General and Local Anesthetic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

What organs do you have to be cautious with when administering anesthetics in children and elderly patients?

A

Live and Kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do general anesthetics cause to happen in the brain?

A

It depresses the CNS producing loss of pain sensation and consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the use for local anesthetics?

A

To cause loss of pain sensation and feeling in a designated area of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do local anesthetics not do?

A

They do not produce the systemic effects associated with severe CNS depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do all local anesthetics have for a prefix?

A

“caine”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False:

You use one drug to get the effects of anesthesia?

A

False: You have to use multiple drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False:

The more medications given to the patient to reach the effects of anesthesia the better?

A

False: the least amount of medications used the better to reduce adverse effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is analgesia for?

A

Loss of pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the term unconsciousness mean in terms of anesthesia?

A

The loss of awareness of one’s surroundings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is amnesia?

A

The inability to recall what took place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True of False:

Asthma does not effect the administration of anesthesia drugs?

A

False: Some of the anesthesia drugs are given in aerosol form that needs to be inhaled. So, if the patient has asthma it can effect the absorption of the medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a patient has a history of these two things an adverse reaction my occur.

A

Seizures or stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is renal function a risk factor for anesthesia?

A

If a person has reduced renal function they may not be able to excrete the drug properly leading to toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is hepatic function a risk factor for anesthesia?

A

If a person has reduced hepatic function they may not be able to metabolize the drug properly leading to toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does it mean by balanced anesthesia?

A

A use of a combination of drugs, each with a different effect, causing the outcome wanted while in surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the preoperative medication administered that decreases secretions?

A

Cimetadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are sedative-hypnotics administered to patients while give anesthesia?

A

To relax the body during the excitement stage, and to paralyze the body during surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are antiemetics?

A

Stoping nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why would you administer an antiemetic during anesthesia?

A

To make sure they do not vomit causing aspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why would you give an antihistamine during anesthesia?

A

To reduce allergic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why would you administer a narcotic during anesthesia?

A

To reduce pain and sedate the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first stage of anesthesia?

A

The analgesia stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why happens during the first phase of anesthesia?

A

Loss of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the second stage of anesthesia?

A

The excitement stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens during the second phase of anesthesia?

A

Patient becomes combative, muscle spasms occur, elevate heart rate and blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the third stage of anesthesia?

A

Surgical anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens during the third phase of anesthesia?

A

A paralytic relaxation of the muscle and loss of reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the fourth stage of anesthesia?

A

Medullary paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens during the fourth stage of anesthesia?

A

Deep CNS suppression; no respiratory rate. May become fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False:

It is important to reach stage four of anesthesia?

A

False: you never want to reach stage four of anesthesia. This could become fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the induction period of anesthesia?

A

The period from the beginning of anesthesia until Stage 3 is reached.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the maintenance period of anesthesia?

A

The period from stage 3 until the surgical procedure is complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the recovery period of anesthesia?

A

The period of discontinuation of the anesthetic until the patient has regained consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

During the recovery period of anesthesia where does the patient get their care?

A

In the PACU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Are barbiturate and nonbarbiturate anesthetics rapid acting?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are volatile liquids used for in anesthesia?

A

To maintain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do gas anesthetics do?

A

Keeps the patient unconscious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False:

There are three phases of a general anesthetic?

A

False: there are 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the difference between an analgesic and an anesthetic?

A

An analgesic reduces pain.

An anesthetic reduces the sensation of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the prototype for barbiturate anesthetics?

A

thiopental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is thiopental administered?

A

intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does thiopental do?

A

It induces rapid anesthesia with an ultra short recovery period. Gets you to sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is thiopental administered?

A

After the time out when every one is in the OR

44
Q

True or false:

Thiopental is lipophilic?

A

True

45
Q

True or false:

Thiopental does not diffuse rapidly into the brain.

A

False

46
Q

What are the adverse effects of thiopental?

A

Decreased BP, HR and RR.

47
Q

What do type of medications do you need to use caution with when using thiopental?

A

Other CNS suppressants.

48
Q

What kinds of drugs would thiopental reduce their effectiveness?

A

Birth control, epilepsy drugs, and anticoagulants.

49
Q

What is the major adverse effect of thiopental?

A

Walking up with delirium.

50
Q

What is the onset time of thiopental?

A

1 minute

51
Q

What is the duration of thiopental

A

20-30 minutes.

52
Q

What is the non-barbiturate prototype drug?

A

Midazolam

53
Q

What class does Midazolam belong to?

A

benzodiazepines

54
Q

What is does Midazolam do?

A

It potentiates GABA; produces amnesia and sedation

55
Q

True or False:

Midazolam has a slow onset?

A

False: it has a rapid onset.

56
Q

What conditions do you need to use caution with when using Midazolam?
*hint- there are 4

A

COPD, kidney or heart disease, pregnancy, lactation.

57
Q

What are the adverse effects of Midazolam?

*hint there are 4

A

Respiratory and CNS depression; decreased BP, N & V

58
Q

What does Midazolam interact with?

A

Other CNS depressants

59
Q

What is Propofol used for?

A

Short procedures due to it being a short acting drug.

60
Q

When giving Midazolam by IV what is the onset time?

A

3-5 minutes

61
Q

When giving Midazolam by IV what is the peak?

A

< 30 mins

62
Q

When giving Midazolam by IV what is the duration?

A

2-6 h

63
Q

What is Nitrous Oxide?

A

An anesthetic gas

64
Q

How is an anesthetic gas administered?

A

It is inhaled though a nonrebreather mask

65
Q

True or false:

Nitrous Oxide is a potent analgesic?

A

True

66
Q

True or false:

Nitrous Oxide is lipophobic and produces severe CNS excitement.

A

False:

It is lipophilic and causes severe CNS depression.

67
Q

What is a contraindication of nitrous oxide?

A

pregnancy

68
Q

What are the adverse effects of nitrous oxide?

*hint there are 5

A

Hypoxia, bowel obstruction, sinus pain, pneumothorax, inactivates Vitamin B12.

69
Q

What does nitrous oxide interact with?

*hint there are 2

A

Other CNS depressants & Halothane

70
Q

What is the prototype drug for volatile liquids?

A

Halothane

71
Q

How is Halothane administered?

A

It is inhaled

72
Q

What is the use for Halothane?

A

To induce or maintain anesthesia

73
Q

What are the contraindications for Halothane?

*hint there are 4

A

Hepatic or cardiovascular disease, pregnancy or lactation.

74
Q

What is the main danger of Halothane?

A

It can trigger malignant hyperthermia

75
Q

What do you need to make sure to have in the room just in case when administering Halothane?

A

Life support just incase malignant hyperthermia sets in.

76
Q

What is the onset and peak of Halothane?

A

Rapid

77
Q

What is the duration of Halothane?

A

To the end of inhalation.

78
Q
Identify a contraindication to general anesthetics.
A. No suitable veins
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Status epilepticus
D. Anemia
A

A. No suitable veins

General anesthetics and their antidotes are normally administered by IV.

79
Q

Why is Halothane normally kept cold?

A

Because it is unstable at room temperatures

80
Q

What is the antidote for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

81
Q

How often can you administer Halothane?

A

Once every three weeks.

82
Q

If a patient has history of this you should not administer Halothane?

A

Jaundice.

83
Q

True or false:

Both anesthetic gases and volatile liquids are flammable?

A

False:

Only anesthetic gases are flammable.

84
Q

What is the topical administration drug of local analgesics?

A

EMLA cream

85
Q

What do you do after applying a topical analgesic?

A

You cover it with plastic wrap for 45 minutes.

After removal of plastic wrap the skin will appear completely white and it will numb

86
Q

What local analgesic is given through infiltration?

A

All the caine drugs. Novacaine, lidocaine etc.

87
Q

When is a local analgesic through infiltration administered?

A

For giving stitches

88
Q

What is a field block?

A

A specific area block

89
Q

When is a field block commonly used?

A

In L&D for a pundendal block of the whole pelvic girdle.

90
Q

When is a nerve block commonly used?

A

In ortho surgeries.

91
Q

When a nerve block is used in orthopedic surgeries what is used after to decrease blood flow so the surgery can begin?

A

A tourniquet

92
Q

What is the action of the local anesthetic lidocaine?

A

A temporary interruption in the production and condition of nerve impulses.

93
Q

The permeability of these ions get affected by lidocaine.

A

Sodium

94
Q

What would indicate the use of lidocaine?

A

For infiltration anesthesia, peripheral nerve block, spinal anesthesia and the relief of pain

95
Q

When giving an epidural what part of the spine does it effect?

A

The medication bathes outside of the spinal sac and the nerves.

96
Q

When giving a spinal what part of the spine does it effect?

A

It goes closer to the spinal cord than an epidural and gives total pain relief

97
Q

When administering an epidural and spinal injection what does the patient have to do so the needle is placed in the spine correctly\?

A

The patient needs to leave forward with their back fully rounded to separate their vertebrae.

98
Q

What are the contraindications for lidocaine?

*hint there are 5

A

Known allergy, heart block, shock, pregnancy and lactation

99
Q

What are the adverse reactions to lidocaine?

*hint there are 7

A

headache, restlessness, anxiety, blurred vision, cause, vomiting, myocardial depression.

100
Q

What are the drug-to-drug interactions with lidocaine?

A

Succinycholine & epinephrine

101
Q

What are the two route you can give lidocaine?

A

IM and topical

102
Q

What is the onset time of lidocaine when given IM.

A

5-10 minutes

103
Q

What is the peak time of lidocaine when give IM?

A

5-15 minutes

104
Q

What is the duration time of lidocaine when give IM?

A

2 h

105
Q

What important assessment should the nurse make before a patient receives a general anesthesia?
A. Assess skin lesions
B. Assess family support
C. Assess preoperative teaching

A

A. Assess skin lesions

Make sure to monitor for skin breakdown