Future orientated cognition Flashcards

1
Q

According to Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014), how many modes of future-orientated cognition are there?

A

4

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2
Q

Four modes are identified by Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014).
What is simulation?

A

Constructing a detailed mental representation of the future

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3
Q

Four modes are identified by Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014).
What is planning?

A

Identifying and organising the steps to achieve a goal

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4
Q

Four modes are identified by Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014).
What is prediction?

A

Estimating how likely a future outcome is and/or what one’s reaction to it will be

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5
Q

Four modes are identified by Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014).
What is intention?

A

Mentally setting a goal to enact in the future

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6
Q

Four modes are identified by Szpunar, Spreng, and Schacter (2014).
What are they?

A

Simulation, panning, prediction, intention

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7
Q

To think about the future, we need to be aware of it ___________ and to be aware of ______ in relation to ______.

A

To think about the future, we need to be aware of it both conceptually and to be aware of ourselves in relation to time.

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8
Q

What is Chronognosia?

A

The knowledge we have about physical time

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9
Q

What is Chronesthesia?

A

Consciousness of subjectively experienced time, allowing us to travel mentally back and forth in time

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10
Q

What is episodic future thinking?

A

The capacity to mentally project the self into the future to pre-experience events.

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11
Q

Atance & Mahy point out that manipulations or _____ allow young children to better talk and think about the future

A

contexts

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12
Q

As well as being aware that events will occur in the future, adults can also judge when they will occur (such as tomorrow, next week, next year)
When does this ability emerge developmentally according to Friedman?

A

Learn about the order of time between 6 - 8.

Can move mentally forward through these (from different points in each cycle) aged 8 - 10.

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13
Q

Friedman (1977, 1989) found that children learn about the order of days of the week, months of the year, and seasons at what age?

A

6 - 8

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14
Q

Friedman (1977, 1989) found that children can start to be able to mentally through time at what age?

A

8 - 10

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15
Q

Harner used what task to in investigating 2 - 4 yr olds understanding of temporal terms?

A

Toy - selection

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16
Q

Harner used which 2 time periods in investigating 2 - 4 yr olds understanding of temporal terms?

A

yesterday and tomorrow

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17
Q

According to Harner, could 2 year olds understand that a pile of toys that they had played with the previous day were “yesterday’s toys” nor that a pile of toys set aside for the next day were “tomorrow’s toys”?

A

No

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18
Q

Harner found which age group could understand the terms ‘yesterday’ and ‘tomorrow’ reasonably well?

A

4 yr olds

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19
Q

In Harners investigation of understanding the development of temporal terms, which term could 3 year olds better understand out of ‘yesterday’ and ‘tomorrow’?

A

‘Yesterday’

‘Tomorrow’ was understood as being in the future but not necessarily the next day,

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20
Q

Friedman found that _-year-olds are unable to differentiate between events happening one to two weeks in the future from those occurring months in the future.

A

4

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21
Q

Atance supports Freidman and explains 4 yr olds are better at differentiating differences in time retrospectively because _____ isn’t available for future thinking and ______ needed instead (Atance, 2008)

A

Memory is not available for future thinking and social construction needed instead.

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22
Q

Chernyak et al. (2017) found that children who were asked to talk about themselves more showed better _____ and _____ _____. Also more use of personal pronouns (“I”, “me”) and the future tense indicating greater ___________.

A

Chernyak et al. (2017) found that children who were asked to talk about themselves more showed better planning and prospective memory. Also more use of personal pronouns (“I”, “me”) and the future tense indicating greater self projection.

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23
Q

Attance, Suddendorf, Quon all found what in young children’s talk about the future?

A

‘Unlikely events’ (imaginary drama)

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24
Q
Children asked to make predictions about what they will do tomorrow (Suddendorf & Busby, 2005)
Lower accuracy (most unlikely events) reported by the youngest group was not related to \_\_\_\_\_.
A

Verbal ability

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25
Q

Hayne, Gross, McNamee, Fitzgibbon, and Tustin used what additional factor to help children increase the accuracy of this future predictions?

A

Their parent

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26
Q

Quon found which factor increased the accuracy of children’s future predictions?

A

Things the children had control over.

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27
Q

What does ‘scaffolding future talk’ mean?

A

providing cues to facilitate performance in the accuracy of children’s future talk, such as talking about things they have control over or having a parent do some talking as well.

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28
Q

What does it mean to have greater episodicity?

A

Be able to conceptualise events that are sporadic, happening infrequently and irregularly.

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29
Q

Ward and Morris (2005) identify what two general methods of testing planning?

A

Puzzle-based procedures

Errand tasks

30
Q

What are the two general types of planning problem?

A

Well-defined

Ill-defined

31
Q

One example of a ‘puzzle-based’ procedure in testing planning?

A

Tower of Hanoi

32
Q

One advantage of ‘puzzle-based’ procedures in testing planning?

A

Participants cannot benefit from expertise or knowledge base (unless they’ve come across the puzzle previously)

33
Q

One disadvantage of ‘puzzle-based’ procedures in testing planning?

A

do not tap into “real-world” planning activities

34
Q

What is protocol analysis?

A

A methodology where the participant “thinks aloud” to give a commentary on their actions and provide a rationale for them

35
Q

Stages of planning: Luria (1978) defines the ability to organise behaviour in relation to a specific goal via a series of how many intermediate steps?

A

4

36
Q

What are Luria’s (1978) identified 4 immediate steps necessary for planning? What are they?

A

Formulation, execution, initial planning, concurrent planning.

37
Q

Luria’s (1978) identified 4 immediate steps necessary for planning. What is formulation?

A

Mental development of a logical strategy in order to determine the course of action needed to achieve a specified goal.

38
Q

Luria’s (1978) identified 4 immediate steps necessary for planning. What is execution?

A

Monitoring and guiding the execution of the plan to its successful conclusion

39
Q

Luria’s (1978) identified 4 immediate steps necessary for planning. What is initial planning?

A

The planning activity that takes place before overt problem-solving action begins.

40
Q

Luria’s (1978) identified 4 immediate steps necessary for planning. What is concurrent planning?

A

The “online” planning activity that occurs after problem-solving has started

41
Q

What according to Phillips et al. (2005) are among the most disabling features of frontal lobe injury? And why?

A

Disorders of planning, because planning abilities are essential in many everyday tasks and occupational settings.

42
Q

What are the features of Ill-defined problems?

A

do not have clear goals, solution paths, or expected solution

43
Q

What are the features of well-defined problems?

A

specific goals, clearly defined solution paths, and clear expected solutions

44
Q

Goel et al. (1997) and Goel and Grafman (2000)

Patients with focal lesions to the ______ showed problems in formulating plans and structuring them.

A

pre-frontal cortex

45
Q

Goel et al. (1997) and Goel and Grafman (2000) explained PCF lesions making planning poor due:

  1. inhibited access to large scale control/knowledge mechanisms.
  2. problems in judgement of their progress and when they needed to ______.
  3. problems coping with there being no right or wrong answers or _______ ________ ___ ______.
A

Stop.

Clearly defined end points.

46
Q

McCormack and Atance (2011) provide a review highlighting the importance of which 3 neural developments?

A

Temporal cognition, Executive function and Self-projection.

47
Q

McCormack and Atance (2011) provide a review highlighting the importance of developments in Temporal cognition, executive function and self-projection.
What is self-projection?

A

De-centering or perspective switching; shifting perspective from the immediate present to an alternative, imagined future environment involving the self

48
Q

What is a precursor to the development of planning in 9 - 19-month-olds?

A

Motor planning

49
Q

What is motor planning?

A

Change of speed of approach to an object depending on intended action.

50
Q

Age differences are greatest in older adults in tasks involving ____ and which are _____ rather than those that are more realistic and familiar.

A

Novelty and abstract

51
Q

For prospective memory to function successfully two separate components must work effectively. What are they?

A

A prospective / planning component and retrospective component.

52
Q

What are the 2 types of prospective memory cues?

A

Event-based

Time-based

53
Q

Why is prospective memory a vital developmental milestone ?

A

A precursor to independent living

54
Q

Young children have difficulties with prospective memory. They are usually able to _____________ but have difficulty actually acting upon that intention at the time it was required

A

Report what the intention was

55
Q

What are the 4 stages for prospective memory?

A

intention formation, retention, initiation, and execution

56
Q

What is inhibition?

affects prospective memory by aging

A

Inhibition is the ability to prevent automatic, habitual, dominant responses to stimuli
In favour of more context-specific, task-appropriate responses.

57
Q

What does set shifting indicate?

A

Set shifting indicates cognitive flexibility.

58
Q

What is set shifting?

A

The ability to move back and forth flexibly between different tasks or operations, adapting to changes in task demands or environmental context

59
Q

Schnitzspahn et al. (2013) found what 2 factors play a particularly important role in predicting PM performance?

A

Set shifting and inhibition

60
Q

What is metacognition?

A

Metacognition refers to one’s awareness of one’s own thought processes and the patterns that lie behind them

61
Q

Flavell (1979) distinguishes between 2 types of metacognition.
What are they?

A

Declarative metacognition

Procedural metacognition

62
Q

What is Declarative metacognition?

A

Knowing about one’s cognition

63
Q

What is Procedural metacognition?

A

Monitoring and controlling one’s cognition

64
Q

Why is metacognition important to successful prospective memory?

A

We need to know our limitations and areas of difficulty in order to compensate for them or work around them.

65
Q

Improvements in prospective memory, metamemory and executive functioning are seen through the primary school years, particularly at what ages?

A

7-8 years old

66
Q

What is Metamemory?

A

Metamemory refers to any judgment that is made about a memory.

67
Q

? -year-olds can accurately predict their performance on a simple PM task (Kvavilashvili & Ford, 2014).

A

5

68
Q

__ - ___ -year-olds can make accurate predictions about their own performance.
Only from age __ years are they able to set external reminders effectively.
(Redshaw, Vandersee, Bulley & Gilbert, 2018)

A

7 - 13

9

69
Q

What are the 3 strategies to improve prospective memory?

A

Implementation intention
Visualisation
Repetition of instructions

70
Q

______ builds upon implementation intention to employ episodic future thinking (EFT) to project oneself into one’s personally experienced future (e.g., Addis, Wong & Schacter, 2008)

A

Visualisation