General Flight Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

When must an accurate altimeter check be conducted?

A

Before every flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where may an altimeter check be conducted?

A
  • Apron,
  • Threshold,
  • Airfield reference point.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To within how many feet must an altimeter read to be serviceable?

A

60 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is an altimeter considered to be unserviceable?

A

When it read outside of +/- 75 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many altimeters does an IFR aircraft require?

A

Two serviceable altimeters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Airfield elevation in 21ft, and one altimeter reads +40ft and the second one reads -40ft. Are you allowed to continue your flight?

A

Yes, the first altimeter reads within 60ft and although the second one reads more than 60ft out of tolerance the flight to a second aerodrome, where the altimeter can be rechecked, may be conducted. If the second altimeter still reads an error in excess of 60ft at the second aerodrome check, then it is to be considered unserviceable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Airfield elevation 935ft, and one altimeters reads 1010ft and the second one reads 850ft; are you allowed to continue your flight?

A

No, the first altimeter has a error of +75ft, which is still acceptable but the second one has an error of 85ft which is outside the tolerances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

To within how many feet must a VFR altimeter read airfield elevation, when checked?

A

100ft (110ft for aerdromes above 3300ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

May a VFR altimeter be used for operations above FL200?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where can an accurate QNH be sourced from for the altimeter check?

A
  • ATIS,
  • Tower,
  • Automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor (AWIS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the transition altitude in Australia?

A

10,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the transition level in Australia with an Area QNH of 1020 hPa?

A

FL110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the transition level in Australia with an Area QNH of 1009 hPa?

A

FL115

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Below what QNH is transition level FL115 used?

A

Below 1013 hPa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Below what QNH is transition level FL120 used?

A

Below 997 hPa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When must you set the local QNH?

A

When below the transition altitude and within 100 miles of a known station. (Area QNH must be set if no known stations are available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the standard pressure altimeter setting?

A

1013.25 hPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can you plan to fly at FL110?

A

No, it is part of the transition layer.

19
Q

What QNH must you set when descending through the transition layer and no known local QNH is available?

A

Area QNH.

20
Q

What are the meteorological minimas for VFR aircraft in class A airspace?

A

None as VFR aircraft are not allowed in class A airspace.

21
Q

What visibility and distance from cloud is required for VFR aircraft in class C airspace?

A

8km visibility above 10,000 ft
5km visibility below 10,000 ft
1500m horizontal distance from cloud
1000ft above and below cloud

22
Q

What visibility and distance from cloud is required for VFR aircraft in class D airspace?

A

5km visibility
600m horizontal distance from cloud
1000 ft above and 500 ft below cloud

23
Q

What visibility and distance from cloud is required for VFR aircraft in class E airspace?

A

8km visibility above 10,000 ft
5km visibility below 10,000 ft
1500m horizontal distance from cloud
1000ft above and below cloud

24
Q

What visibility and distance from cloud is required for VFR aircraft in class G airspace?

A
  • 8 km visibility above 10,000 ft
  • 5 km visibility below 10,000 ft
  • 1500m horizontal distance from cloud
  • 1000ft above and below cloud except that
    When below 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL:
  • Clear of cloud and
  • In sight of ground or water
  • 5 km visibility
25
Q

What met minima is required for SVFR?

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • In sight of ground or water
  • Vis of 1600 m
26
Q

For an IFR aircraft, what is the maximum time interval between two positive fixes?

A

2 hrs

27
Q

When navigating by visual reference to ground or water, what is the maximum time interval between two positive fixes?

A

30 min.

28
Q

When navigating by visual reference under the VFR in controlled airspace, to within how many miles must the track be kept?

A

1 nm

29
Q

Is a VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud allowed?

A

Yes, as long as:

  • VFR met minima’s can be maintained during climb cruise and descent
  • A positive fix can be obtained every 30 min
  • The forecast for the destination will allow descent in VMC
30
Q

How accurate must a time reference be kept at?

A

+/- 30 sec

31
Q

What is deemed to be a positive fix when navigating under IFR?

A
  • NDB station passage
  • VOR station passage
  • DME
  • Intersection of two or more position lines with angles not more than 45 degrees and within the rated coverage of the aid, except when only NDB’s are used within 30 nm of the NDB’s.
  • GNSS
32
Q

Beyond what limits must a pilot report track deviations to ATC when using:

  • ILS or VOR
  • NDB
  • DME
  • GNSS
  • Visual
A
  • Half scale deflection
  • +/- 5 degrees
  • +/- 2 nm
  • Half scale deflection
  • 1 nm
33
Q

May an aircraft enter restricted airspace or deviate off track in controlled airspace in an emergency.

A

Not without prior clearance, but if necessary they should broadcast a PAN call, squawk an emergency code and make regular transmissions. The aircraft proceeds on it’s own risk.

34
Q

What are the tolerances used to avoid controlled airspace when using:

  • NDB
  • VOR
  • DR
  • RNP2
  • RNAV 5/RNAV 10/ RNP 10/ RNP 4
  • Visual 0 - 2000 ft
  • Visual 2001 ft - 5000 ft
  • Visual 5001 ft - 10,000 ft
  • Visual 10,001 ft - FL200
  • Visual FL205 - FL300
  • Visual FL 305 - FL400
A
  • NDB +/- 6.9 degrees
  • VOR +/- 5.2 degrees
  • DR +/- 12 degrees
  • RNP2 +/- 7 nm
  • RNAV 5/RNAV 10/ +/- 14 nm
    RNP 10/ RNP 4
  • Visual 0 - 2000 ft +/- 1 nm (2 nm at night)
  • Visual 2001 ft - 5000 ft +/- 2 nm (3 nm at night)
  • Visual 5001 ft - 10,000 ft +/- 4 nm (5 nm at night)
  • Visual 10,001 ft - FL200 +/- 8 nm
  • Visual FL205 - FL300 +/- 12 nm
  • Visual FL 305 - FL400 +/- 16 nm
35
Q

What navigation equipment is required for an IFR RPT aircraft ?

A
  • 2 ADF/VOR/GNSS (At least one ADF or VOR) and
  • 1 DME or GNSS; or
  • 2 GNSS
36
Q

Which aircraft must carry an airborne weather radar?

A

IFR RPT and CHTR above 5700 kg

37
Q

When must a GPWS be carried?

A

IFR RPT and CHTR aircraft above 15,000 kg or 10 pax or more.

38
Q

May an aircraft which is required to have a GPWS installed depart, if the GPWS is unserviceable?

A

No, unless approved by a MEL and the aerodrome is not one where the GPWS can be repaired.

39
Q

When must an aircraft carry a serviceable mode A, C, or S transponder?

A
  • When operating in class A, B, or C airspace
  • Any airspace above 10,000ft
  • When operating in class E airspace below 10,000ft
40
Q

When must aircraft carry serviceable ADS-B equipment?

A

When flying above FL290

41
Q

Can you continue to operate a flight in controlled airspace if your transponder fails?

A
  • Only upon request and approval from ATC.

- Only when flying to a port where the transponder can be fixed.

42
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to maintain separation once following an RA warning from TCAS?

A

It is the pilots responsibility until:

  • re-established on track or
  • re-cleared by ATC and
  • ATC has been advised that the TCAS maneuver has been completed.
43
Q

Does an RA have to be reported?

A

Yes, to ATSB and SMS

44
Q

How can one avoid TA’s and RA’s in busy airspace?

A

Reduce rates of climb and descend through the last 1000ft.