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general knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

alphabet

A

alfa
bravo
charli
delta
echo
foxtrot
golf
hotel
india
juliett
kilo
lima
mike
november
oscar
papa
quebec
romeo
sierra
tango
uniform
victor
whiskey
x-ray
yankee
zulu

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2
Q

pre-flight brief

A

performance
weather
weight and balance
fuel requirements
planned route

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3
Q

currency

A

61.57

preceding 90 days you must have made the following:

3 TOL as the sole manipulator of the flight controls.
-same category and class aircraft.
-if the aircraft you are flying requires a type rating then these takeoffs and landings have to be in the same type aircraft.
-touch and gos okay

if tailwheel must full stop.

if night: one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise.
-also, must full stop

can be in an approved simulator. This more applies to pilots who fly aircraft with type ratings.

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4
Q

oil (both cessna and archer)

A

6.5 quarts minimum. when can +1, do it.

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5
Q

runway incursion

A

any aircraft @ aerodrome (small airport) involving incorrect presence of aircraft, vehicle, or person on protected area of surface designated for TOL

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6
Q

traffic pattern @ non-tower

A

to the left unless otherwise stated - see sectional chart for “RP”

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7
Q

non-tower pattern entry

A

traffic pattern altitude (see chart suppliment -? foreflight) - ?100’ AGL

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8
Q

wake turbulence strongest

A

plane is heavy, clean, and slow

heavier or slower = greater AOA = greater pressure differential = greater wingtip vortices

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9
Q

light gun: steady green

A

on the ground = cleared for takeoff
in the air = cleared to land

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10
Q

light gun: flashing green

A

on the ground = cleared to taxi
in the air = return for landing

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11
Q

light gun: steady red

A

on the ground = stop
in the air = give way and continue circling

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12
Q

light gun: flashing red

A

on the ground = taxi clear of runway in use
in the air = airport unsafe, do not land

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13
Q

light gun: flashing white

A

on the ground = return to starting point on airport
in the air = NA

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14
Q

light gun: alternating red and green

A

on the ground = exercise extreme caution
in the air = exercise extreme caution

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15
Q

landing air speed in wind

A

add 0.5(gust minus normal)

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16
Q

maneuvering speed formula

A

Vcurrent = V@max weight √Wcurrent/Wmax

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17
Q

fuel weight per gallon

A

6 pounds

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18
Q

moment formula

A

weight x arm = moment

measured in pound-inches

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19
Q

arm formula

A

moment / weight = arm

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20
Q

consequences of forward CG

A

lower cruising speed for given power setting

higher stall speed

greater stability

greater loads on nose wheel during landing

reduced ability to get high angle of attack for landing

greater nose down force which needs input from elevators to increase tail down force (because of induced drag)

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21
Q

consequences of aft CG

A

higher cruising speed for given power setting

lower stall speed

decreased stability

very light control forces leading to control difficulty

reduced ability to recover from stalls

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22
Q

reference datum locations

A

cessna = front face of firewall

archer = tip of spinner

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23
Q

what is arm in regards to moment

A

distance datum to station in inches

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24
Q

consequences of heavier aircraft

A

decreased performance

longer takeoff run

reduced rate of climb

lower service ceiling

lower cruising speed for given power setting

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25
Q

parasite drag

A

drag that is not associated with the production of lift.

displacement of the air by the aircraft
- or -
turbulence generated in the airstream
- or -
hindrance of air moving over surface of the aircraft and airfoil.

three types:
form drag, interference drag, and skin friction.

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26
Q

form drag

A

generated by aircraft due to shape and airflow around it.
EG: engine cowlings, antennas, and the aerodynamic shape of
other components.

When the air has to separate to move around a moving aircraft and its components, it eventually rejoins after passing the body. How quickly and smoothly it rejoins is representative of the resistance that it creates, which requires additional force to overcome

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27
Q

interference drag

A

intersection of airstreams that creates eddy currents, turbulence, or restricts smooth airflow.

interference of airstreams with each other

For example, the intersection of the wing and the
fuselage at the wing root has significant interference drag.
Air flowing around the fuselage collides with air flowing over
the wing, merging into a current of air different from the two
original currents. The most interference drag is observed when
two surfaces meet at perpendicular angles. Fairings are used
to reduce this tendency. If a jet fighter carries two identical
wing tanks, the overall drag is greater than the sum of the
individual tanks because both of these create and generate
interference drag. Fairings and distance between lifting
surfaces and external components (such as radar antennas
hung from wings) reduce interference drag.

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28
Q

skin friction drag

A

aerodynamic resistance due to the contact of moving air with the surface of an aircraft.

Every surface, no matter how apparently smooth, has a rough, ragged surface when viewed under a microscope. The air molecules, which come in direct contact with the surface of the wing, are virtually motionless. Each layer of molecules above the surface moves slightly faster until the molecules are moving at the velocity of the air moving around the aircraft. This speed is called the free-stream velocity. The area between the wing and the free-stream velocity level is about as wide as a playing card and is called the boundary layer. At the top of the boundary layer, the molecules increase velocity and move at the same speed as the molecules outside the boundary layer. The actual speed at which the molecules move depends upon the shape of the wing, the viscosity (stickiness) of the air through which the wing or airfoil is moving, and its compressibility (how much it can be compacted). The airflow outside of the boundary layer reacts to the shape of the edge of the boundary layer just as it would to the physical surface of an object. The boundary layer gives any object an “effective” shape that is usually slightly different from the physical shape. The boundary layer may also separate from the body, thus creating an effective shape much different from the physical shape of the object. This change in the physical shape of the boundary layer causes a dramatic decrease in lift and an increase in drag. When this happens, the airfoil has stalled. In order to reduce the effect of skin friction drag, aircraft designers utilize flush mount rivets and remove any irregularities that may protrude above the wing surface. In addition, a smooth and glossy finish aids in transition of air across the surface of the wing. Since dirt on an aircraft disrupts the free flow of air and increases drag, keep the surfaces of an aircraft clean and waxed.

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29
Q

induced drag

A

drag induced by lift (from airfoil - wing or rotor blade)

In order to create a greater negative pressure on the top of an airfoil, the airfoil can be inclined to a higher AOA. In any case, as AOA increases, induced drag increases proportionally.

the lower the airspeed, the greater the AOA required to produce lift equal to the aircraft’s weight and, therefore, the greater induced drag.

*induced drag = inverse of airspeed²

?parasite drag = airspeed²

total drag greater:
low speed (induced drag)
high speed (parasite drag)

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30
Q

calculating ΔCG

A

(weight to be shifted)/(total weight) *(distance weight is shifted) = (ΔCG)

in inches. positive is forward. negative is aft

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31
Q

region of reverse command

A

re: slow flight

more power is needed slower you go because of drag

pitch controls airspeed
power controls altitude

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32
Q

slow flight AGL

A

1500

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33
Q

ACS tolerances (private)

A

heading +/-10°
bank +/-10°
altitude +/- 100’
speed +10kts -0kts

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34
Q

ACS tolerances (commercial)

A

heading +/-10°
bank +/-5°
altitude +/- 50’
speed +5kts -0kts

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35
Q

load factor on an aircraft

A

stress on an aircraft

aerodynamic forces
inertia forces
ground/water reactions

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36
Q

causes of yaw to the left

A

high angle of attack

spiraling slipstream
- high power setting
- low airspeed
– EG during take off
– spiral of air hits tail

torque of propeller
- most propeller move clockwise from PIC point of view. aircraft reacts by moving around longitudinal axis counter clockwise pushing everything L.

P factor
- down moving blade take bigger bite. since most USA planes’ propellers go down on R side, there is more thrust on that side
- plane is flying at a high angle-of-attack (EG: takeoff. EG: slow-flight)
- taking off in a tailwheel airplane

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37
Q

phases of a spin

A

entry
incipient
developed
recovery

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38
Q

spin recovery: archer

A

rudder opposite
elevator forward
ailerons neutral
power idle

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39
Q

spin recovery: cessna

A

power idle
aileron neutral
rudder opposite
elevator forward

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40
Q

ground reference maneuvers AGL

A

600-1000

do not exceed 45°

enter downwind

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41
Q

traffic pattern distance from ground reference

A

0.5-0.75 miles

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42
Q

turbulence

A

erratic changes in attitude and/or altitude
eddies and vertical currents

mechanical
lower levels of atmosphere
caused by air experiencing friction due to ground objects

clear air turbulence
most common above ≈15K’
usually jet streams
more in winter

thermal (convective)
uneven heating of earth

frontal
friction 2 opposing air masses
can be severe
commonly associated cold fronts

chop V turbulence
chop = rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness

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43
Q

levels of turbulence

A

light
momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw)

moderate
changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. it usually causes variations in indicated airspeed

severe
causes large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. it usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. aircraft may be momentarily out of control.

extreme
aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control. it may cause structural damage.

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44
Q

reporting turbulence rate

A

occasional <1/3 time

intermittent 1/3-2/3 time

continuous >2/3 time

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45
Q

wind sheer

A

sudden drastic change in wind speed or direction over a small area

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46
Q

adiabatic heating and cooling

A

increasing or decreasing heat through change in pressure (volume compression/expansion)

no heat is actually exchanged

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47
Q

most unstable air

A

moist warm air

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48
Q

types if icing

A

induction
interferes with engine performance.
in air intake system or farm as carburetor icing. reduces available air available for combustion.

instrument
icing on instruments interfering with data aquisition

structural
*clear - slow freeze along body. most dangerous cause hard to see
*rime - immediate freeze. leading edges
*mixed
-light accumulation over the wings
—reduce lift 30%
—increase drag 40%
-larger accretions
—reduce lift even more (? how much)
—increase drag 80%
-stall at higher air speeds and lower AOA

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49
Q

ceiling

A

SKC - clear

FEW - >0 to 2/8

SCT - scattered - 3/8 to 4/8 clouds

BKN - broken - 5/8 to 7/8 clouds

OVC - overcast 8/8 clouds

CB - cumulonimbus when present

TCU - towering cumulonimbus when present

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50
Q

large runways on sectional

A

hard surface >8069’

or some multiple runways <8069’

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51
Q

populated areas

A

on sectional in yellow
1000’ AGL within 2000’ radius of airplane

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52
Q

special conservation areas

A

on sectional as solid blue line
FAA request (not required) 2000’AGL+

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53
Q

most hazardout clouds

A

towering cumulonimbus because of thunderstorms

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54
Q

distance to keep from thunderstorms

A

20 nautical miles

do not fly under or over in little planes

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55
Q

turbulence distance from storm

A

up to 20 miles away

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56
Q

hail distance from thunderstorm

A

up to 20 miles. can be encountered several miles away

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57
Q

altitude discrepancy in altimeter from thunderstorm

A

up to 100’. adjust altimeter!

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58
Q

icing danger zone

A

5°C to -20°C

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59
Q

anti-icing

A

ethylene-glycol blend
jets and turboprop. lowers freezing point of water

weeping wing
glycol based fluid through tiny holes

engine bleed air

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60
Q

de-icing

A

de-icing boots
pneumatic system to break up accumulated ice

engine bleed air

pitot heat
on ATP small planes
turn on when flying below 10°C and visible moisture

carburetor heat
when suspect carburetor ice
engine power will drop since hot air is less dense - less O₂

windshield defroster

if encounter ice at ATP declare emergency

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61
Q

outlook weather briefing

A

or outlook briefing

when flight is 6+ hours away

initial forecast information

call again to get a standard or abbreviated weather briefing

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62
Q

flight service en route radio frequency

A

begins with 122.x

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63
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restrictions

A

on sectional:
soft side of blue gradient line ≤1200’ AGL
hard side of blue gradient line ≤14.5K” MSL
blue zipper is non-standard ceiling
soft side of red gradient line ≤700’ AGL. class E begins.

none

no specific requirements

≤1200’ AGL (regardless of MSL altitude)
@day: 1 SM visibility and be COC (clear of clouds)
@night: 3 1-5-2
>1200’ AGL<10K’ MSL
@day: 1 SM visibility 1000’-500’-2000’ (be above, be below, be in front of)
@night: 3 SM visibility 1000’-500’-2000’ (be above, be below, be in front of)
>10K’ MSL
@day or night: 5 SM visibility 1000’-1000’-1SM (be above, be below, be in front of)

≥10K’ MSL <mach 1 (unless authorized by FAA)
<10K’ MSL ≤250 KIAS

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64
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restrictions

A

“everywhere else”
on sectional:
soft side of red gradient line ≥700’ AGL
hard side of red gradient line ≥1200’ AGL
if class G goes to 14.5K’ MSL, class E is 14.5K’-17,999’ MSL (class A begins)
class E is also ≥60,001’ MSL
- dashed line started at surface

clearance required if IFR

ADS-B out if required in class E at and above 10K’ MSL excluding airspace ≤2500’ AGL
-mode C transponder and ADS-B required above class B and C airspace up to 10K’ MSL
-altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out required above class C and D

> 10K’ MSL:
5 5 SM visibility 1000’-1000’-1000’ (be above, be below, be in front of)
<10K’ MSL
3 SM visibility 1000’-500’-2000’ (be above, be below, be in front of)

≥10K’ MSL <mach 1 (unless authorized by FAA)
<10K’ MSL ≤250 KIAS

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65
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restrictions

A

as charted. usually 4NM diameter. usually up to 2500’AGL. verify height in broken blue square (times 100)
on sectional as dashed blue line
around smaller towered airports
*if airport does not have radar, separation services are provided (? always)

2-way radio communication (including call sign) required. established when ATC reads back tail number.

2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out

3 SM visibility be 1000’ above. be 500’ below. be 2000’ to the side. ? be in front of

<2500’ AGL. if in 4 NM of primary class D ≤200 KIAS

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66
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restrictions

A

on sectional as solid magenta line (think commercial or crowded)
-inner 5 NM ring. usually ≤4000’ AGL
-outer 10 NM ring. 1200’-4000’ AGL
*AGLs are listed like a fraction

2-way radio communication (including call sign) required

2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out

3 SM visibility. 1000’ above. 500’ below. 2000’ to the side.

≤200 KIAS

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67
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restictions

A

think “busy or big”. usually “ upside-down wedding cake”.
on sectional as solid blue lines
*AGLs are listed like a fraction
≈30 NM radius up to 10K’ MSL
thin magenta line is “mode C veil” indicating the below equipment needed

“clear to enter bravo airspace” with call sign required

2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out

3 SM visibility. clear of clouds on all sides.

≤10K’ MSL 250 KIAS in. 200 KIAS below.
>10K’ MSL mach 1
*unless otherwise authorized
*exception: if in VFR corridor ≤200 KIAS

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68
Q

size and shape

clearance requirements

equipment

weather minimums

airspeed restrictions

A

18K’ MSL to FL 600 (60K’ MSL) over 48 contiguous states and alaska - including waters off the cost to 12 NM
high altitudes

ATC clearance required

2-way radio, altitude encoding transponder, ADS-B out

none (IFR flight plan required and have clearance)

mach 1

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69
Q

to be class C airport

A

must have:
-control tower
-certain number of IFR operations or passenger “enplanements”
-radar and weather capabilites

think c for congested

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70
Q

to be class B airport

A

must have:
-radar
-instrument approaches
-weather capabilites
-control tower
-high density of aircraft and passenger jets

think b for busy

71
Q

to student solo in class B airspace

A

received both ground and flight training from authorized instructor for that airport

flight training was received at that airport

CFI endorsed logbook within 90 calendar days before flight. endorsement must specify the above requirements.

no students at “the dirty dozen”:
altlanta, georgia
hartsfield-jackson atlanta international
boston, massachusetts’s
general edward lawrence logan international
camp springs, maryland
joint base andrews
chicago illinois
chicago-o’hare international
dallas, texas
dallas/fort worth international
los angeles, california
los angles international
miami, florida
miami international
newark, new jersey
newark liberty international
new york, new york
john F kennedy international
new york, new york
laguardia
san francisco, california
saan francisco international
washington, district of columbia
ronald reagan washington international

72
Q

FL 600 is ___’ MSL

A

60,000

73
Q

above 18K’ altimiter is set to?

A

29.92 inches of mercury

74
Q

special use airspaces

A

MOA (military operation area)

controlled firing areas
not on charts. is on chart supplement

prohibited
? include FRZ (flight restricted zone), or is that separate

restricted

alert

warning

NSA
national security area

TRSA
terminal radar service area

TFR
temporary flight restriction

MTR
military training routes

parachute jump areas

published VFR routes

ADIZ
air defense identification zone

SATR
special air traffic rules
if go, look up how to fly

SFRA
special flight rules area
relating to national security
if go, look up how to fly

wildlife and recreational areas
minimum 2000’ AGL

NOAA (national oceanic and atmospheric administration) marine areas
- off the coast
- be above 2000’ AGL

75
Q

ADIS

A

ADIS
air defense identification zone
left USA
to leave must file ICAO flight plan and possess radio license for you and aircraft

to come back to USA:
DVFR flight plan and other requirements

76
Q

published VFR routes

A
  • VFR flyways
  • VFR cooridors
  • class B VFR transition routes
    *is basically a hole through class B so don’t need clearance - read notes for how to use
77
Q

parachute jump areas
pilots on ___, ___, or ___ frequencies

A

pilots on CTAF, VFR flight following, or ATC frequencies

78
Q

military training routes

A

where military plays
on sectional: 3 or 4 digit number in grey route lines
3 digit: activity is any AGL
4 digit: activity is below 1500’ AGL
VR=VFR, IR=IFR

79
Q

on sectional: 3 or 4 digit number in grey route lines

A

military training routes

80
Q

MOA (military operation area)
used to separate IFR from military
as VFR no special clearance needed
recommended to contact controlling agency
on sectional: as legend at bottom

A

(military operation area)
used to separate IFR from military
as VFR no special clearance needed
recommended to contact controlling agency
on sectional: as legend at bottom

81
Q

on sectional: blue line with hash & “P-___”

A

prohibited air space

82
Q

TRSA

A

terminal radar service area
usually around busy class D
to provide separation services to IFR and participating VFR
on sectional: solid grey line
area so busy needs class C service
participation is voluntary. VFR pilots encourage to use

83
Q

on sectional: solid grey line

A

TRSA
terminal radar service area
usually around busy class D
to provide separation services to IFR and participating VFR
area so busy needs class C service
participation is voluntary. VFR pilots encourage to use

84
Q

TFR

A

temporary flight restriction
on sectional: solid red or orange
VANSS determines if TFR needed
- VIP - usually 2 rings. inner = airport. outer = where VIP will be. violation can equal fines, revoke certificate, murder
- airshow
- natural disaster
- sporting events
- space operations
can be issued with short notice
usually no flights inner ring
certain flight with ATC communication on flight plan outer ring

85
Q

on sectional: solid red or orange

A

TFR
temporary flight restriction
VANSS determines if TFR needed
- VIP - usually 2 rings. inner = airport. outer = where VIP will be. violation can equal fines, revoke certificate, murder
- airshow
- natural disaster
- sporting events
- space operations
can be issued with short notice
usually no flights inner ring
certain flight with ATC communication on flight plan outer ring

86
Q

on sectional: blue with hash & “R-___”

A

restricted
has hazards (EG artillery firing, aerial gunnery, guided missiles)

87
Q

on sectional: red with hash & “A-___”

A

alert
look out for collisions
high training area or unusual activity

88
Q

on sectional: blue with hash & “W-___”

A

warning
like restricted but over water
3NM from coast and out
has hazards (EG artillery firing, aerial gunnery, guided missiles)

89
Q

on sectional: red dashed line

A

NSA
national security area
if restriction, see NOTAM

90
Q

hypoxic hypoxia

A

not enough oxygen entering body

91
Q

hypemic hypoxia

A

oxygen available but not getting to cells

“emic” comes from greek for blood

either not enough red blood cells or carbon monoxide bound to hemoglobin
-be careful about exhaust heating systems

92
Q

stagnant hypoxia

A

blood not moving

93
Q

histotoxic hypoxia

A

cells can’t use oxygen available and being delivered by hemoglobin

drugs or alcohol

94
Q

oxygen to be provided when?

A

0-12,000’
no oxygen required

12,001-14,000’
required for crew if >30 minures

14,001-15,000’
required for crew

≥15,001’
made available to each occupant

see 14 CFR 91.211

95
Q

symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning

A

headache
blurred vision
dizziness
drowsiness
and/or loss of muscle strength
death

96
Q

1 ounce of alcohol = ___’ altitude

A

2000

97
Q

do not fly for at least ___ hours after alcohol

A

8

bottle to throttle

98
Q

symptoms of hypoxia

A

cyanosis (blue nails and lips)
headache
decreased response to stimuli
increased response time
impaired judgement
euphoria
visual impairment
drowsiness
lightheaded or dizzy sensation
tingling in fingers and toes
numbness

99
Q

illusions in flight

A

ICEFLAGS
inversion
coriolis
elevator
false horizon
leans
autokinesis
graveyard spin/spiral
somatogravic

leans
get into shallow turn without noticing
- tough to sense turn <2°/second
then correct and fluid in ear moves the other way
pilot might lean to adjust for perceived bank

coriolis illusion
after movement in one direction for a while then move head and get disoriented as fluid no longer moving in direction of previous movement

graveyard spiral
like leans, undetected turn. pilot corrects by turning more (? direction)
since planes lose altitude in a turn, pilot then pulls up and spiral down is result

somatogravic illusion
feeling like nose up orientation during acceleration so push down. opposite with deceleration

inversion illusion
after change from climb to straight and level pilot feels like is falling backward. pushing forward may intensify illusion

elevator illusion
getting pushed by updraft fells like climb so push down
getting pushed down feels like decent so push up

false horizon
light look like a horizon so feel like am flying sideways
*rely less on outside references at night. trust instruments!

autokinesis
stationary light looks like moving when stared at. keep scanning.

featureless terrain illusion
no physical ground features to use as reference
- can happen when flying over water or snow.
- pilot might fly too high approach

100
Q

illusions when landing

A

GARRF
ground lighting
atmospheric conditions
runway width
runway slope
featureless terrain

terrain features and atmospheric conditions. most pronounced during landing. runway width and slope.

narrow runway might feel like higher altitude. wider like lower. do not mess up approach.
-similar things can happen with slopes.

haze can cause lower approach

clear days can cause higher approach

fog can look like pitching up and can result in pilot steepening approach (? pushing down to correct ?reducing speed too much)

101
Q

congested areas be ___’ above highest obstacle

A

1000

102
Q

non-congested areas be ___’ above surface

A

500

unless open water or sparsely populated areas. then be 500’ over people vessels, vehicles, structures

103
Q
A

VORTAC

104
Q
A

VORDME

105
Q
A

VOR

106
Q
A

TACAN

107
Q
A

NDB

108
Q
A

waypoint

109
Q

bearing versus radial

A

bearing = flying to a staion

radial = flying away from a station

110
Q

victor airways

A

they originate from VORs

on sectinal: light blue lines

1200’ to but not including FL180

8NM wide (4NM each way from radial)

111
Q

how often must the VOR receiver be checked?

A

every 30 days

to do (“dual VOR check”):
- tune both receivers to same navigation aid
- center both CDIs with to indicator

maximum bearing error is +/- 4°
if off, notify maintenance

112
Q

VOR limitations

A

line of sight needed

cone of confusion
- when am directly over station
- when to/from flag changes, can rely on again

uses “ slant range”. result: my actual distance across the ground is √(VOR)²-(AGL)²
-so close distance and/or high altitude will make even less accurate

113
Q

components of GPS

A

space
24 satellites
3 are active spares

control
network of ground monitors

GPS receiver
must be current! not permitted to be used if out of date. keep it updated!

114
Q

RAIM

A

receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
keeps GPS signal reliable

115
Q

WAAS

A

wide area augmentation system

augments GPS signal to make it more accurate

116
Q

radar services

A

provided if workload permitting

traffic advisories
safety alerts
radar vectoring

117
Q

types of transponders

A

mode A
only transmits identifying code to ATC

mode C
enables ATC to see aircraft’s altitude and flight level

mode S
has ability to disseminate altitude as well as data exchange through ADS-B

118
Q

when should struts be serviced?

A

if less than 3.25” visible

119
Q

impact icing

A

moisture needs something to hold onto in order to become solid. this can be the aircraft as it flies through - the ice forms on impact.

120
Q

engines in ATP aircraft

A

lycoming O-360

360 cubic inches displacement of air in cylinders

121
Q

LHAND

A

lycoming made

horizontally opposed
cylinders

air cooled
no liquid coolants. relies on air flowing into cowling

naturally aspirated
not compressed. comes right from outside.
some loss of power at higher altitudes

direct drive
propeller spins at same rate as crankshaft
no transmission or belts

122
Q

hot mag

A

magneto that’s not grounded

123
Q

DME

A

distance measuring equipment
measure delay in signal to get distance. keep in mind slant range.

124
Q

principal of procession

A

or gyroscopic procession

when a spinning gyroscope has a force inflicted upon it, resulting force appears 90° ahead in the direction of rotation

125
Q

pitot static errors

A

if pitot tube front hole becomes blocked, ram air can’t get in. pressure in system would leak out of drain hole. airspeed indicator (ASI) would read 0.

if both front hole and drain hole blocked, airspeed would read inaccurately - higher. air still gets into chamber through static port.

126
Q

attitude V AOA

A

attitude is longitude V horizon

AOA is chord line V relative wind

127
Q

ingredients of combustion

A

fuel

air

source of ignition (spark)

128
Q

stoiciometric ratio

A

most efficient mixture of fuel to air

129
Q

vapor lock

A

high temperatures causes liquid fuel to turn to gas before reaching cylinders

this causes blockage keeping fuel from moving through lines

more common in fuel injected engines

perform run up facing into wind to assist with cooling

130
Q

types of emergency landings

A

forced landings
immediate landing on or off an airport

precautionary landings
premeditated landing on or off an airport where further flight is possible but inadvisable

ditching
forced or precautionary landing on water

131
Q

carburetor ice most common at what temperature and relative humidity?

A

<70°
over 80%

132
Q

forces that act on airplane

A

thrust

weight

drag

lift

sum of forces equals zero in level flight and steady climb.

forces are equal and opposite

133
Q

what causes lift

A

pressure differential between top and bottom of wing

134
Q

factors that make aircraft laterally stable

A

dihedral
- higher wing has more drag
- lower wing has more AOA

sweepback

keel effect

weight distribution

135
Q

air worthiness directives

A

essentially a recall

  • notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), followed by a final rule
  • final rule; request for comments
  • emergency ADs
136
Q

POH V AFM

A

The POH is the official book of rules for that specific serial number airplane. The AFM is the unofficial/generic one for a type of airplane that may or may not match the one it’s in. On occasion you’ll run into a book labeled “AFM” that is in fact actually the “POH” (often due to an STC requirement).

  1. AFM stands for Aircraft Flight Manual and POH stands for Pilots Operating Handbook.
  2. When the Pilots Operating Handbook covers only a particular model or type of the aircraft, the Aircraft Flight Manual is very specific to the aircraft.
  3. The Pilots Operating Handbook cannot be substituted for Aircraft Flight Manual but the AFM can be used a substitute for POH.
  4. Pilots Operating Handbook was used in aircrafts that were manufactured before 1979. The aircrafts that rolled out after 1979 started to use Aircraft Flight Manual.
  5. The Pilots Operating Handbook also contains additional information like GPS, STC’s that pertain to that precise N number.
  6. The Pilots Operating Handbook must be current. It can be seen that there is no need for the Aircraft Flight Manual to be current and no need to be serialized as Pilots Operating Handbook.
  7. Aircraft Flight Manual has replaced Pilots Operating Handbook in flight operations now.
137
Q

form 337

A

to turn in to FAA for making modifications to the airplane. like adding avionics.

138
Q

how many hours can a plane fly over the 100 hour inspection?

A
  1. if and only if flying to get it inspected. next inspection is at the next even 100s mark.
139
Q

100 hour inspection V annual

A

annual must be completed by AMP mechanic with an inspection authorization. 100 hour can be completedf by any AMP mechanic.

140
Q

ADM fundamentals

A

don’t accept unnecessary risk

accept risks when benefits outweigh the dangers

integrate risk management in every phase

make decisions at the appropriate level
- like if storm predicted, don’t fly.

141
Q

risk assessment matrix

A

likelyhood
- probable
- occasional
- remote
- improbable

severity
- catastrophic
- critical
- margin
- negligible

142
Q

things to do with risk

A

mitigate
- IMSAFE
- PAVE
-external pressures
— add time to flights for fuel stops
— late arrival plans
— overnight kit in case get stuck

eliminate

control

  • there are a lot of FRATs
    –flight risk assessment tool
143
Q

hazardous attitudes

A

anti-authority
- follow the rules cuz someone dies

impulsivity
- slow down

invulnerability
- it could actually happen to you

macho
- don’t take chances. trail to do the cool shit

resignation
- you can do it. you have the tools

144
Q

when to use 5 Ps

A

preflight

pre-takeoff

hourly in flight

-pre-decent

  • before entering pattern / final approach fix
145
Q

types of ADs

A

airworthiness directive

emergency
-must be done right now

!! mandatory !!

146
Q

MMEL

A

master minimum equipment list

more general

147
Q

kinds of equipment lists

A

MMEL

MEL

KOEL

comprehensive equipment list

148
Q

nacelle

A

streamlined housing for something on outside of plane (like an engine)

149
Q

ground effect

A

wash from wings can’t go anywhere and so drag is reduced

150
Q

P factor

A

propeller factor

AKA asymmetric blade factor

AKA asymmetric propeller loading

151
Q

why do we have differential ailerons

A

the up deflecting aileron reduces the camber (curve) of the wing and so has ness lift. and less induced drag. it lifts up more to induce more drag to counteract the yaw caused by the other wing and it’s aileron.

the down aileron has more camber and has more lift and therefore more induced drag and thus may yaw in that direction.

152
Q

new CG because of shifted weight formula

A

Wx*(arm-arm)/Wt=∆CG±CGo

plus or minus the old CG depending on direction moved

as presented by video:
Wx/Wt=∆CG/distance

then ± depending on direction moved

153
Q

new CG because of added or subtracted weight

A

±W(distance W & CGo)/new W=∆CG

154
Q

what is a station?

in regard to center of gravity

A

defined distance from a datum

155
Q

corkscrew effect is also called

A

spiraling slipstream

156
Q

what is a stall?

A

not enough lift to oppose the weight of the aircraft. *not a total loss of lift.

air has broken up to the leading edge of the wing. no laminar flow.

157
Q

coefficient of lift

A

lift depending on conditions

158
Q

coefficient of lift maximum

CL max

A

perfect conditions

159
Q

where do stalls start on the differnt wing types

A

straight
root

swept back
tip

triangle
center

160
Q

where is the stall warning tab or hole and why?

A

lined up with the ailerons so can be warned before full stall

161
Q

AOA stall

A

as AOA increases so does lift and drag proportionally. at AOA lift cannot overcome weight but drag continues to increase.

162
Q

allowable load factors per category

A

For transport category airplanes, from −1 to +2.5 (or up to +3.8 depending on design takeoff weight)

For normal category and commuter category airplanes, from −1.52 to +3.8

For utility category airplanes, from −1.76 to +4.4

For acrobatic category airplanes, from −3.0 to +6.0

For helicopters, from −1 to +3.5

163
Q

service bulletin

A

not mandatory. notice of an improvement. often become airworthiness directives (ADs)

164
Q

A&P mechanic

A

A&P stands for Airframe and Powerplant. This means that those who are qualified as an A&P mechanic are licensed to work on both the external frame (airframe) and engine (powerplant) portions of an aircraft. A&P mechanics are also known as aircraft maintenance technicians, or AMT’s.

165
Q

longitudinal stability

A

stability of the longitudinal axis. plane pivots on lateral axis

166
Q

lateral stability

A

stability of lateral axis. plane pivots on longitudinal axis

AKA roll stability

factors of:
- dihedral
- sweepback
- keel effect
- weight distribution
- pendulum effect (from a video)
— high wing are more stable so low wing have greater dihedral

167
Q

what forces are opposite each other

A

lift (vertical component) V weight and tail down force

lift (horizontal component) V centrifugal
total lift V resultant load

thrust V drag
- parasite (friction, interference, form)
- induced

168
Q

about how many towered airports are there? untowered?

A

500

20,000

169
Q

about how high does ground effect go for a fixed wing aircraft

A

about 1/2 the length of the wingspan

170
Q

what does an FSS do?

A

flight service station

provides pilots with weather and aeronautical information through pilot briefings, flight planning, inflight advisory services, weather cameras, search and rescue initiation, aircraft emergencies, and Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs).

171
Q

what is an FBO

A

fixed base operator

can have fuel, service, and/or even food

172
Q

runway incursion categories

A

A = barely avoid collision

B = significant potential for collision

C = ample time and distance to avoid collision

D = little or no risk of collision

173
Q

category V class V type

A

A category is an overarching classification of aircraft. The following are an example of aircraft categories:

Airplane
Rotorcraft
Powered lift
The Marine Corp’s V-22 is the best example. The US Army plans to transition its entire fleet of helicopters into this category.
Glider
Lighter than air (balloons and airships)
Powered parachute (not to be confused with powered paragliders)
Weight-shift control aircraft (hang gliders and ultralight trikes)
—————————————————————-
What is a “class” of aircraft?
Some categories are further broken down into a “class.” Classes are a way to further distinguish between types of aircraft. Not every category has a class.

The classes most pilots will deal with are “land,” “sea,” “single-engine,” and “multi-engine.”

Airplane category:
single-engine land class
multi-engine land class
single-engine sea class
multi-engine sea class

Rotorcraft category:
helicopter class
gyroplane class

Lighter than air category:
airship class
balloon class

Powered parachute category:
powered parachute land class
powered parachute sea class

Weight-shift-control category:
weight-shift-control aircraft land class
weight-shift-control aircraft sea class
—————————————————————-
All turbojets, regardless of weight, require a “type” rating.
Non-turbojet (ie. turboprop) airplanes don’t have a separate “type” rating until they get above 12,500 pounds.
Most helicopters don’t have type ratings because they don’t weigh more than 12,500 pounds.
For example, most King Air 200s weigh less than 12,500 lbs, so it stays in the airplane category with a class of multi-engine land and no type rating.

The King Air 350, though, weighs more than 12,500 lbs. In order to fly it, you have to get special training and a check ride.

Type ratings go on a pilot’s FAA license. Often times the name of the aircraft and the designated type are completely different (see below).

The FAA outlines its training requirements for a type rating in their Advisory Circular: AC 61-89e.

ATP (9 decks)

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