Departure, Approach and Landing Procedures Flashcards

0
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to avoid collision during taxi operations on maneuvering areas?

A

Joint controller and pilot responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

When must approval for engine start be requested by the PIC?

A

When notified by

  • ATIS
  • NOTAM
  • AIP Supplement
  • ATC or
  • Terminal airport chart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What must a pilot do before requesting a taxi clearance?

A

Listen to the current ATIS information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

May an aircraft taxi across illuminated stop bars when a taxi clearance has been given?

A

No, the stop bars need to be switched off. Confirm with ATC if conflicting messages occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should a pilot do when wishing to depart off an intermediate holding point?

A

Request this during the taxi clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is responsible for terrain clearance during departures?

A

It is the pilot responsibility to maintain terrain clearance except that when being radar vectored at certain altitudes until the pilot is being cleared a visual approach or commences an instrument approach or is instructed to maintain clearance visually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do domestic aircraft have to change to the tower frequency before departure?

A

At or near the holding point when ready for take-off. (International flights will be told by ground when to change to tower frequency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When may an aircraft enter a runway?

A
When being cleared to do so for:
- Take-off
- Line-up
- Backtrack
- Cross
and the stop bars have been switched off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does a line up clearance allow an aircraft to backtrack?

A

No. A separate back-tracking clearance needs to be sought.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

May an aircraft hold on a runway?

A

No, unless permission from ATC has been give.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When may an aircraft take-off?

A

When it has been “Cleared for take-off” by ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the separation minima for two departing aircraft off the same runway?

A
  • The preceding aircraft is beyond the upwind end threshold
  • The preceding aircraft has commenced a turn
  • If the rwy is >1800M the preceding aircraft is at least 1800m ahead
  • If the preceding aircraft is 7000kg or less and the following is 2000kg or less and is slower at least 600m are between the two
  • If both are 2000kg or less at least 600m between the two
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When may an aircraft take-off when lining up behind a landed aircraft?

A

When the landing aircraft has vacated the runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When may ATC offer and pilots request/accept a visual departure?

A

When weather is VMC till reaching the MVA or LSALT/MSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must be included in a departure report on first contact with Centre, Approach or Departure in class C and D airspace?

A
  • Direction of turn
  • Heading turning on to
  • Level passing through to nearest 100ft
  • last assigned level.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must be included in a departure report on first contact with Centre, Approach or Departure in class D airspace?

A
  • Tracking info
  • ## Last assigned altitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When must an aircraft be established on track by?

A

5nm unless following a SID.

18
Q

If frequency change instructions have been given before take-off by when must pilots establish contact with the departure/approach controller?

A

ASAP, preferably within 1 nm from takeoff

19
Q

By when can a pilot expect a frequency change after take-off?

A

Prior to reaching 2000ft.

20
Q

What speeds should be flown:

  • Below 10,000ft?
  • 20nm from touchdown
  • 10nm from touchdown or IAF
  • 5nm from touchdown
A
  • 250kts or the speed published on the star
  • 230kts
  • 186-160kts
  • 160-150kts
21
Q

By when do the promulgated speeds have to be established?

A

On or just before reaching the promulgated point. (E.g.: 160kts on or just before reaching 5nm)

22
Q

During a visual approach by day how low can an aircraft descend?

A
  • for IFR not lower than 500ft above lowest CTA step

- for IFR and VFR not lower than CAR 157

23
Q

During a visual approach by night how low can an aircraft descend?

A
  • LSALT/MSA
  • DGA steps
  • 500 ft above CTA steps
  • radar vector altitude
24
Q

During a visual approach by night, when can an aircraft descend below LSALT/MSA, DGA, MVA, or 500ft above CTA steps?

A
  • within circling area
  • within 5nm established not below on slope of PAPI or T-VASIS (7nm if REY has ILS)
  • within 10nm established not below on slope of ILS/GLS (14nm for RWY 16L/34L Sydney)
25
Q

Is an RPT aircraft allowed to depart a non-controlled aerodrome without ATC clearance?

A

Normally the pilots should attempt to contact the local CEN station before taxi, but if this is not possible then take-off may be completed on a broadcast basis as long as:

  • contact with the ground operation is established with immediate access to a phone, or
  • a SARTIME for departure of not more than 30min from EOBT has been submitted.
26
Q

Within how many miles of transiting an aerodrome should a pilot monitor the local CTAF frequency?

A

10nm

27
Q

Which direction is a standard circuit pattern?

A

Left hand

28
Q

What is the max recommended speed of aircraft in a circuit pattern?

A

200kts

29
Q

What squawk code should an aircraft with communications failure transmit?

A

7600

30
Q

During take-off in a non-controlled aerodrome, what distance must be established between an aircraft taking off and another lining up for take-off?

A

The preceding aircraft should be:

  • Passing the upwind end threshold or
  • Have commenced a turn or
  • If the rwy is more than 1800m long it is airborne and at least 1800m ahead
  • If both aircraft are below 2000kg MTOW the preceding aircraft is at least 600m ahead.
31
Q

What is the recommended circuit height for:

  • High performance jets and turbo-props? (150kts or more)
  • Medium performance piston (55 kts - 150 kts)
  • Low performance ultralights/heli (max 55 kts)
A
  • 1500 ft AGL
  • 1000 ft AGL
  • 500 ft AGL
32
Q

What must be included in a taxi report to CEN at a non-controlled aerodrome?

A
  • Aircraft type
  • POB (not RPT)
  • IFR
  • Location
  • Destination/Departure Quadrant/Intentions
  • Runway to be used.
33
Q

If only one radio is present or an aircraft cannot monitor the the CEN frequency at a CTAF aerodrome, what must the pilot do?

A

The pilot must report to ATC that they will be transferring to CTAF (Location and Frequency).

34
Q

What is the recommended distance for an aircraft from the departure end of the runway before turning to the opposite of the circuit direction during a departure?

A

3 nm

35
Q

Within how many miles of an aerodrome must an aircraft be established when departing?

A

5 nm except when following a SID

36
Q

What must be included in the departure report from a CTAF?

A
  • Time
  • Outbound track (or tracking to intercept track)
  • Intended cruising level
  • ETA for first enroute reporting point.
37
Q

By what distance should a inbound reporting call on the local CTAF frequency be made to other aircraft?

A

10 nm or a distance commensurate with the speed and workload of an aircraft.

38
Q

By what height should and aircraft be established on finals?

A

500 ft

39
Q

Are straight-in approaches allowed?

A

They are not recommended. If they are flown the following should be applied:

  • It should not provide conflict with other aircraft already in the circuit
  • Must be established on final not less than 3 nm
  • Transponder and lights should be turned on
  • Aircraft on base have right of way
40
Q

Within how many minutes after the ETA should the SARTIME be cancelled or extended?

A

10 min