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Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 > Frontier Big 89 > Flashcards

Frontier Big 89 Flashcards

1
Q

When is an alternate required?

Vol 1: 20.20.3, 35.20.1, 40.10.6

A

123 rule for domestic
123++ for flag (++ 1500 abov lowest pub IAP min/2sm more than the lowest viz min) ==== THE GREATER OF THE TWO

And

Method 2
Marginal weather = Dest mins (CAT1) within 100-1/2 Derived ALT Mins within 100 or 1/2… Second Alternate

Offline charters
International
Severe icing
Thunderstorms
RNAV only - No land based approaches!
Supplemental - on Dispatch release
3585 - check book for all the requirements V1 20.20.4
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2
Q

Explain Flaps optimized between 3 and 4?

Vol 1 20.32.6

A

If enroute icing is encountered, flaps 3 landing config may be required based on approach climb weight limits.

If the arrival airport WX is +8C then this is not an issue.

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3
Q

Explain method one vs method two? Standard strategy vs Obstacle? Procedures for both? Where would we see it listed?

A

Method 1 = Provides 1000ft terrain clearance 5miles either side of the centerline from V1 to destination.. Most FAL flights are Method1 at present

Method 2 = Provides 2000 ft terrain clearance 5miles either side of the centerline from cruise altitude to stops all along the route. In the event of a TO alternate requirement then Method 1 is used then reverts to Method 2.

STANDARD STRATEGY: (Used for method 1)
OBSTACLE STRATEGY: (Used for method 2)

Method of dispatch will be on the dispatch release.

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4
Q

Explain Ground Speed mini

A

During approach the FMGS continually calculates a speed based on ground speed to insure a safe inertial margin for abrupt wind changes. i.e. a microburst.

(FMGS-flight management guidance envelope system)

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5
Q

Preliminary Cockpit Prep

a. What is the minimum batt voltage and what does that voltage ensure?
b. What indications do you get when conducting an engine fire test with AC pwr?
c. Reference b above what indication are lost when performing with DC pwr?

A

a. 25.5 ensures 50% charge min
b. CFEDSME = CRC / Fire Push Button Lights / Engine Panel Fire Light / Discharge / Squib / Master Warn Lights / ECAM
c. CME = CRC / Master Warn Lights / ECAM

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6
Q

If brake accumulator pressure is out of green band, how can it be charged?

A

Yellow electric hydraulic pump

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7
Q

At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow elec hyd pump. Will this action pressurize the green hyd system?

A

Yes, green now pressurized by the PTU driven by yellow system pressure.

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8
Q

How do you perform an alternate brake check?

A

Yellow Pump - Off
Plane - Chocked
Parking Brake - Off
Press/hold brakes - 2000/2700PSI

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9
Q

When performing the brake check during taxi, the FO announces “pressure zero” Whats is indicated by this…

A

Green has taken over yellow pressure

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10
Q

During single engine taxi, the 2nd engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

A

3Minutes
Protects against thermal shock
Engines last longer

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11
Q

What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?

A

Temp +10 to -40 with visible moisture.
All operations when icing conditions exist except in climb and cruise when colder than -40c. During descent it should be on if VIZ Moist +10 to -40

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12
Q

Limitations (all of them and have understanding of all of Vol 2 sec 2

A

Limitations (all of them and have understanding of all of Vol 2 sec 2)

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13
Q

Memory items

A

Memory items

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14
Q

Performance problem with brake MEL.

A

Performance problem with brake MEL.

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15
Q

WB (what ways can you get a valid WB?)

A

ACARS via AWP, (acars weight/balance/performance)
TLR (takeoff/landing report)
CLP

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16
Q

Lights and Switches/ and systems

A

Lights and Switches/ and systems

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17
Q

What do the FACs do?

A

1 - Controls Inputs for
Rudder, Rudder Trim, Yaw Damp

2 - Computes Data for
Flight Envelope
Speed Functions

3 - Warning notice for (If functions are installed)
Low Energy
Wind Shear Detection

Flight Augmentation Computers
BSWFTRATTY

Beta target - Flaps 123. One N1 above 80% other N1 blow 35%

Speed Speed Speed (Flaps 2-F, blow 2000 to 100) / Forewarns you what is on the way / Alpha floor.

Windshear
Reactive 3/5 secs 50ft-1300ft/1300ft-50ft
Predictive prevents (real WX) on radar

Flight envelope protections (left side PFD/commands alpha floor to thrust levers shown on FMA and EWD

Tail-controls the following
Ruder limiting
Alternate yaw law
Turn Coordination
Trim
Yaw Damping.
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18
Q

When is a TO alternate required?

A

When departure airport weather is below CAT 1 mins

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19
Q

What is the time and distance for a TO alternate

A

Not more than 1 hr (single engine cruise in still wind) or 330 nm

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20
Q

When/what is required for AUTOLAND?

A

Crew trained
A/C capable
Runway available is CAT II/III
Viz 2400 RVR or 1/2m or worse

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21
Q

When in flight, under what circumstances would your speed brakes retract automatically?

A 
SEAFAT
S = SEC 1 / 3 both have faults (spoiler elevator computer)
E = Elevator L or R fault
A = Alpha Floor Active
F = Flaps Full
A = Alpha Prot Active
T = Thrusts lever > MCT
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22
Q

What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?

A

Optimizes aircraft performance during single engine operations.

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23
Q

If you loose the Blue Hyd system fluid, is the RAT available?

A

No because the RAT is powered by the blue hyd sys

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24
Q

What protections are available in Normal Law, Alternate Law, Direct Law?

A

NAD Laws
N-BPALS
A-LS
D-N

Normal Law: Bank Pitch AOA Load Speed

Alternate Law: Load / high Low speed (maybe)

Direct Law: None

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25
Q

Is alpha floor available in Alternate Law? Direct Law?

A

No, No

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26
Q

Why should the Captain wait to call for the “after start” checklist until after visually confirms that the tow bar has been disconnected?

A

Because the FO will turn on the yellow electric pump (nose wheel steering)

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27
Q

What color is the “NW STRG DISC”

A

Green when in towing position. Amber with one engine running.

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28
Q

Do you have A/Skid if you lose your normal braking?

A

Yes, if the BSCU is working.

BSCU-brake steering control unit

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29
Q

What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS Bus if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100 kts?

A

Emergency Generator….

> 100 knots the RAT will deploy and powers the blue hydraulic system which drives the EMER GEN via a hydraulic motor.

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30
Q

What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the ramp?

A

40% N1

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31
Q

How do you get out of “TOGA LOCK” is triggered by “A FLOOR”?

A

Match and Mash. Push throttles to match then mash the auto thrust off.

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32
Q

What flight control is left when in mechanical back up law?

A

Pitch trim (THS) and rudder.

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33
Q

RVSM Airspace requires specific equipment to be operational - what is it?

A

FFAT PAD:

FWC (Flight Warning Computer)
FCU (Flight Control Unit-controls autopilot)
Autopilot
Transponder

2 PFDs (Primary Flight Display)
2 ADRs (ADR 1 reqd) (Air Data Reference)
2 DMCs (Display Management Computer)
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34
Q

What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

A

Flight Director or Autopilot
Error no more than .5 nm
Engage no later than 500 ft AGL.
SID in database

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35
Q

What is the required response to “SINK RATE” aural warning?

A

Go around

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36
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less that ¾ m, or RVR 4000?

A

With an autopilot

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37
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is ½ m or RVR 2400 ft or less?

A

As a cat 2 or 3 autoland.

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38
Q

What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

A

DFW
Dispatch / flight release
Flight plan along with WX / Notams
Weight / balance / Perf (AWP or TLR)

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39
Q

What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning light during CAT II/III approach?

A

Immediate missed approach

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40
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evac?

A

By using the normal call buttons.

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41
Q

What are the maneuvering speeds on the Airbus?

Green Dot
S speed
F speed for selected flap position

A

Green Dot = L/Dmax (best glide performance, maneuvering speed, LRC)
S Speed = Minimum Slat retraction Speed
F Speed = Minimum Flap retraction speed

42
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

A

500/500/500 (must have HIRL and CLL)

43
Q

What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?

A

Check ON and STBY NAV lights out.

Ensure HF and AM lights extinguished.

44
Q

When is an exterior inspection required?

A

Every Preflight and post-flight (unless another crew is taking the aircraft)

45
Q

When is a crew briefing required?

A

First flight of the day and crew changes are made.

46
Q

When is a DDA required?

A

For any approach that specifies an MDA.

47
Q

While conducting an ECAM procedure what are the 5 things the Pilot Flying is responsible for?

A

FANCTS

Flight Path
Aircraft Configuration
Navigation
Communication
Thrust Levers
Speed
48
Q

Who is the pilot flying on the ground?

A

Captain

49
Q

Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums ?

A

No.

Yes, the higher of 1000 ft AGL/3 sm vis or the published circling altitude and weather mins

50
Q

How long is the aircraft airworthiness signoff good for?

A

8 days

Routine Operations - Vol I 25.20 pg1

51
Q

Who normally performs the Engine fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?

A

FO normally, but could be CA

52
Q

When do we use the flight path vector/director for approaches?

A

TRK-FPA (flight path director) for MANAGED/SELECTED and SELECTED/SELECTED non-precision approaches.

FD for all FULLY MANAGED non-precision approaches.

53
Q

If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?

A

On the ground-not without coordination with MCC.

In air-only if CA deems necessary for safe flight.

54
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

A

Always

55
Q

An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which minimums can F9 use?

A

LNAV/VNAV

56
Q

What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?

A

CLIMBING:
PF, “Pull standard” and state alt passing
PM, “Standard pulled, altitude checked”

DESCENDING:
PF, “Push QNH, (setting)” and state alt passing
PM. “QNH pushed (setting) altitude checked”

57
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

A

ZERO…

Parking aircraft at a gate requires a marshaller but wingwalkers are not a requirement.

Routine Operations - Vol I 25.30 Pg 1……

58
Q

First flight of the day, elec system is supplied with ac power, is the bat voltage check required?

A

No

59
Q

Does bat 1 / 2 need to be in auto for bat start?

A

Yes.

Batteries are either off or auto.

60
Q

During cockpit preparation, when turning bat 1 / 2 off then on, what are we looking for?

A

Minimum 25.5v

61
Q

Max Difference Between Altitude Indications on the PFDs when setting the QNH on the FCU

Ground Check/Cockpit Check / FL390 Check
ADR 1-2 
ADR 1-3 or ADR 2-3 
STNDBY-ADR 1or2or3 
ISIS-ADR 1or2or3
A

Ground Check @ 0kts
20 / 20 / 300 / 100

FL390 @ Mach .78
130 / 195 / 445 / 445

62
Q

During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?

A

Yes.

The engine will start and rapidly increase to throttle lever position.

63
Q

After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

A

Run engine at idle for 5 min. If leak continues, call MX

64
Q

During engine start, elec power supply is interrupted, what is our action?

A

Abort start by switching off MASTER.

30 second dry motor

65
Q

When would a RESIDUAL GROUND SPEED (RGS) check be completed and what are the limits?

A

RGS check is completed after every flight.

15kts + = Logbook write up + Complete realignment + MCC notified.

21kts + = ALL of the above + ADIRU considered failed

66
Q

After landing when do we perform a drift check? What are the limits?

A 
Flts to/from
Alaska
International flts
Class 2 Nav
IRU considered failed
67
Q

Which leading edge devices are ice protected?

Is the tail ice protected?

A

3 outboard slats on each wing.

No.

68
Q

What is the lowest RVR you could use for T/O on DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?

A

500,500,500

69
Q

What is the definition of marginal WX?

A

Weather that is within 100 ft or 1/2 mi of airport approach mins.

70
Q

What does “RNAV 1” mean?

A

Maintain total system error not greater than 1 nm, 95% of the time.

71
Q

How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?

A

Verify “NAV ACCUR HIGH” on MCDU.

72
Q

When may we fly to a published MDA?

A

Never - Use DDA by adding 50 ft to MDA

73
Q

If you were preparing for a CAT IIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?

A

No, as long as it didn’t have ISIS. Only stanby attitude is required.

74
Q

Flaps 3 is required in certain abnormal situations. Do you select Config 3 on the PERF APP page?

A

No (in order to keep the VLS CONF FULL value displayed on the MCDU).

75
Q

For abnormal procedures during take-off, which checklist is read first: After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal checklist?

A

After Takeoff

76
Q

When may a single engine autoland be done?

A

F9 prohibits unless during emergency, it is the safest course of action.

77
Q

When do you select flaps Full on a single engine approach?

A

On final descent to an assured landing.

78
Q

What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?

A

Blue and magenta

79
Q

When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

A

When approach lights are in sight. (CAT 1 only)

80
Q

What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non-precision approach? If appropriate visual references in sight:

A

A/P off
FDs off
If not, initiate missed approach

81
Q

What do you do if the acft starts to move with the parking brake on?

A

Immediately release the PARKING BRK handle to restore braking with pedals.

82
Q

Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

A

No.

Only at discretion of maintenance if work is being performed

83
Q

Can we take late bags if we are already pushed off the gate?

A

Yes, as long as the engines are not running (CA discretion)

84
Q

When do we need an ARTR? (Amended Release To Read)

A 
SHAFT Me Mi Capt:
Supplemental (crew change)
Hour past ETD
Alternate added
Fuel (+2000 lbs added or 400 lb discrepancy no AWP)
Takeoff alternate added

MeL added or subtracted

Miles (reroute of + 100 mi)

Captain change after signature

85
Q

Holding Speeds in MX/US/DR

A

MHA - 6000—–200 kts (200US)
6,001 - 14,000—210 kts (230US)
Abov 14,000—-230 kts (265US)

Dominican Republic 
MHA -14,000---230kts DR
14,000 - 20,000---240kts DR
20,000 - 34,000---265kts/.80mach DR
Abov 34,000---.83mach DR
86
Q

What changes are made while in a Prot in Normal Law?

A 
a Prot  - NORMAL LAW (BAAPS)
Bank limit 45deg
A/P disconnect
AOA instead of load
Pitch trim inhibited
Speedbrakes retract
87
Q

What changes are made while in High speed Prot in Normal Law?

A 
HIGH SPEED PROT (VMO+6) - NOMAL LAW (BANS)
Bank limit 40 deg
A/P disconnect
Nose up movement
Seeks wings level if stick released
88
Q

When are you approved for LAHSO

A

Never

Pre Flight Planning - Ref Vol 1 20.50 p6

89
Q

Fuel Reliability Check

When ordering fuel what are the parameters that would require review by the flight crew with respect to total fuel ordered/whats in the tanks/whats on the fuel slip.

A

150gallons or 550 liters would require a review….

example:
Fuel RQD = 20,000lbs
Fuel on board = 5000lbs
Fuel to be ordered = 15,000lbs

15000 / 6.7 = 2239 Gallons or 15000 / 1.77 = 8427 Liters

Now compare the fuel slip amount 0000?? to the gallons/liters (2239/8427) if this differs by 150g/550l then further review is required.

QROT (1500/2+1500=2250gx6.7=15075lbs

90
Q

IRS Requires 2 kinds of alignments…. What are they and when would they be accomplished?

A

1- Fast Alignement = (30seconds)
anytime the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5NM

2- Complete alignment = (10mins)
GAGCCFI
GPS not available and NAV coverage poor.
Alaska flights.
GPG not available and flight exceeds 3hours.
Crew change
Class 2 NAV.
First flight of the day.
International flights.
91
Q

When do you need a new TLR report?

A

If the QNH drops more than .10 QNH from the TLR a new report is required….

Remember if it droops it poops!

92
Q

When CAN’T you do a FLEX Takeoff?

A

When CAN’T you do a FLEX Takeoff?

Reduced Thrust T/O limitations…

(MEL COWS Perform 25) - MEL prevents it

  • Contaminated Runway
  • OAT is greater than Flex Temp
  • Windshear reported or Advisories
  • Special Departure Procedures
  • Performance will not allow a Flex takeoff
  • 25% reduction limit is exceeded
93
Q

What are the three different engine failure procedures for Takeoff?

A

a. Standard (Simple) - Runway Heading- in box
b. Simple-Special (Special) - Print
c. Complex-Special (Complex) - An escape route that can be found in the AIP or Jepp chart 10-7 Blue Pages

94
Q

FOMs

Vol1/2/3 provide what

A 
VOL1 = Policy/Procedural info and not A/C specific
VOL2 = Operating policies/procedures for aircraft type
VOL3 = Aircraft/aircraft systems information
95
Q

MEL Cats

ABCD L R

A 
MEL Cats
A As Specified
B 3 Days
C 10 Days
D 120 Days
L 365 Days CDL
R 120 NEF
96
Q

Where would you find the fuel penalty factor in the event of system failure and alternate runway is required.

A

QRH in flight perf tab

97
Q

Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility.

Vol 1 20.20.2

A

CAPTWAD

Cancellations by SOC (systems operational control) only
Jointly responsible for
Airfields / Planning / Traffic / WX / Airways / Delays (both can delay)

98
Q

Explain the following flight modes:

a. Normal
b. Alternate
c. Direct
d. Mechanical Backup Law
e. Flare mode

Include
Pitch/bank protections
High/low speed and high AOA protections,
Vol 3 27.20.1-6, 27.50

A

NORMAL LAW–“BYPALS”
Bank–67 max, 45 lose a/p, 40 regain a/p, 33 normal bank
Yaw–damping, turn coordination
Pitch–30-25 up (fl 0-3), 25-20 up (fl full), 15 down all fl
Aoa–VMAX, VLS, a prot, a Floor, a MAX
Load–clean=-1 to +2.5, w/flaps=0-2.0
Speed–VMO+6

ALTERNATE LAW--"BYPALS"
Bank--No protection
Yaw--damping only
Pitch--no protection
AOA--VLS, VSW
Load--clean=-1 to +2.5, w/flaps=0-2.0
Speed--Varies...high speed, low spd stall warning replaces AOA

DIRECT LAW–No protections!
VLS/VSW is indicated, Aural overspeed
“USE MAN PITCH TRIP” (amber)

MECHANICAL BACKUP LAW–Power,Rudder,THS
“MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” (red)

FLARE
Flight mode changes to flare mode when AC passes through 50ft as it descends to land… At 30ft pitch attitude is reduced to 2’ nose down over an 8 second period and the pilot applies a gentle nose up action to flare the aircraft.

99
Q

Approach set up..

ILS
LOC
RNAV

A 
ILS = APPR + AP1+AP2 (3) 
LOC = LOC + TRK FPA (2)
RNAV = APPR (1)
100
Q

What do the ADRs do

A

BOATS BUSS

U Baro Altimeter
Overspeed
AOA
Temps
Speed/Mach

some aircraft
BACK UP SPEED SCALES

101
Q

What do the IRs do

A

FATHAGG

Flight Path Vector
Aircraft Position
Track
Heading
Attitude
Acceleration
Ground Speed

Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 (7 decks)

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