that their recordings are uploaded onto the video system by utilizing the city’s wireless system within how many days of the event being recorded?

A

7 days

198
Q

Rules for viewing videos for court purposes:

A

do not burn a copy to a DVD, shall only upload to their assigned laptop, no recording should be uploaded to any website

199
Q

When two sworn members are riding in one vehicle together they will only be exempt from using the mic pack if both have a BWC. If only one has a BWC the other must still use the mic pac True or False

A

True

200
Q

Equipment uniformed members shall wear or carry:

A

handgun, two magazines, impact instrument, handcuffs and key, department ID, FL DL, radio, notepad

201
Q

Equipment non uniformed members with arrest duties shall wear or carry:

A

badge, handgun, magazine, handcuffs and handcuff key, department ID, miranda card, radio

202
Q

Equipment non uniformed members without routine arrest duties:

A

department badge, handgun, department ID, handcuffs and key

203
Q

Who determines what equipment a restricted or limited duty status employee can carry?

A

administrative services division commander

204
Q

Can on duty uniformed personnel assigned to the station carry less equipment than required for field duty?

A

yes, if approved with bureau commander

205
Q

Members who wish to request reimbursement for personally owned equipment that is lost or damaged in the line of duty shall submit an IOC within how many days of the incident?

A

7 days

206
Q

Reimbursement requested via Worker’s Compensation, if applicable, shall be submitted on the State of Florida Report of Injury Form on the date of loss or by when at the latest? What would be sent to Worker’s COmp?

A

the next business day, Prescription lenses, etc (will bear the entire cost of replacement)

207
Q

The Department may reimburse members up to how much per item for equipment that enhances their ability to perform the law enforcement function?

A

$50

208
Q

The Department may reimburse members for the loss or damaged of an approved substituted item at an amount that does not what the Department’s cost for a similar item?

A

cost does not exceed

209
Q

Low risk pursuit:

A

violator does not accelerate and/or take evasive action in the effort to avoid being stopped and the violator’s driving behavior does not place the public in any undue danger (any offense, traffic infraction, dui)

210
Q

Moderate risk pursuit:

A

Violator refuses to stop, and the violator drives at sustained speeds well above posted limits but under 85 MPH in the urban area of the city and/or under 100 MPH outside the urban area or the violator blatantly disregards traffic control devices causing danger of collision with innocent third party (agg assault w/ a weapon (other than a vehicle), agg battery, armed or occupied residential burglary, robbery, home invasion, carjacking, sexual battery, kidnapping)

211
Q

High risk pursuit:

A

High likely hood the pursuit will end in crash, driving above 85 mph in urban area and over 100 mph outside the urban area, blatantly disregards traffic control devices causing substantial danger of collision with innocent third party (murder, att murder, drive by shootings, robbery with shots fired, planting a destructive device, kidnapping or rape of a child

212
Q

For pursuit purposes a motorized vehicle is a vehicle that demonstrates the ability to travel over what mph?

A

30 mph

213
Q

Paralleling a pursuit is only permitted when what?

A

authorized by a shift supervisor during an attempt to either channel the pursuit, deploy stop sticks, or combination of both

214
Q

Both marked and unmarked fleet vehicles may initiate and participate in a pursuit. However, the unmarked fleet vehicle should relinquish as primary vehicle when possible. True or False

A

True

215
Q

What are the vehicle not authorized to engage in pursuits?

A

non descript vehicles, vehicles not equipped with emergency signal devices, forensic crime scene truck, p/u truck, explorer van, motorcycles, bicycles, armored vehicles, command vehicles. (these vehicles can be used to assure citizen safety and block intersection)

216
Q

A pursuit should be terminated if the department member loses visual contact with the violator for over how many seconds?

A

30 seconds

217
Q

Supervisor responsibility for pursuits at the time of pursuit:

A

patrol supervisor shall announce on the radio they are aware of the pursuit and authorized pursuit, once a shift commander becomes aware they shall acknowledging on the radio they are monitoring the pursuit

218
Q

Supervisor responsibility for pursuits after the pursuit:

A

assume responsibility for controlling police action at the scene, ensure adherence of policy, ensure appropriate documentation is completed, prior to the end of shift LT will email a synopsis of the pursuit to District COmmander and/or BUreau Commander and the CHief Inspector

219
Q

Who completes the pursuit review and within how many days?

A

shift commanders and within 7 days

220
Q

Chief Inspector office shall formally review pursuit incidents annually to determine if there is a pattern or trend that may indicate training needs or policy modifications and a report shall be completed and submitted to the CHief of Police by February 28 of each year. True or False

A

true

221
Q

What are approved vehicle tactices?

A

channeling, stopsticks, PIT, boxing in, directed contact, ramming

222
Q

A method for directing a suspect vehicle through a pre-positioned “channel” of marked patrol vehicles to cause the vehicle to either run over stop sticks or direct it into a progressively narrowing passageway or lane location on the roadway (three and six marked units used for this)

A

channeling

223
Q

A vehicle tire deflating device that may be used as an aid in the termination of a vehicle pursuits. Deployment is most effective when used on roads with concrete or asphalt surface and should not be deployed in or within 1.2 mile or less approaching a curve.

A

Stop sticks

224
Q

Stop sticks go missing, stolen, or lost it should be documented in a report and reported to ?

A

FCIC/NCIC

225
Q

A moving vehicle tactic that consists of intentional use of a law enforcement vehicle to make controlled contact with a fleeing vehicle using a specific technique designed to force it from its course of travel. It is not likely to cause serious bodily injury when conducted at speeds less than 45 mph.

A

PIT

226
Q

PIT used in speeds in excess of 45 mph is considered what?

A

deadly force

227
Q

A moving vehicle tactic that basically consists of using law enforcement vehicles to form a tight box around a suspect vehicle so it can be forced to slow down or stop. includes a three vehicle technique and four vehicle technique

A

boxing in technique

228
Q

Which officer takes control of the situation after a suspect vehicle has been stopped using the boxing in technique?

A

officer on the left side of suspect vehicle

229
Q

A moving vehicle tactic that consists of low speed ramming of a suspect vehicle designed to physically disable the vehicle but not intentionally physically incapacitate the suspect or occupants. It must be stopped or travelling under 20 MPH and the officer’s vehicle must be going no more than 20 MPH. Considered intermediate vehicle force tactic

A

directed contact

230
Q

A moving vehicle tactic that consist of intentionally using a GPD vehicle as a weapon to ram a suspect vehicle at speed greater than 20 MPH to immediately either terminate a pursuit by disabling the vehicle an/or to incapacitate a dangerous subject. Always considered deadly force

A

ramming

231
Q

Roadblocks are never to be used in high speed situations. Any speed over what is considered high speed?

A

20 MPH

232
Q

An employee injured in a vehicle crash who was not wearing safety restraints may have their worker’s comp benefits reduced by what percentage?

A

25%

233
Q

Roadblocks are not normally used but can be under what exceptions?

A

deadly force, life in imminent jeopardy, traffic checkpoints

234
Q

Ridealongs should be requested how far in advance?

A

two weeks

235
Q

Most ridealongs will occur during day or evening hours it midnight shift hours are requested who approves it?

A

district or shift commander

236
Q

Members shall not take traffic enforcement action unless their vehicles have installed emergency equipment and the member is in a police uniform or is readily identified as police officer. True or False

A

True

237
Q

Upon completing the workday members can get approval from who to park their vehicle at the assigned locations like the Oaks Mall, Airport, Hospital, etc?

A

Administrative Services Bureau Commander

238
Q

Members who receive a parking ticket can submit an explanation within how many hours of the ticket being issued by the official form or IOC?

A

72 hours

239
Q

Any person who cooperates with law enforcement and through such efforts is seeking to improve his or her status in the criminal justice system.

A

confidential informant

240
Q

Any person who does not meet the criteria for a confidential informant (not motivated to provide info because facing criminal charges) and who provides valuable information to leo in return for monetary compensation.

A

confidential source

241
Q

Any single expenditure of confidential funds which exceeds this amount must receive the approval of the CHief of Police or designee?

A

$5000

242
Q

How often will an internal audit be conducted to account for the Department’s confidential cash activities and forwarding the results to the Chief of police?

A

at least quarterly

243
Q

A person who wants to be a CI history will be considered. What will crimes will be paid special attention?

A

crimes of dishonesty, violence, and crimes of a sexual nature

244
Q

What forms does a CI need to fill out and sign?

A

Informant Code of Conduct and Rules of Payment, Consent to Intercept Communications Affidavit, Release of Liability, Understanding of Entrapment

245
Q

Who is the only person allowed to release any confidential informant information outside of the normal working environment?

A

IB commander

246
Q

What is the first priority in an agency operational decisions and actions regarding the use of confidential informants is to what?

A

preserve the safety of the confidential informant/sources, leo, the target, and the public

247
Q

Although juveniles are rarely used as confidential informants, if one is needed, members shall do the following prior to using the juvenile:

A

obtain the permission of the IB commander, complete a waiver that includes signature of parent or guardian, notify a supervisor before and after meeting alone with a juvenile of the opposite gender

248
Q

Where will the copy of the investigations expense report be kept?

A

confidential funds file

249
Q

Unexpended expenditures procedure

A

if the confidential funds are returned the account is credited and no further paperwork is required

250
Q

expended expenditures procedure

A

confidential funds custodian will enter the expended amount and credit the returned amount (if any) in the account ledger

251
Q

Expenditure time limits and receipt procedures:

A

within 7 days unless SID and DTF they have 30 days (includes days off and holiday/vacation leave) of the advance to give the funds custodian the unexpended funds, a reciept, written notification from supervisor that extension is approved (additional 7 days except SID/DTF 30 days)

252
Q

What must be included on the confidential source log?

A

date of payment, amount of payment, name of CS, related CR

253
Q

A motor vehicle that is a truck with at least six tires in contact with the road service, a vehicle displaying a hazardous material placard, a vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers including the driver.

A

commercial vehicle

254
Q

All crashes involving city vehicles will be photographed unless what?

A

employee from the city involved department arrives and takes photos

255
Q

Members shall complete a Long Report for all traffic crash investigations except when:

A

crashes occur quasi-public parking lots

256
Q

Traffic citations shall not be issued for parking lot crashes except in these circumstances:

A

criminal traffic, personal injury, death

257
Q

What are examples of private parking lots for the purposes of traffic crashes?

A

gated residential communities, employee only parking lots, school and other institutional property (tacachale)

258
Q

What shall a supervisor do for crashes on the interstate in city jurisdiction?

A

see if FHP can respond through CCC, if not GPD will work it

259
Q

When shall FHP investigate a crash as a result of a pursuit:

A

involves a fatality, involves serious bodily injury, could result in criminal charges against member (if FHP refuses shift commander decides if GPD or another jurisdiction will investigate)

260
Q

FHP will only respond to crashes in incorporated municipalities if there is a jurisdictional dispute or to what?

A

assist with a crash involving a fatality

261
Q

Crash reports that reveal the identity, home or employment telephone numbers, home or employment addresses or other personal information regarding the parties involved are to be held confidential for a period of how many days from the date the report was filed?

A

60 days

262
Q

What is a noise disturbance?

A

disturbs a reasonable person of normal sensitivities, exceeds the sound level limits of the city ordinance and/or, is plainly audible

263
Q

What is a reasonable time for non vehicular sound emitters?

A

15 minutes

264
Q

What is a reasonable time for vehicular sound emitters?

A

2 calendar days

265
Q

A sound level meter shall be field-calibrated before and after each set of measurements and at least once per hour during measurement. True or False

A

True

266
Q

The city requires that sound be measured using what?

A

a-weighting network unit of measure [dB(A)]

267
Q

Outdoor measurements should not be made under what circumstances:

A

when the wind exceeds 12 mph, without properly attached wind screen, under any condition which exceeds 90% humidity (rain, snow, fog, condensation)

268
Q

Sound must be measured with a meter at least how far away from any ground, wall, floor, ceiling, roof, or place surface?

A

3 feet

269
Q

Sound meter reading should not be taken near where?

A

radio or transmission towers, electric transformers, or power lines

270
Q

The calibrator must be re-calibrated at least once a year a and the sound level meter must be re-certified how often?

A

every two years by manufacturer or calibration lab with a working standard directly traceable to the National Institute of Standards of Technology

271
Q

If noise disturbance is caused by an animal, the noise will be considered to be unabated, or abated and reoccurring; if the officer hears the same noise after more than how many minutes have elapsed since issuing a warning notice?

A

10 minutes

272
Q

According to GPD’s noise warning policy, an officer may issue the driver of the vehicle(and owner of the vehicle, if present) a city of Gainesville Noise Warning Notice to Correct Violation or an Alachua COunty Uniform Code Citation. True or False

A

True

273
Q

What are the consequences of noise violations?

A

first violation - warning
second violation - alachua County uniform code citation (fine double the amount on schedule)
third violation - alachua county uniform code citation with mandatory court date
fourth violation - charge violator criminally
fifth and subsequent violation - charge violator criminal/physical arrest

274
Q

Public nuisance is any structure or portion thereof or any piece of land where on at least how many occasions within a 6 month period as the site of unlawful sale, delivery, manufacture, or cultivation of a controlled substance.

A

3 occasions

275
Q

Public nuisance is any structure or portion thereof or any piece of land where on at least how many occasions within a 6 month period as the site of unlawful sale, delivery, manufacture, or cultivation of a controlled substance and at least one occasion within the time frame the site of a felony possession of a controlled substance.

A

2 occasions

276
Q

Public nuisance is any structure or portion thereof or any piece of land where on at least how many occasions within a 6 month period as the site of violation fo FSS 796 relating to prostitution or prostitution related activity.

A

3 occasions

277
Q

Public nuisance is any structure or portion thereof or any piece of land where on at least how many occasions within a 6 month period as the site where a criminal street gang conducted a pattern of street gang activity.

A

3 occasions

278
Q

Public nuisance is any structure or portion thereof or any piece of land where on at least how many occasions within a 6 month period as the site of violation of FSS 812.019 relating to dealing in stolen property.

A

3 occasions

279
Q

Who should members contact and provide with necessary information to move forward with nuisance abatement process?

A

codes enforcements

280
Q

The act of applying or incorporating personal, societal, or organizational biases and/or stereotypes when making decisions and/or taking police actions, which occurs when the decision or actions is based solely on a person’s race, ethnicity, background, gender, sexual orientation, religion, economic status, age, culture or other personal characteristics rather than on the behavior of the individual who is engaging, has engaged, or about to engage in criminal activity.

A

bias-based profiling

281
Q

The identification of a person or group of people by gender, age, race, and/or other characteristics, which is intended to identify a particular type of perpetrator, thereby narrowing the field of potential suspects in major criminal investigations.

A

criminal profiling

282
Q

Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention refers to this as the disproportionate number of minority youth who come into contact with the juvenile justice system. (Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 2002)

A

disproportionate minority contact (DMC)

283
Q

Bias that reflects a person’s consciously held belief or attitude.

A

explicit bias

284
Q

An automatic association people make between groups of people and stereotypes about those groups

A

implicit bias

285
Q

The W. Haywood Burns Institute for Juvenile Justice Fairness and Equity refer to this as the unequal treatment of youth of color in the juvenile justice system.

A

racial ethnic disparity (R.E.D.)

286
Q

What are the two main procedures involving citizen contact?

A

citizen contact and “stop and frisk” (terry stop)

287
Q

Members shall document all stops that result in a frisk if the incident does not result in an incident or supplement report, members shall document the encounter in an FI card titled what?

A

Stop and Frisk

288
Q

Members shall not use force to accomplish the taking of a photograph, nor shall they relocated any person. Photographs may be taken freely under the following conditions:

A

The photo is a candid shot, and the person is not forced or expected to pose for the photograph, or the person voluntarily looks at/towards the camera while the photo is being taken, or the person gives their consent to having a photo taken

289
Q

If an officer is involved in an incident of biased based policing depending on the nature and seriousness of the incident, supervisors may provide the involved officer with non-punitive standardized training block of instruction approved by who?

A

Chief of Police

290
Q

Which office shall maintain data relating specifically to complaints of biased based policing?

A

IA

291
Q

A crash/incident which results in the following: Non-disabling damage to one or more vehicles, AND total property damage to all involved vehicles/assets is less than $2500, AND no injury

A

minor crash

292
Q

A crash/incident which results in the following: minor injury not requiring immediate evacuation from the scene, or disabling damage to any involved vehicles causing it to be towed from the scene, or total property damage to all involved vehicles/assets is $2500 or greater but less than $10,000

A

enhanced crash

293
Q

A crash/incident which results in the following: death, or serious bodily injury (defined as needing immediate evacuation from scene to medical facility), or total property damage to all involved vehicles/asset is equal or greater than $10,000

A

major crash

294
Q

A damaged property report may be taken, in lieu of traffic crash report if the following conditions are met:

A

the incident occurred within the city limits, and only city property is damaged, and damage is less than $2500, and there are no injuries

295
Q

FHP shall be requested to investigate traffic crashes/incidents involving department vehicles driven by sworn member if:

A

it involves a fatality, serious bodily injury, could result in criminal charges against member, vehicle pursuit that meets above criteria (FHP chooses whether they respond)

296
Q

If a citation is not issued to a member in a preventable crash the meets the criteria, the supervisor shall do what?

A

document the reason and forward an explanation to the traffic unit commander in the vehicle fleet module. traffic commander can order a supervisor to issue a citation (supervisor should not issue citation if crash is the result of a pursuit)

297
Q

Photographs shall be taken of traffic crashes/incident and damaged property involving department vehicles and shall be submitted no later than when?

A

the employee’s work week in which the incident occurred

298
Q

The on scene supervisor of a member shall notify Risk management contemporaneous to the incident when a department vehicle is involved in an incident which causes one or more of the following:

A

injury or death to a non-city employee, life threatening injuries or death to a city employee

299
Q

Current conditions are as follows that activate DFWP after a crash:

A

accidents involving death, injury to employee requiring medical treatment off-site, issuance of a moving violation, and/or damage greating than $2500 when employee can’t be absolved of fault

300
Q

The supervisor shall document whether the violation triggered DFWP mandatory testing as well as whether the employee was sent and reported as ordered. This shall be documented where?

A

Notes section on page 3 of the Fleet Vehicle Accident Module

301
Q

Can an employee be ordered to write a statement about regarding a traffic crash they’ve been involved in?

A

No

302
Q

If an employee is involved in traffic crash the investigating supervisor shall complete an entry into the FVA module and email it to the traffic unit commander by when?

A

end of shift if needed the supervisor can get permission from Bureau commander to extend up to 48 hours from the incident

303
Q

Who determines if a crash is preventable or non preventablle?

A

traffic unit commander

304
Q

Preventable crashes get forwarded by the traffic unit commander to who?

A

IA

305
Q

How many points for minor crash under $2500 total damage

A

1 point

306
Q

How many points for enhanced crash at or over $2500 total damage

A

2 points

307
Q

How many points for enhanced crash with injury or disabling damage

A

3 points

308
Q

How many points for major crash

A

4 points

309
Q

Point totals and discipline shall be within what time frame?

A

rolling 36 month period

310
Q

Traffic unit commander shall compile a report annually by January 30 that summarizes what?

A

statistical crash data, trends or causes of crashes, targeted training activities

311
Q

Members shall do what for unknown or non criminal damage to a vehicle? And what should supervisors do?

A

email supervisor with a statement of how and when the damaged occurred . supervisors shall document any damage to GPD vehicle via the FVA and attach photos and email the entry to GPD fleet manager

312
Q

Is county jail a baker act/marchman act receiving facility?

A

no

313
Q

The Baker Act certificate can be completed by what authorized professionals and within what time frame of observing the behavior?

A

physician, psychologist, psychiatric nurse, clinical social worker / within the preceding 48 hours

314
Q

GPD is the designated agency for transportation within the city limits form baker acts when:

A

an ex parte order has been issued (members of GPD can legally serve ex parte orders however it is a civil service and as practice the court only gives them to ASO), or an authorized professional has issued a baker act certification

315
Q

GPD will only transports those under an initial baker act except when what?

A

supervisor approves transporting a subject from a hospital to a receiving facility when the hospital requests law enforcement assistance due to the subject being violent or will it is believed they will become violent

316
Q

Members of the GPD shall not transport subjects who hae already had an initial evaluation and need transport for treatment purposes. True or False

A

True

317
Q

What from must be signed from medical transport personnel when they accept a baker or marchman act?

A

CF-MH 3100

318
Q

A member taking a person into protective custody for involuntary examination for mental illness shall complete what forms?

A

BA3052A and CF-MH 3100

319
Q

If a subject is violent and they are refused at a detoxification center or refused at the hospital because they are violent where may a member transport them?

A

ACSO Jail

320
Q

The nearest relative of a minor in protective custody must be notified by LEO as must the nearest relative of an adult unless what happens?

A

the adult requests that there be no notification

321
Q

The following persons may request an emergency involuntary admission for an adult for substance abuse impairment:

A

certifying physician, person’s spouse or guardian, any relative of the person, any other responsible adult who has personal knowledge of the persons substance abuse impairment

322
Q

The following persons may request an emergency involuntary admissions for a minor for substance abuse impairment:

A

parents, guardian, legal custodian

323
Q

A receiving facility may request that GPD transport an uncontrollable person in custody under the Marchman act to jail. When will GPD do this?

A

When GPD was the agency that initiated the Marchman Act and the person does not need emergency medical treatment

324
Q

The following will be completed by the member who takes an intoxicated person into custody without consent;

A

the appropriate DCF forms and GPD incident report

325
Q

What type of consent is preferred when asking to search a residence?

A

written consent under normal circumstances (documented in a report)

326
Q

What type of consent is preferred when asking to search a vehicle?

A

written consent is preferred but verbal is acceptable (it should be audio/video recorded and documented in report or an FI under “Search”)

327
Q

What type of consent is preferred when asking to search a person?

A

written consent is preferred but verbal is acceptable (it should be audio/video recorded and documented in report or an FI under “Search”)

328
Q

A search incident to arrest officers may NOT search the trunk (luggage compartment) unless independent probable cause exists OR consent is given. True or False

A

True

329
Q

Can an officer search a trunk if there is probable cause that the vehicle contains fruits or instrumentalities of the crime or contraband?

A

yes

330
Q

An officer may search the interior of a vehicle incident to arrest for what reasons?

A

officer safety (if arrestee is unsecured), to prevent the destruction or loss of evidence, to prevent escape

331
Q

What are the exigent circumstances that may justify entry into a premise without a warrant?

A

person in danger, a felony is being committed, evidence other than cannabis is being destroyed, possibility of imminent use of a dangerous weapon

332
Q

If a person in custody reports having contraband (other than a weapon) in their undergarments, the person should be brought to GPD or DOJ sally port after notifying a supervisor. The item should then be removed on camera and it should be documented in the report. True or False

A

True

333
Q

Search incident to an arrest may be documented on a NTA or criminal UTC in lieu of a report in what instances?

A

open containers, possession of alcohol less than 21 if offender is over 18, possession of alcohol in city park, and when a UTC serves as a charging document

334
Q

What is the standard that would require officers to obtain circumstantial evidence beyond the mere sight/smell of marijuana in order to establish probable cause for a search?

A

odor plus standard or the plus one standard

335
Q

It is unlawful for a person to cultivate hemp in this state without a license issued by the department. True or False

A

True

336
Q

In all deaths except for these will the on scene supervisor be responsible for notifying the ME office?

A

criminal homicide/suicide

337
Q

Who does the investigating member of a death notify if they are unable to notify next of kin by the end of shift?

A

shift commander

338
Q

Who can a dead person’s property be released to if it cannot be released to a family member?

A

landlord, funeral home, or secured/stored by GPD if incident supervisor deems it appropriate

339
Q

A family member of a deceased person who receives property shall sign what form and it will be forwarded to who?

A

Property Release of Deceased and Hold Harmless Agreement and forward to records

340
Q

Do custodial parents of a dead juvenile have to sign the property release of deceased and Hold Harmless Agreement?

A

No

341
Q

A two pronged intervention process that features a lethality screening tool and an accompanying protocol referral that provides direction for members to initiate appropriate action based on the results of the screening process

A

lethality assessment program

342
Q

An eleven question checklist designed to predict danger and lethality to a domestic/dating violence victim.

A

Domestic/Dating Violence Lethality Screen for First Responders (DVL)

343
Q

The department will collect DV data and forward a report to who?

A

Maryland Network Against Domestic Violence

344
Q

What is the only exceptions to not making a DV arrest when there is probable cause?

A

juvenile sibling on sibling or juvenile on parent or guardian

345
Q

Records shall send reports of domestic and dating violence to Peaceful Paths within how many hours of the incident?

A

24 hours

346
Q

Instead of arresting juvenile offenders who commit acts of domestic violence against family members a member must refer the case to who? where can the juvenile member be transported to?

A

CDS (Family and Behavioral Health Services) / Interface

347
Q

Officers should arrest juvenile domestic violence offenders when:

A

the harm caused or threatened would be agg battery or any other felony, pattern of violence against the victim, pattern of violence towards other family members in the home, previous efforts to refer to CDS were not successful

348
Q

If a member is involved in a DV incident a supervisor shall be dispatched and what should the shift commander do?

A

respond to the scene, notify chain of command, notify IA

349
Q

Members who are the subjects of injuctions may be referred to what program when the status of the injunction is changed from temporary to permanent?

A

EAP

350
Q

All training must be approved by who?

A

operational skills unit

351
Q

Who serves as the infection control officer?

A

the personnel services division commander/designee

352
Q

What type of exposure is one where it is likely that potentially infectious materials penetrated a person’s bodily membranes?

A

significant exposure

353
Q

Significant exposure requirements regarding HIV testing:

A

exposure to blood or bodily fluids through needle stick, instrument, or sharps or human bite, exposure of mucous membranes to visible blood or bodily fluids, exposure of skin to visible blood or bodily fluids

354
Q

Eligible new employees shall be offered vaccines after receipt of training within how many working days of initial assignment?

A

10 working days

355
Q

Can they decline Hep B vaccine?

A

yes but have to sign a form

356
Q

Members are issued how many bags for contaminated equipment?

A

two bags (one large one small)

357
Q

Sharp containers are available where?

A

operations area

358
Q

What color are the plastic containers or bags distributed for the disposal of NON evidentiary bio hazardous materials?

A

red

359
Q

How do you clean heavily contaminated equipment?

A

clean with soap, then a broad spectrum germicidal disinfection solution, allow to air dry

360
Q

An exposure when a member is spit, coughed, and/or sneezed on, or gets blood or other potential contaminants on him or her at a point not likely to have entered the body. Member should report to EHS as soon as possible but within 24 hours or Monday morning if exposure happened over the weekend.

A

low risk exposure

361
Q

What hospital should members go that have had a significant exposure?

A

NFRMC

362
Q

HIV protocol dictates that treatment is received within two hours but no later than how many hours after the exposure?

A

4 hours

363
Q

Any exposure needs to be documented on an Accident Analysis Form and submitted by the end of the day or if exigent circumstances exist at least within what time frame?

A

24 hours

364
Q

The supervisor needs to send the Accident Analysis Form to who and what other form does he/she need to complete?

A

personnel commander, risk management, and EHS as well as notify the Infection Control Department of the hospital where the member was treated / Request for Infections Disease Testing form

365
Q

Medical facilities are required to notify potentially exposed emergency response personnel within how many hours pursuant to a confirmed diagnosis of a qualifying disease of a transported patient?

A

48 hours

366
Q

Can a patient be tested for HIV without consent and what has to happen for them to test?

A

yes, member must first undergo testing or test negative within past 6 months, patient must be afforded the opportunity to refuse or consent after counseling, the receiving physician must document that a significant exposure has occurred and the test is medically necessary (court order required if above conditions are not met)

367
Q

A member should not interview the child in a child abuse investigation unless what?

A

suspect is on scene and will not be easily located at a later date, there is concern the parent will not protect the child

368
Q

If there is a possibility that a drug was administered to perpetrate a crime, the officer must request that a gray top vial of blood as well as what be taken?

A

urine sample

369
Q

This is a system established to review repeat instances in which an employee is involved in a use of force or named in a misconduct complaint so that timely intervention if warranted can occur. (3 or more complaints of employee misconduct within 6 month period)

A

Early Warning System

370
Q

Who will ensure that an administrative review is conducted on all instances where a member’s actions result in death, or serious bodily injury?

A

Chief of Police or designee

371
Q

Per FSS 112.532 the investigation must be completed within how many days after the date the agency received notice of the alleged misconduct?

A

180 days (exception if the Chief determines that an internal investigation would be compromised)

372
Q

DOes a Bureau, Division, or Shift/Sector Commander have the authority to impose an emergency suspension with pay until the next business day against a member?

A

yes, if it appears such action is in the best interest of the department

373
Q

The Chief of Police may place an employee on administrative duty or relieve and employee from duty with pay during an investigation when:

A

evaluating physical or psychological fitness for duty, investigating an allegation criminal in nature, investigating an allegation of a policy violation for which dismissal is a penalty

374
Q

If a department member is arrested or is the subject of an arrest warrant, the department member who initiates or learns of the warrant or arrest has to notify their Bureau commander when?

A

immediately

375
Q

When a Bureau commander finds out a member has been arrested or is the subject of an arrest warrant the bureau commander shall do what?

A

verify and gather relevant information, notify and provide pertinent details to the Chief and IA, ensure that a personnel complaint in the form of an AIR is completed and forwarded

376
Q

Anonymous complaints shall be investigated only verbally and preliminary unless and until what is found?

A

corroborating evidence

377
Q

Generally, no action will taken on an anonymous complaint unless what?

A

person is willing to submit a signed, written statement, the allegation, if sustained, would constitute criminal conduct, there is independence evidence available

378
Q

All anonymous complaints will be documented in the form of an IOC to who?

A

IA commander

379
Q

A person who has filed three or more unfounded or unsustained complaints within two years is considered to be what?

A

chronic complainants

380
Q

Chronic complaints will be process in accordance with the following procedures:

A

IA will conduct prelim investigation, IA will determine if the complaint is valid or non-credible

381
Q

What type of infractions are identified by a supervisor and do not involve a third party complainant?

A

Performance

382
Q

What are examples of performance infractions?

A

vehicle crashes, unsatisfactory appearance, failure to advise department in writing within 10 days of change of address, etc

383
Q

What is the performance infraction process?

A

completed on the AIR supervisor will check the performance infraction box on page 2, handled by the member’s immediate supervisor in a timely fashion, forwarded to the bureau/unit commander for approval

384
Q

For the purposes of determining corrective/disciplinary action, the following are considered minor offenses:

A

3 or more performance infractions in a 12 month period or four or more within a 36 month period, failure to report back in service immediately after completing an assignment, failure to provide prompt courteous service, inefficiency in job performance rudeness, etc

385
Q

For the purpose of determining corrective/disciplinary action, the following are considered major offenses:

A

a major vehicle crash, failure to appear at a quasi judicial or non criminal proceeding more than twice in any 12 month period, fta in criminal proceeding, absence 3 times within a 30 day period, damage or loss to weapon $1000 through gross neglect, damage or loss of department property valued at less than $1000 through gross negligence

386
Q

Who may be assigned preliminary inquiries and investigations of minor violations that may result in the issuance of corrective action, up to and including written warning?

A

line supervisors

387
Q

Who may be assigned preliminary inquiries, and cases, classified as minor that may result in the issuance of corrective action up to and and including an employee notice without suspension, demotion, or termination?

A

Bureau/Unit/Shift Commanders

388
Q

A Request for Expedited Disposition of Internal Investigation (REDII) is a process offered to employees who do not contest the pertinent facts of an allegation of employee misconduct. What are the required form for the process?

A

REDII form, REDII informational sheet, a signed LEO BIll of Rights from, Garrity form, and signed Admonition for Member Under Investigation form

389
Q

The employee requesting a REDII must be signed within how many calendar days?

A

7 days

390
Q

Who must accept and approve the REDII form?

A

bureau commander, ia commander, and the Chief

391
Q

Once IA completes the conclusion of the investigation they shall send the report to the Bureau/Unit commander of the subject employee and include a guidelines worksheet in making their recommendation for corrective action. Bureau commander will make the recommendation for corrective action, sign the packet, and return to IA within how may working days?

A

3 days

392
Q

Final IA report will be forwarded to CHief of Police from the Bureau commander within how many working days?

A

2 working days

393
Q

First offense for minor offenses:

A

written warning

394
Q

second offense for minor offense:

A

written instruction and cautioning (employee notice)

395
Q

third offense for minor offense:

A

written instruction and cautioning up to 30 hours of suspension (employee notice)

396
Q

fourth offense for minor offense:

A

written instruction and cautioning up to one week suspension (employee notice)

397
Q

fifth offense for minor offense:

A

written instruction and cautioning with up to two weeks suspension, demotion, probation, or dismissal (employee notice)

398
Q

Written warning is considered what type of action?

A

corrective action

399
Q

A written instruction and cautioning in the form of employee notice may be accompanied by any one or more of the following sanctions:

A

probation, forfeiture of annual leave, suspension

400
Q

Termination notice shall specify a time no sooner than 2 working days nor later than how many days following the employee’s receipt of such notice for an informal conference to be held before the Chief.

A

5 days

401
Q

Notices imposing written instruction and cautioning and disciplinary actions involving discharge, demotion, suspension, or probation should be issued within how many days from the time that the Chief becomes informed of the findings of the investigation?

A

20 days

402
Q

Members who are not members of a collective bargaining unit have the right to what type of review board if an investigated incident results in recommended discipline or they are notified of disciplinary action to be taken against them?

A

complaint review board

403
Q

Who makes up the complaint board?

A

Chief selects two members, member selects two members, four selected members select a fifth member (members must be LEo within Alachua County or state agency where officer is stationed in Alachua County, cannot be of lesser rank than accused, no involvement in the complaint at all)

404
Q

Is hearsay evidence admissable in a complaint review board hearing?

A

yes but cannot be the only evidence presented

405
Q

Who tracks any action or training resulting from E.W.S. feedback?

A

operational skills unit

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