general knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

alphabet

A

alfa
bravo
charli
delta
echo
foxtrot
golf
hotel
india
juliett
kilo
lima
mike
november
oscar
papa
quebec
romeo
sierra
tango
uniform
victor
whiskey
x-ray
yankee
zulu

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2
Q

pre-flight brief

A

performance
weather
weight and balance
fuel requirements
planned route

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3
Q

currency

A

61.57

preceding 90 days you must have made the following:

3 TOL as the sole manipulator of the flight controls.
-same category and class aircraft.
-if the aircraft you are flying requires a type rating then these takeoffs and landings have to be in the same type aircraft.
-touch and gos okay

if tailwheel must full stop.

if night: one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise.
-also, must full stop

can be in an approved simulator. This more applies to pilots who fly aircraft with type ratings.

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4
Q

oil (both cessna and archer)

A

6.5 quarts minimum. when can +1, do it.

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5
Q

runway incursion

A

any aircraft @ aerodrome (small airport) involving incorrect presence of aircraft, vehicle, or person on protected area of surface designated for TOL

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6
Q

traffic pattern @ non-tower

A

to the left unless otherwise stated - see sectional chart for “RP”

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7
Q

non-tower pattern entry

A

traffic pattern altitude (see chart suppliment -? foreflight) - ?100’ AGL

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8
Q

wake turbulence strongest

A

plane is heavy, clean, and slow

heavier or slower = greater AOA = greater pressure differential = greater wingtip vortices

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9
Q

light gun: steady green

A

on the ground = cleared for takeoff
in the air = cleared to land

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10
Q

light gun: flashing green

A

on the ground = cleared to taxi
in the air = return for landing

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11
Q

light gun: steady red

A

on the ground = stop
in the air = give way and continue circling

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12
Q

light gun: flashing red

A

on the ground = taxi clear of runway in use
in the air = airport unsafe, do not land

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13
Q

light gun: flashing white

A

on the ground = return to starting point on airport
in the air = NA

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14
Q

light gun: alternating red and green

A

on the ground = exercise extreme caution
in the air = exercise extreme caution

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15
Q

landing air speed in wind

A

add 0.5(gust minus normal)

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16
Q

maneuvering speed formula

A

Vcurrent = V@max weight √Wcurrent/Wmax

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17
Q

fuel weight per gallon

A

6 pounds

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18
Q

moment formula

A

weight x arm = moment

measured in pound-inches

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19
Q

arm formula

A

moment / weight = arm

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20
Q

consequences of forward CG

A

lower cruising speed for given power setting

higher stall speed

greater stability

greater loads on nose wheel during landing

reduced ability to get high angle of attack for landing

greater nose down force which needs input from elevators to increase tail down force (because of induced drag)

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21
Q

consequences of aft CG

A

higher cruising speed for given power setting

lower stall speed

decreased stability

very light control forces leading to control difficulty

reduced ability to recover from stalls

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22
Q

reference datum locations

A

cessna = front face of firewall

archer = tip of spinner

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23
Q

what is arm in regards to moment

A

distance datum to station in inches

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24
Q

consequences of heavier aircraft

A

decreased performance

longer takeoff run

reduced rate of climb

lower service ceiling

lower cruising speed for given power setting

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25
parasite drag
drag that is not associated with the production of lift. displacement of the air by the aircraft - or - turbulence generated in the airstream - or - hindrance of air moving over surface of the aircraft and airfoil. three types: form drag, interference drag, and skin friction.
26
form drag
generated by aircraft due to shape and airflow around it. EG: engine cowlings, antennas, and the aerodynamic shape of other components. When the air has to separate to move around a moving aircraft and its components, it eventually rejoins after passing the body. How quickly and smoothly it rejoins is representative of the resistance that it creates, which requires additional force to overcome
27
interference drag
intersection of airstreams that creates eddy currents, turbulence, or restricts smooth airflow. interference of airstreams with each other For example, the intersection of the wing and the fuselage at the wing root has significant interference drag. Air flowing around the fuselage collides with air flowing over the wing, merging into a current of air different from the two original currents. The most interference drag is observed when two surfaces meet at perpendicular angles. Fairings are used to reduce this tendency. If a jet fighter carries two identical wing tanks, the overall drag is greater than the sum of the individual tanks because both of these create and generate interference drag. Fairings and distance between lifting surfaces and external components (such as radar antennas hung from wings) reduce interference drag.
28
skin friction drag
aerodynamic resistance due to the contact of moving air with the surface of an aircraft. Every surface, no matter how apparently smooth, has a rough, ragged surface when viewed under a microscope. The air molecules, which come in direct contact with the surface of the wing, are virtually motionless. Each layer of molecules above the surface moves slightly faster until the molecules are moving at the velocity of the air moving around the aircraft. This speed is called the free-stream velocity. The area between the wing and the free-stream velocity level is about as wide as a playing card and is called the boundary layer. At the top of the boundary layer, the molecules increase velocity and move at the same speed as the molecules outside the boundary layer. The actual speed at which the molecules move depends upon the shape of the wing, the viscosity (stickiness) of the air through which the wing or airfoil is moving, and its compressibility (how much it can be compacted). The airflow outside of the boundary layer reacts to the shape of the edge of the boundary layer just as it would to the physical surface of an object. The boundary layer gives any object an “effective” shape that is usually slightly different from the physical shape. The boundary layer may also separate from the body, thus creating an effective shape much different from the physical shape of the object. This change in the physical shape of the boundary layer causes a dramatic decrease in lift and an increase in drag. When this happens, the airfoil has stalled. In order to reduce the effect of skin friction drag, aircraft designers utilize flush mount rivets and remove any irregularities that may protrude above the wing surface. In addition, a smooth and glossy finish aids in transition of air across the surface of the wing. Since dirt on an aircraft disrupts the free flow of air and increases drag, keep the surfaces of an aircraft clean and waxed.
29
induced drag
drag induced by lift (from airfoil - wing or rotor blade) In order to create a greater negative pressure on the top of an airfoil, the airfoil can be inclined to a higher AOA. In any case, as AOA increases, induced drag increases proportionally. the lower the airspeed, the greater the AOA required to produce lift equal to the aircraft’s weight and, therefore, the greater induced drag. *induced drag = inverse of airspeed² ?parasite drag = airspeed² total drag greater: low speed (induced drag) high speed (parasite drag)
30
calculating ΔCG
(weight to be shifted)/(total weight) *(distance weight is shifted) = (ΔCG) in inches. positive is forward. negative is aft
31
region of reverse command
re: slow flight more power is needed slower you go because of drag pitch controls airspeed power controls altitude
32
slow flight AGL
1500
33
ACS tolerances (private)
heading +/-10° bank +/-10° altitude +/- 100' speed +10kts -0kts
34
ACS tolerances (commercial)
heading +/-10° bank +/-5° altitude +/- 50' speed +5kts -0kts
35
load factor on an aircraft
stress on an aircraft aerodynamic forces inertia forces ground/water reactions
36
causes of yaw to the left
high angle of attack spiraling slipstream - high power setting - low airspeed -- EG during take off -- spiral of air hits tail torque of propeller - most propeller move clockwise from PIC point of view. aircraft reacts by moving around longitudinal axis counter clockwise pushing everything L. P factor - down moving blade take bigger bite. since most USA planes' propellers go down on R side, there is more thrust on that side - plane is flying at a high angle-of-attack (EG: takeoff. EG: slow-flight) - taking off in a tailwheel airplane
37
phases of a spin
entry incipient developed recovery
38
spin recovery: archer
rudder opposite elevator forward ailerons neutral power idle
39
spin recovery: cessna
power idle aileron neutral rudder opposite elevator forward
40
ground reference maneuvers AGL
600-1000 do not exceed 45° enter downwind
41
traffic pattern distance from ground reference
0.5-0.75 miles
42
turbulence
erratic changes in attitude and/or altitude eddies and vertical currents mechanical lower levels of atmosphere caused by air experiencing friction due to ground objects clear air turbulence most common above ≈15K' usually jet streams more in winter thermal (convective) uneven heating of earth frontal friction 2 opposing air masses can be severe commonly associated cold fronts chop V turbulence chop = rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness
43
levels of turbulence
light momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw) moderate changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. it usually causes variations in indicated airspeed severe causes large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. it usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. aircraft may be momentarily out of control. extreme aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control. it may cause structural damage.
44
reporting turbulence rate
occasional <1/3 time intermittent 1/3-2/3 time continuous >2/3 time
45
wind sheer
sudden drastic change in wind speed or direction over a small area
46
adiabatic heating and cooling
increasing or decreasing heat through change in pressure (volume compression/expansion) no heat is actually exchanged
47
most unstable air
moist warm air
48
types if icing
induction interferes with engine performance. in air intake system or farm as carburetor icing. reduces available air available for combustion. instrument icing on instruments interfering with data aquisition structural *clear - slow freeze along body. most dangerous cause hard to see *rime - immediate freeze. leading edges *mixed -light accumulation over the wings ---reduce lift 30% ---increase drag 40% -larger accretions ---reduce lift even more (? how much) ---increase drag 80% -stall at higher air speeds and lower AOA
49
ceiling
SKC - clear FEW - >0 to 2/8 SCT - scattered - 3/8 to 4/8 clouds BKN - broken - 5/8 to 7/8 clouds OVC - overcast 8/8 clouds CB - cumulonimbus when present TCU - towering cumulonimbus when present
50
large runways on *sectional*
hard surface >8069' or some multiple runways <8069'
51
populated areas
on sectional in yellow 1000' AGL within 2000' radius of airplane
52
special conservation areas
on sectional as solid blue line FAA request (not required) 2000'AGL+
53
most hazardout clouds
towering cumulonimbus because of thunderstorms
54
distance to keep from thunderstorms
20 nautical miles do not fly under or over in little planes
55
turbulence distance from storm
up to 20 miles away
56
hail distance from thunderstorm
up to 20 miles. can be encountered several miles away
57
altitude discrepancy in altimeter from thunderstorm
up to 100'. adjust altimeter!
58
icing danger zone
5°C to -20°C
59
anti-icing
ethylene-glycol blend jets and turboprop. lowers freezing point of water weeping wing glycol based fluid through tiny holes engine bleed air
60
de-icing
de-icing boots pneumatic system to break up accumulated ice engine bleed air pitot heat on ATP small planes turn on when flying below 10°C and visible moisture carburetor heat when suspect carburetor ice engine power will drop since hot air is less dense - less O₂ windshield defroster if encounter ice at ATP declare emergency
61
outlook weather briefing
or outlook briefing when flight is 6+ hours away initial forecast information call again to get a standard or abbreviated weather briefing
62
flight service en route radio frequency
begins with 122.x
63
airspace - class G ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restrictions
on sectional: soft side of blue gradient line ≤1200' AGL hard side of blue gradient line ≤14.5K" MSL blue zipper is non-standard ceiling soft side of red gradient line ≤700' AGL. class E begins. none no specific requirements ≤1200' AGL (regardless of MSL altitude) @day: 1 SM visibility and be COC (clear of clouds) @night: 3 1-5-2 >1200' AGL<10K' MSL @day: 1 SM visibility 1000'-500'-2000' (be above, be below, be in front of) @night: 3 SM visibility 1000'-500'-2000' (be above, be below, be in front of) >10K' MSL @day or night: 5 SM visibility 1000'-1000'-1SM (be above, be below, be in front of) ≥10K' MSL
64
airspace - class E ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restrictions
"everywhere else" on sectional: soft side of red gradient line ≥700' AGL hard side of red gradient line ≥1200' AGL if class G goes to 14.5K' MSL, class E is 14.5K'-17,999' MSL (class A begins) class E is also ≥60,001' MSL - dashed line started at surface clearance required if IFR ADS-B out if required in class E at and above 10K' MSL excluding airspace ≤2500' AGL -mode C transponder and ADS-B required above class B and C airspace up to 10K' MSL -altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out required above class C and D >10K' MSL: 5 5 SM visibility 1000'-1000'-1000' (be above, be below, be in front of) <10K' MSL 3 SM visibility 1000'-500'-2000' (be above, be below, be in front of) ≥10K' MSL
65
airspace - class D ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restrictions
as charted. usually 4NM diameter. usually up to 2500'AGL. verify height in broken blue square (times 100) on sectional as dashed blue line around smaller towered airports *if airport does not have radar, separation services are provided (? always) 2-way radio communication (including call sign) required. established when ATC reads back tail number. 2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out 3 SM visibility be 1000' above. be 500' below. be 2000' to the side. ? be in front of <2500' AGL. if in 4 NM of primary class D ≤200 KIAS
66
airspace - class C ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restrictions
on sectional as solid magenta line (think commercial or crowded) -inner 5 NM ring. usually ≤4000' AGL -outer 10 NM ring. 1200'-4000' AGL *AGLs are listed like a fraction 2-way radio communication (including call sign) required 2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out 3 SM visibility. 1000' above. 500' below. 2000' to the side. ≤200 KIAS
67
airspace - class B ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restictions
think "busy or big". usually " upside-down wedding cake". on sectional as solid blue lines *AGLs are listed like a fraction ≈30 NM radius up to 10K' MSL thin magenta line is "mode C veil" indicating the below equipment needed "clear to enter bravo airspace" with call sign required 2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out 3 SM visibility. clear of clouds on all sides. ≤10K' MSL 250 KIAS in. 200 KIAS below. >10K' MSL mach 1 *unless otherwise authorized *exception: if in VFR corridor ≤200 KIAS
68
airspace - class A ----------------------------------- size and shape clearance requirements equipment weather minimums airspeed restrictions
18K' MSL to FL 600 (60K' MSL) over 48 contiguous states and alaska - including waters off the cost to 12 NM high altitudes ATC clearance required 2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out none (IFR flight plan required and have clearance) mach 1
69
to be class C airport
must have: -control tower -certain number of IFR operations or passenger "enplanements" -radar and weather capabilites think c for congested
70
to be class B airport
must have: -radar -instrument approaches -weather capabilites -control tower -high density of aircraft and passenger jets think b for busy
71
to student solo in class B airspace
received both ground and flight training from authorized instructor for that airport flight training was received at that airport CFI endorsed logbook within 90 calendar days before flight. endorsement must specify the above requirements. no students at "the dirty dozen": altlanta, georgia hartsfield-jackson atlanta international boston, massachusetts's general edward lawrence logan international camp springs, maryland joint base andrews chicago illinois chicago-o'hare international dallas, texas dallas/fort worth international los angeles, california los angles international miami, florida miami international newark, new jersey newark liberty international new york, new york john F kennedy international new york, new york laguardia san francisco, california saan francisco international washington, district of columbia ronald reagan washington international
72
FL 600 is ___' MSL
60,000
73
above 18K' altimiter is set to?
29.92 inches of mercury
74
special use airspaces
MOA (military operation area) controlled firing areas not on charts. is on chart supplement prohibited ? include FRZ (flight restricted zone), or is that separate restricted alert warning NSA national security area TRSA terminal radar service area TFR temporary flight restriction MTR military training routes parachute jump areas published VFR routes ADIZ air defense identification zone SATR special air traffic rules if go, look up how to fly SFRA special flight rules area relating to national security if go, look up how to fly wildlife and recreational areas minimum 2000' AGL NOAA (national oceanic and atmospheric administration) marine areas - off the coast - be above 2000' AGL
75
ADIS
ADIS air defense identification zone left USA to leave must file ICAO flight plan and possess radio license for you and aircraft to come back to USA: DVFR flight plan and other requirements
76
published VFR routes
- VFR flyways - VFR cooridors - class B VFR transition routes *is basically a hole through class B so don't need clearance - read notes for how to use
77
parachute jump areas pilots on ___, ___, or ___ frequencies
pilots on CTAF, VFR flight following, or ATC frequencies
78
military training routes
where military plays on sectional: 3 or 4 digit number in grey route lines 3 digit: activity is any AGL 4 digit: activity is below 1500' AGL VR=VFR, IR=IFR
79
on sectional: 3 or 4 digit number in grey route lines
military training routes
80
MOA (military operation area) used to separate IFR from military as VFR no special clearance needed recommended to contact controlling agency on sectional: as legend at bottom
(military operation area) used to separate IFR from military as VFR no special clearance needed recommended to contact controlling agency on sectional: as legend at bottom
81
on sectional: blue line with hash & "P-___"
prohibited air space
82
TRSA
terminal radar service area usually around busy class D to provide separation services to IFR and participating VFR on sectional: solid grey line area so busy needs class C service participation is voluntary. VFR pilots encourage to use
83
on sectional: solid grey line
TRSA terminal radar service area usually around busy class D to provide separation services to IFR and participating VFR area so busy needs class C service participation is voluntary. VFR pilots encourage to use
84
TFR
temporary flight restriction on sectional: solid red or orange VANSS determines if TFR needed - VIP - usually 2 rings. inner = airport. outer = where VIP will be. violation can equal fines, revoke certificate, murder - airshow - natural disaster - sporting events - space operations can be issued with short notice usually no flights inner ring certain flight with ATC communication on flight plan outer ring
85
on sectional: solid red or orange
TFR temporary flight restriction VANSS determines if TFR needed - VIP - usually 2 rings. inner = airport. outer = where VIP will be. violation can equal fines, revoke certificate, murder - airshow - natural disaster - sporting events - space operations can be issued with short notice usually no flights inner ring certain flight with ATC communication on flight plan outer ring
86
on sectional: blue with hash & "R-___"
restricted has hazards (EG artillery firing, aerial gunnery, guided missiles)
87
on sectional: red with hash & "A-___"
alert look out for collisions high training area or unusual activity
88
on sectional: blue with hash & "W-___"
warning like restricted but over water 3NM from coast and out has hazards (EG artillery firing, aerial gunnery, guided missiles)
89
on sectional: red dashed line
NSA national security area if restriction, see NOTAM
90
hypoxic hypoxia
not enough oxygen entering body
91
hypemic hypoxia
oxygen available but not getting to cells "emic" comes from greek for blood either not enough red blood cells or carbon monoxide bound to hemoglobin -be careful about exhaust heating systems
92
stagnant hypoxia
blood not moving
93
histotoxic hypoxia
cells can't use oxygen available and being delivered by hemoglobin drugs or alcohol
94
oxygen to be provided when?
0-12,000' no oxygen required 12,001-14,000' required for crew if >30 minures 14,001-15,000' required for crew ≥15,001' made available to each occupant see 14 CFR 91.211
95
symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning
headache blurred vision dizziness drowsiness and/or loss of muscle strength death
96
1 ounce of alcohol = ___' altitude
2000
97
do not fly for at least ___ hours after alcohol
8 bottle to throttle
98
symptoms of hypoxia
cyanosis (blue nails and lips) headache decreased response to stimuli increased response time impaired judgement euphoria visual impairment drowsiness lightheaded or dizzy sensation tingling in fingers and toes numbness
99
illusions in flight
ICEFLAGS inversion coriolis elevator false horizon leans autokinesis graveyard spin/spiral somatogravic leans get into shallow turn without noticing - tough to sense turn <2°/second then correct and fluid in ear moves the other way pilot might lean to adjust for perceived bank coriolis illusion after movement in one direction for a while then move head and get disoriented as fluid no longer moving in direction of previous movement graveyard spiral like leans, undetected turn. pilot corrects by turning more (? direction) since planes lose altitude in a turn, pilot then pulls up and spiral down is result somatogravic illusion feeling like nose up orientation during acceleration so push down. opposite with deceleration inversion illusion after change from climb to straight and level pilot feels like is falling backward. pushing forward may intensify illusion elevator illusion getting pushed by updraft fells like climb so push down getting pushed down feels like decent so push up false horizon light look like a horizon so feel like am flying sideways *rely less on outside references at night. trust instruments! autokinesis stationary light looks like moving when stared at. keep scanning. featureless terrain illusion no physical ground features to use as reference - can happen when flying over water or snow. - pilot might fly too high approach
100
illusions when landing
GARRF ground lighting atmospheric conditions runway width runway slope featureless terrain terrain features and atmospheric conditions. most pronounced during landing. runway width and slope. narrow runway might feel like higher altitude. wider like lower. do not mess up approach. -similar things can happen with slopes. haze can cause lower approach clear days can cause higher approach fog can look like pitching up and can result in pilot steepening approach (? pushing down to correct ?reducing speed too much)
101
congested areas be ___' above highest obstacle
1000
102
non-congested areas be ___' above surface
500 unless open water or sparsely populated areas. then be 500' over people vessels, vehicles, structures
103
VORTAC
104
VORDME
105
VOR
106
TACAN
107
NDB
108
waypoint
109
bearing versus radial
bearing = flying to a staion radial = flying away from a station
110
victor airways
they originate from VORs on sectinal: light blue lines 1200' to but not including FL180 8NM wide (4NM each way from radial)
111
how often must the VOR receiver be checked?
every 30 days to do ("dual VOR check"): - tune both receivers to same navigation aid - center both CDIs with to indicator maximum bearing error is +/- 4° if off, notify maintenance
112
VOR limitations
line of sight needed cone of confusion - when am directly over station - when to/from flag changes, can rely on again uses " slant range". result: my actual distance across the ground is √(VOR)²-(AGL)² -so close distance and/or high altitude will make even less accurate
113
components of GPS
space 24 satellites 3 are active spares control network of ground monitors GPS receiver must be current! not permitted to be used if out of date. keep it updated!
114
RAIM
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring keeps GPS signal reliable
115
WAAS
wide area augmentation system augments GPS signal to make it more accurate
116
radar services
provided if workload permitting traffic advisories safety alerts radar vectoring
117
types of transponders
mode A only transmits identifying code to ATC mode C enables ATC to see aircraft's altitude and flight level mode S has ability to disseminate altitude as well as data exchange through ADS-B
118
when should struts be serviced?
if less than 3.25" visible
119
impact icing
moisture needs something to hold onto in order to become solid. this can be the aircraft as it flies through - the ice forms on impact.
120
engines in ATP aircraft
lycoming O-360 360 cubic inches displacement of air in cylinders
121
LHAND
lycoming made horizontally opposed cylinders air cooled no liquid coolants. relies on air flowing into cowling naturally aspirated not compressed. comes right from outside. some loss of power at higher altitudes direct drive propeller spins at same rate as crankshaft no transmission or belts
122
hot mag
magneto that's not grounded
123
DME
distance measuring equipment measure delay in signal to get distance. keep in mind slant range.
124
principal of procession
or gyroscopic procession when a spinning gyroscope has a force inflicted upon it, resulting force appears 90° ahead in the direction of rotation
125
pitot static errors
if pitot tube front hole becomes blocked, ram air can't get in. pressure in system would leak out of drain hole. airspeed indicator (ASI) would read 0. if both front hole and drain hole blocked, airspeed would read inaccurately - higher. air still gets into chamber through static port.
126
attitude V AOA
attitude is longitude V horizon AOA is chord line V relative wind
127
ingredients of combustion
fuel air source of ignition (spark)
128
stoiciometric ratio
most efficient mixture of fuel to air
129
vapor lock
high temperatures causes liquid fuel to turn to gas before reaching cylinders this causes blockage keeping fuel from moving through lines more common in fuel injected engines perform run up facing into wind to assist with cooling
130
types of emergency landings
forced landings immediate landing on or off an airport precautionary landings premeditated landing on or off an airport where further flight is possible but inadvisable ditching forced or precautionary landing on water
131
carburetor ice most common at what temperature and relative humidity?
<70° over 80%
132
forces that act on airplane
thrust weight drag lift sum of forces equals zero in level flight and steady climb. forces are equal and opposite
133
what causes lift
pressure differential between top and bottom of wing
134
factors that make aircraft laterally stable
dihedral - higher wing has more drag - lower wing has more AOA sweepback keel effect weight distribution
135
air worthiness directives
essentially a recall - notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), followed by a final rule - final rule; request for comments - emergency ADs
136
POH V AFM
The POH is the official book of rules for that specific serial number airplane. The AFM is the unofficial/generic one for a type of airplane that may or may not match the one it's in. On occasion you'll run into a book labeled "AFM" that is in fact actually the "POH" (often due to an STC requirement). 1. AFM stands for Aircraft Flight Manual and POH stands for Pilots Operating Handbook. 2. When the Pilots Operating Handbook covers only a particular model or type of the aircraft, the Aircraft Flight Manual is very specific to the aircraft. 3. The Pilots Operating Handbook cannot be substituted for Aircraft Flight Manual but the AFM can be used a substitute for POH. 4. Pilots Operating Handbook was used in aircrafts that were manufactured before 1979. The aircrafts that rolled out after 1979 started to use Aircraft Flight Manual. 5. The Pilots Operating Handbook also contains additional information like GPS, STC’s that pertain to that precise N number. 6. The Pilots Operating Handbook must be current. It can be seen that there is no need for the Aircraft Flight Manual to be current and no need to be serialized as Pilots Operating Handbook. 7. Aircraft Flight Manual has replaced Pilots Operating Handbook in flight operations now.
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form 337
to turn in to FAA for making modifications to the airplane. like adding avionics.
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how many hours can a plane fly over the 100 hour inspection?
10. if and only if flying to get it inspected. next inspection is at the next even 100s mark.
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100 hour inspection V annual
annual must be completed by AMP mechanic with an inspection authorization. 100 hour can be completedf by any AMP mechanic.
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ADM fundamentals
don't accept unnecessary risk accept risks when benefits outweigh the dangers integrate risk management in every phase make decisions at the appropriate level - like if storm predicted, don't fly.
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risk assessment matrix
likelyhood - probable - occasional - remote - improbable severity - catastrophic - critical - margin - negligible
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things to do with risk
mitigate - IMSAFE - PAVE -external pressures --- add time to flights for fuel stops --- late arrival plans --- overnight kit in case get stuck eliminate control - there are a lot of FRATs --flight risk assessment tool
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hazardous attitudes
anti-authority - follow the rules cuz someone dies impulsivity - slow down invulnerability - it could actually happen to you macho - don't take chances. trail to do the cool shit resignation - you can do it. you have the tools
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when to use 5 Ps
preflight pre-takeoff hourly in flight -pre-decent - before entering pattern / final approach fix
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types of ADs
airworthiness directive emergency -must be done right now recurring - !! mandatory !!
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MMEL
master minimum equipment list more general
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kinds of equipment lists
MMEL MEL KOEL comprehensive equipment list
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nacelle
streamlined housing for something on outside of plane (like an engine)
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ground effect
wash from wings can't go anywhere and so drag is reduced
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P factor
propeller factor AKA asymmetric blade factor AKA asymmetric propeller loading
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why do we have differential ailerons
the up deflecting aileron reduces the camber (curve) of the wing and so has ness lift. and less induced drag. it lifts up more to induce more drag to counteract the yaw caused by the other wing and it's aileron. the down aileron has more camber and has more lift and therefore more induced drag and thus may yaw in that direction.
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new CG because of shifted weight formula
Wx*(arm-arm)/Wt=∆CG±CGo plus or minus the old CG depending on direction moved as presented by video: Wx/Wt=∆CG/distance then ± depending on direction moved
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new CG because of added or subtracted weight
±W(distance W & CGo)/new W=∆CG
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what is a station? in regard to center of gravity
defined distance from a datum
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corkscrew effect is also called
spiraling slipstream
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what is a stall?
not enough lift to oppose the weight of the aircraft. *not a total loss of lift. air has broken up to the leading edge of the wing. no laminar flow.
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coefficient of lift
lift depending on conditions
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coefficient of lift maximum CL max
perfect conditions
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where do stalls start on the differnt wing types
straight root swept back tip triangle center
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where is the stall warning tab or hole and why?
lined up with the ailerons so can be warned before full stall
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AOA stall
as AOA increases so does lift and drag proportionally. at AOA lift cannot overcome weight but drag continues to increase.
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allowable load factors per category
For transport category airplanes, from −1 to +2.5 (or up to +3.8 depending on design takeoff weight) For normal category and commuter category airplanes, from −1.52 to +3.8 For utility category airplanes, from −1.76 to +4.4 For acrobatic category airplanes, from −3.0 to +6.0 For helicopters, from −1 to +3.5
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service bulletin
not mandatory. notice of an improvement. often become airworthiness directives (ADs)
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A&P mechanic
A&P stands for Airframe and Powerplant. This means that those who are qualified as an A&P mechanic are licensed to work on both the external frame (airframe) and engine (powerplant) portions of an aircraft. A&P mechanics are also known as aircraft maintenance technicians, or AMT's.
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longitudinal stability
stability of the longitudinal axis. plane pivots on lateral axis
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lateral stability
stability of lateral axis. plane pivots on longitudinal axis AKA roll stability factors of: - dihedral - sweepback - keel effect - weight distribution - pendulum effect (from a video) --- high wing are more stable so low wing have greater dihedral
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what forces are opposite each other
lift (vertical component) V weight and tail down force lift (horizontal component) V centrifugal total lift V resultant load thrust V drag - parasite (friction, interference, form) - induced
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about how many towered airports are there? untowered?
500 20,000
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about how high does ground effect go for a fixed wing aircraft
about 1/2 the length of the wingspan
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what does an FSS do?
flight service station provides pilots with weather and aeronautical information through pilot briefings, flight planning, inflight advisory services, weather cameras, search and rescue initiation, aircraft emergencies, and Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs).
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what is an FBO
fixed base operator can have fuel, service, and/or even food
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runway incursion categories
A = barely avoid collision B = significant potential for collision C = ample time and distance to avoid collision D = little or no risk of collision
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category V class V type
A category is an overarching classification of aircraft. The following are an example of aircraft categories: Airplane Rotorcraft Powered lift The Marine Corp’s V-22 is the best example. The US Army plans to transition its entire fleet of helicopters into this category. Glider Lighter than air (balloons and airships) Powered parachute (not to be confused with powered paragliders) Weight-shift control aircraft (hang gliders and ultralight trikes) ---------------------------------------------------------------- What is a “class” of aircraft? Some categories are further broken down into a “class.” Classes are a way to further distinguish between types of aircraft. Not every category has a class. The classes most pilots will deal with are “land,” “sea,” “single-engine,” and “multi-engine.” Airplane category: single-engine land class multi-engine land class single-engine sea class multi-engine sea class Rotorcraft category: helicopter class gyroplane class Lighter than air category: airship class balloon class Powered parachute category: powered parachute land class powered parachute sea class Weight-shift-control category: weight-shift-control aircraft land class weight-shift-control aircraft sea class ---------------------------------------------------------------- All turbojets, regardless of weight, require a “type” rating. Non-turbojet (ie. turboprop) airplanes don’t have a separate “type” rating until they get above 12,500 pounds. Most helicopters don’t have type ratings because they don’t weigh more than 12,500 pounds. For example, most King Air 200s weigh less than 12,500 lbs, so it stays in the airplane category with a class of multi-engine land and no type rating. The King Air 350, though, weighs more than 12,500 lbs. In order to fly it, you have to get special training and a check ride. Type ratings go on a pilot’s FAA license. Often times the name of the aircraft and the designated type are completely different (see below). The FAA outlines its training requirements for a type rating in their Advisory Circular: AC 61-89e.