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Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 > F9 Recurrent Written Test Guide > Flashcards

F9 Recurrent Written Test Guide Flashcards

1
Q

How is BURN fuel on the flight plan calculated?

A

The amount of fuel burn in pounds and time based on forecast winds, the flight plan route, and includes one instrument approach and landing.

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2
Q

Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if a flight deck or flight attendant jumpseat is to utilized?

A

No. The flight deck and flight attendant jumpseats may be assigned on a discretionary basis regardless of whether all cabin seats are occupied or not.

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3
Q

Must a Frontier employee have the letters ACM on his/her Frontier ID badge to occupy the flight deck jumpseat?

A

Yes, unless the Frontier employee has a signed Letter of Authorization from Frontier Flight Ops management.

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4
Q

The ACM Jumpseat Briefing Card may be used to satisfy the ACM briefing requirement?

A

True

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5
Q

Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety-sensitive or security-related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for _____ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if Frontier Airlines has demonstrated that their performance could not have contributed to the accident.

A

8

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6
Q

Which of the following qualifies the flight crew to fly into “Special Airports”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Within the preceding 12 calandar months, the captain or first officer has made an entry to that airport, including takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crew member.
  • Within the preceding 12 calandar months, the captain has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
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7
Q

When the first officer has less than 100 hours of flight time as SIC in type airplane being flown at Frontier, the captain (unless a check airman) must make all takeoff and landings in what conditions? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • When the crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
  • When the braking action on the runway to be used is less than “good”.
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8
Q

Which of the following describes emergency authority? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action deemed necessary under the circumstances.
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9
Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?

A

The CRO (Complaint Resolution Official)

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10
Q

Who has the authority to cancel a flight?

A

Only System Operations Control (SOC).

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11
Q

Which of the following requires an alternate airport? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Any flight released under supplemental operations
  • If severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA, a suitable alternate must be listed on the release.
  • When dispatched Method 2.
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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT required before a revenue flight may block out?

A

The Final Flight Information List

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13
Q

If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length increases by more than ____ NM, the captain must obtain an ARTR.

A

100 NM

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes Method 1?

A

If an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5 SM on either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching the destination.

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15
Q

How is CONTNGNCY fuel on the flight plan calculated?

A

Fuel in time as well as pounds based on holding at 15,000 MSL at Green Dot.

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16
Q

Which of the following best describes Method 2?

A

If an engine failure occures, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable airport (driftdown alternate) from flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5 SM on either side of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.

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17
Q

Which of the following would require an ARTR? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • An alternate is added or changed
  • An MEL is added
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18
Q

What does ALTN fuel on the flight plan consist of?

A

Climb to cruise flight altitude, cruise flight to the most distant alternate, one (1) approach and landing, planned at a cost index of 0.

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19
Q

Are Simple Special Procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, to what altitude?

A

They are mandatory in IMC until 3,000’ AFE (if radar vectors are not available) and VMC until reaching 1,000’ AFE unless otherwise specified.

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20
Q

Which of the following are ways to determine Actual Landing Performance? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • The AWP solution.
  • THe QRH landing distance Performance section.
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21
Q

What are some strategies for dealing with weight restricted flights? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Remove COMAT (not AOG)
  • Obtain child counts.
  • Increase the PMTOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any).
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22
Q

Which of the follow are approved methods to get Weight and Balance INformation for departure? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • AWP Solution (Primary Method)
  • Computer-Generated W&B Manifest from Centralized Load Planning.
  • Manual W&B Read Back Form located in the diversion kit.
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23
Q

Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • When dispatched under Ops Spec B043 (As noted on the dispatch release), the aircraft must have enough contingency fuel to fly for a period of 10 percent of that portion of the enroute time where the aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour.
  • The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is despatched; thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (when required) for the airport to which it is dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
  • The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind and other weather conditions forecast, anticipated traffic delays, and any other known conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
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24
Q

Frontier is authorized to conduct the following approahes EXCEPT

A

(SA) CAT I Approaches

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25
Q

How can the flight crew determine if an airport is “Terrain Sensitve”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page of the AIP
  • VIa contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure
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26
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A
  • When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, ONLY MCC must be notified.
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27
Q

Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the Logbook?

A

MCC through the responsible dispatcher

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28
Q

Which of the following is a correct way(s) to make a correction to a logbook entry? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • To correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined-out item.
  • To correct an entire entry block, draw a diagonal line throught the entry and write “Entered in Error” (or “EIE”) on the diagonal line.
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29
Q

How is RESERVE fuel on the flight plan calculated?

A

Reserve fuel of 45 minutes flight time is based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan.

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30
Q

Which of the following logbook entries requires the captain’s signature? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Computer Reset
  • Flight Crew Placard
  • Follow-up Required
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31
Q

Which of the following best describes the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?

A

The MEL Program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or inoperative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate.

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32
Q

Which of the following be describes the CDL (Configuration Deferral List) Program?

A

The CDL Program allows for continued operations with missing secondary airframe and engine parts.

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33
Q

Which of the following best describes the NEF (Nonessential Furnishing) program?

A

The NEF Program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged, or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.

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34
Q

Which of the following best describes an ODM (Other Deferred Maintenance) item?

A

ODM Items include deferrals that are “crew visibility” in nature and utilize an INFO-ONLY placrad to notify air crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.

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35
Q

Is Frontier permitted to depart an airport CFR and then pickup an IFR clearance?

A

Yes, under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained ASAP, but no further than 50 NM from departure airport.

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36
Q

What is Class II (two) navigation?

A

Any navigation conducted outside of Class I navigation.

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37
Q

When is the autopilot required to be used (coupled) to conduct an approach?

A

When the weather is less than 4000 RVR (3/4 SM) and the autopilot is available for use.

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38
Q

Which of the following is Frontier authorized to conduct in international airspace?

A

A “VMC” Approach

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39
Q

Prior to crossing a FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain the lates weather (METAR and TAF) for the destination and alternate (if applicable).

A

True

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40
Q

Where is Frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?

A

Gulf of Mexico

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41
Q

How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow (e.g. fog/haze/smoke), then use the Tower reported snowfall intensity.
  • If no obscuration is present on the Tower reported snow intensity, then use the “Snowfall Intensities As A Function Of Prevailing Visibility” Table located on the DeIce Card to determine snowfall intensity.
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42
Q

Anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended is permitted.

A

False

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43
Q

Deicing with the flaps/slats extended is permitted.

A

True

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44
Q

A flight can takeoff if the holdover time expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check, and that check is satisfactory) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.

A

True

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45
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay clock start for DEPARTURES?

A

Five (5) minutes after the last passenger is boarded.

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46
Q

An ARTR is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that published on the dispatch release.

A

True

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47
Q

When are security searches required? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • International flights (not including Alaska)
  • First flight of the day
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48
Q

A flight to Puerto Rico is NOT considered an international flight for security search purposes?

A

True

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49
Q

The captain must be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms.

A

True

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50
Q

What are the 4 levels of threat? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Level 1: Verbal
  • Level 2: Physical
  • Level 3: Immunent threat of death or serious bodily injury
  • Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
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51
Q

Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Specs C070 approved airports?

A

Airport Information Pages

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52
Q

Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?

A

Airport Information Pages

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53
Q

If a International flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?

A

A permit to proceed.

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54
Q

What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Preparation? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A

T - Type of Emergency
E - Evacuation anticipated (yes/no)
S - Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate)
T - Time remaining until landing

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55
Q

What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle (EW)?

A

To indicate a Threat level 2, 3, or 4 situation

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56
Q

When are manual engine starts recommended?

A

After aborting a start because of an engine stall, EGT overlimit, or low starter air pressure.

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57
Q

In flight, BOTH flight directors should be either ON or OFF.

A

True

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58
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the announcement of FMA changes?

A

Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT II/III task sharing), all FMA changes (as indicated by a white box) will be announced by the PF below FL 180. At or above FL 180, the Vertical and Lateral Mode Changes(i.e., second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced by the PF.

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59
Q

During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5 volts, how should you recharge the batteries?

A

Ensure external power is supplied to the aircraft and select the BAT 1 and 2 pbs to the AUTO position.

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60
Q

On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD page, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?

A

Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON in order to display the oil qnty on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF.

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61
Q

When is a full ADIRU alignment required?

A

Before the first flight of the day, when there is a crew change, prior to all international flights (including Alaska) or prior to flights in Class 2 airspace.

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62
Q

When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?

A

Any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 NM.

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63
Q

During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFR pb-sw and CTR TK R XFR pb-sw are not in the off position?

A

The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel spillage may occur.

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64
Q

Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?

A

Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.

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65
Q

If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to takeoff, what HDG should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?

A

Runway HDG

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66
Q

No turns in HDG mode will be commenced below ____ ft AFE (VMC) or ____ ft AFE (IMC); unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?

A

400: 1,000

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67
Q

How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispactched via method 2?

A

Reference the “Terrain Analysis Common Aircraft Weights” on the back of the Normal Checklist.

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68
Q

What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” utilizing a pubplished procedure as backup reference?

A

The published missed approach altitude for the approach being used.

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69
Q

What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” with no procedure backup as a reference?

A

1,500 feet AFE

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70
Q

Why is entering 0.3 on the PROG page of the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?

A

To ensure that the FMS stays in 0.3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.

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71
Q

Why is deselecting navaids in the MCDU for a RNAV RNP approach required?

A

In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.

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72
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE if speedbrakes are used above 315 knots/M .75 with the AP engaged?

A

Rate of retraction of the speedbrakes are slow, the total time for retraction from full extension is approximately 25 seconds.

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73
Q

During the flare on landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude of the PFD and call “Pitch” whenever approaching/ or reaching what pitch attitudes? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • A321: 7.5° pitch attitude
  • A319 or 320: 10° pitch attitude
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74
Q

When should the after landing checklist be called for?

A

After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on a taxiway, but not before taxi/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.

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75
Q

After landing, how long should we wait before starting the APU?

A

2 minutes after stowing the Thrust Reversers.

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76
Q

After taxi-in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine (you move the ENG MASTER 1 or 2 to OFF). However, the engine does not shut down. What should you do?

A

Switch the affected master lever ON, then OFF. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected ENG FIRE pushbutton.

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77
Q

After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message (Class 2 message). A few seconds later, the Class 2 message disappears. A logbook write-up is required for the Class 2 message that disappeared.

A

True

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78
Q

Which of the following statements should be followed when performing the Securing Checklist? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • After having switched OFF the ADIRS, wait at least 10 seconds before switching OFF the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorize the last data.
  • Wait at least 5 minutes after BLOCK IN to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the DONE PHASE and enter the PREFLIGHT PHASE.
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79
Q

In flight prior to manipulation, both the Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Monitoring (PM) must confirm. (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Engine master switches, IR selectors, All guarded controls
  • Thrust Levers (During an ECAM or QRH procedure)
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80
Q

In most situations, the following sequence is the basic one that should be followed by the flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation. 1. Memory Items, 2. OEBs, 3. ECAM, 4. QRH Procedures, then 5. Abnormal & Emergency Procedures (time permitting). However, this sequence may not cover all operational situations. Therefore, the flight crew should exercise their judgement and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.

A

True

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81
Q

For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the ECAM/Abnormal procedure or checklist.

A

False

82
Q

For an abnormal procedure during takeoff, perform the After Takeoff Checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNormal procedure or checklist. (Not applicable to Engine Fire, OIl Lo Press, Eng. Overlimit, Engine Failure, and Engine Stall).

A

True

83
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • If red LAND ASAP is part of the ECAM procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made.
  • If amber LAND ASAP is part of the ECAM procedure, consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.
84
Q

While performing an ECAM for an engine failure, the Pilot Flying (PF) will call “Stop ECAM Actions” prior to the Pilot Monitoring (PM) reading the _____ page in order to complete the after takeoff checklist.

A

Status

85
Q

What is the purpose of an ECAM advisory?

A

An ADVISORY informs the crew that a parameter is approaching a limitation and enables the flight crew to monitor the drifting parameter.

86
Q

Where can the flight crew find triggering conditions for carious ADVISORY situations or associated recommendations for an ECAM ADVISORY?

A

QRH procedure section

87
Q

What is the purpose of the “Summary” sections within the QRH?

A

To help the flight crew perform actions in the case of an ELEC EMER CONFIG or dual hydraulic failure.

88
Q

Where can the flight crew find the Computer Reset Table?

A

QRH procedure section

89
Q

Where can you find Frontier’s procedure on Engine Out Standard Instrument Departures (EOSID’s) as well as Complex Missed Approaches utilizing an EOSID?

A

FOM VOL II - Supplementals - Special Procedures and/or the AIPs.

90
Q

Crews operating at airports that utilize EO Complex Procedures shall set up and brief the procedure to be ready for an engine failure.

A

True

91
Q

When performing the Class 2 Nav Accuracy check, FM position is considered reliable if.

A

Error ≤ 3NM

92
Q

When performing the Class 2 Compass Deviation Check, all headings should be within ____ degrees of each other.

A

5

93
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is required unless the captain considers it unsafe to do so, or unless the pilot has better information about the cause of the RA and can maintain safe operation.

94
Q

If the engines and/or landing gear need to be deiced, what actions must be taken?

A

A logbook entry. Notify MCC throught the responsible Dispatcher so the engines and/or landing gear are deiced properly.

95
Q

Do not move flaps or slats, flight controls surfaces, or trim surfaces, if they are not free of ice.

A

True

96
Q

When must ENGINE ANTI-ICE be ON? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • During all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
  • During descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40°C.
97
Q

When should WING ANTI-ICE be selected on?

A

In flight, whenever there is indication that airframe icing exists.

98
Q

Takeoff in moderate and heavy freezing rain is prohibited.

A

True

99
Q

After landing, if flaps/slats are NOT free of contamination, leave flaps/slats in the current configuration. Coordinate with ground/deice crew for cleaning/deicing of the flaps/slats prior to flap retraction.

A

True

100
Q

What computer provides reactive windshear detection?

A

FAC

101
Q

When is reactive winshear available? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • At landing: from 1300 ft RA to 50 ft RA (with at least CONF 1 selected).
  • At takeoff: 3 sec after liftoff up to 1300 ft RA (with at least CONF 1 selected).
102
Q

What are the 3 types of engine failure procedures?

A

Standard, Simple-Special, and Complex-Special Engine Failure Procedure.

103
Q

How does a Simple-Special Engine Failure Procedure differ from a Standard Engine Failure Procedure?

A

The Simple-Special Procedure differs from Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1,000’ AFE.

104
Q

Which of the following best describes the “DECELERATED APPROACH” technique?

A

The aircraft reaches the stabilized approach altitude in the landing configuration and at Vapp.

105
Q

What is the recommended technique to capture the glideslope from above?

A

Use V/S 1500 ft/min to ensure the A/THR is in SPEED mode rather than IDLE mode.

106
Q

What approaches require the flight crew to monitor and use raw data for an approach?

A

VOR, LOC, ILS, and LDA approaches

107
Q

Frontier is authorized to conduct approaches that have a published climb gradient in the missed approach with all engines operating for any given aircraft, condition, weight, and configuration for climb gradients less then ____ feet per NM?

A

937

108
Q

F9 is approved to utilize RNAV (RNP) approaches when Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections apply.

A

False

109
Q

Frontier flight crews are authorized to build RNAV VISUAL (RVFP) approach manually in the FMGC

A

False

110
Q

Due to database limitations, aircraft equipped with the Honeywell Step 1A FMS do not have LDA approaches stored when the same runway has an ILS stored (e.g. SFO LDA DME 28R). In these cases, if the LDA approach is accepted, the flight crew is required to.

A

Manually hard tune the LDA frequency by entering the LDA identifier and verify the correct inbound course.

111
Q

What are the lowest minimums for a CAT II approach?

A

100 ft DH: 1000 RVR

112
Q

What are the lowest minimums for a CAT III approach?

A
  • Fail Operational Capable Aircraft (FMA - CAT 3 DUAL) - 100 ft AH: 300 RVR
  • Fail Passive Capable Aircraft (FMA - CAT 3 SINGLE) - 50 ft DH; 600 RVR
113
Q

What are the the lowest minimums for a CAT IIIB approach?

A

100 ft AH: 300 RVR

114
Q

To use an alert height for a CAT III approach, the aircraft must be

A

CAT III DUAL capable (Fail Operational)

115
Q

Which of the following best describes a Cold Temperature Restricted Airport (CTRA)?

A

Airports which require cold temperature altitude corrections to applicable instrument approach procedures when the temperature at the airport is at or below a specified value.

116
Q

How can you determine if an airport is a Cold Temperature Restricted Airport (CTRA)?

A

CTRAs and the associated temperature limits are published in the “NOTES” section of Jeppesen approach charts.

117
Q

Which approach type do Cold Temperature corrections apply to?

A

ILS approach

118
Q

What are Frontier’s 2 recommended strategies to apply if an engine failure occurs during cruise?

A

Standard Strategy and Obstacle Strategy

119
Q

Which of the following choices best outlines the Obstacle Strategy for an engine failure in cruise?

A

Set MCT, A/THR OFF, Set and Pull HDG as Appropriate, Determine Cruise Flight Level, Notifty ATC, Set Green Dot Speed and Pull.

120
Q

Which of the following choices best outlines the Standard Strategy for an engine failure in cruise?

A

Set MCT, A/THR OFF, Set and Pull HDG as Appropriate, Determine Cruise Flight Level, Notify ATC, Set M.78/300kts and Pull.

121
Q

Which of the following best describes S Speed?

A

Minimum Slat Retraction Speed - A green ‘S’ symbol appears when the flap selector is in position 1 and is the lowest speed to select flaps 0.

122
Q

Protection speeds (e.g., Vα PROT, Vα MAX, VMAX, ect.) are computed by

A

the FAC

123
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Alpha floor is available from lift off to 100ft RA on approach. A/THR needs to be available, it does not need to be active.
  • Alpha floor is a protection that automatically sets the thrust at TOGA, regardless of thrust lever position, when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack.
124
Q

When would you get a “TOGA LK” with a flashing amber box on the FMA?

A

After the Alpha Floor protection has been activated, Alpha floor conditions are no longer met, and TOGA thrust is active.

125
Q

If the thrust levers are in the CL detent (both engines operative) OR one thrust lever is in the MCT detent (One engine operative), “THR LCK” will appear on the FMA if.

A

The Auto-thrust Fails or the FCU A/THR pushbutton is pushed.

126
Q

Which of the following best describes the alpha/speed lock function?

A

The alpha/speed lock function inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low air speeds.

127
Q

What pilot action is required to cancel TOGA LK?

A

Disconnect the autothrust.

128
Q

What are the 3 types of ECAM failures?

A

Independent, Primary, and Secondary

129
Q

Which of the following describes the possible types of ECAM failures? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Secondary Failure - A failure that is caused by a primary failure.
  • Independent Failure - A failure that does not affect other systems.
  • Primary Failure - A failure that affects other systems and causes secondary faiures.
130
Q

After completion of the ECAM, the flight crew will refer to the QRH Procedures section of the QRH to dtermine if procedures apply (i.e., non-ECAM procedures) and complete the procedures as required. Time permitting the flight crew will refer to the Abnormal & Emergency Procedures contrained in the QRH. What does “Time Permitting” mean?

A

Do not prolong the flight for the sole purpose of consulting the Abnormal & Emergency Procedures section of the QRH.

131
Q

What buses are powered by the emergency generator? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • DC ESS and DC ESS Shed Bus
  • AC ESS and AC ESS Shed Bus
132
Q

What powers the emergency generator?

A

Blue hydraulic pressure from the RAT

133
Q

Which of the following statements is true when pressing the RAT MAN ON pb located on the HYD Panel?

A

RAT provides Blue HYD pressure only.

134
Q

What does the illumination of the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.

135
Q

When performing the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what is the minimum Battery Voltage?

A

25.5 Volts.

136
Q

What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Do not press and hold the IDG pb for more than 3 seconds.
  • Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating or windmilling.
137
Q

With the APU START pb AVAIL (green) light illuminated and the EXT PWR pb ON (blue) light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft (Assuming Both Engines are Shut Down)?

A

External Power

138
Q

In Aircraft equiped with center tank fuel pumps, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • With the MODE SEL pb-sw in AUTO, before or after the start sequence the center tank pumps automatically run if the slats are retracted.
  • With the MODE SEL pb-sw in AUTO, the center tank pumps automatically stop 5 min after center tank low level is reached.
  • With the MODE SEL pb-sw in AUTO, the center tank pumps automatically run at engine start for 2 mins.
139
Q

What will cause the FAULT light to illuminate on the Fuel MODE SEL pb?

A

When the center tank contains more then 550 lbs of fuel and the wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs of fuel.

140
Q

What actions occur when an ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is pressed? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • The respective hydraulic shutoff, pack flow control, and engine bleed valve closes.
  • The aural fire warning is silenced and the fire extinguisher squibs arm.
141
Q

What actions occur when the APU FIRE pushbutton is pressed? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • The APU low-pressure fuel valve closes and the APU fuel pump shuts off.
  • The APU generator is deactivated. The APU bleed and X bleed valves close.
142
Q

On the primary flight display, what do the large red chevrons indicate?

A

Pitch attitude greater than 30°.

143
Q

What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

A

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.

144
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding VLS?

A

VSL represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed. In approach mode VLS is equivalent to Vref.

145
Q

How is VLS displayed on the PFD?

A

VLS is represented by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale.

146
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding altitude/speed constraint circles? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Amber - Constraint is predicted to be missed.
  • Magenta - Constraint is predicted to be satisfied.
  • White - Constraint is not taken into account.
147
Q

What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?

A

Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.

148
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A

From just above IDLE up to and including the CL detent (both engines operating). From just above IDLE up to and including the MCT detent (1 engine inoperative).

149
Q

When will the RAT automatically extend?

A

The RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed is > 100 knots.

150
Q

What is the approach category for the A319/A320?

A

Category C

151
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limitation for takeoff?

A

35kts

152
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limitation for landing?

A

38kts

153
Q

What is the maximum tire groundspeed?

A

195kts

154
Q

What is the maximum windshield wiper operation speed?

A

230 KIAS

155
Q

What is the maximum aircraft speed with the cockpit window open?

A

200 KIAS

156
Q

(On A320/321 Aircraft) the maximum taxi speed when making a turn is ____ kts when the aircraft weight is greater than ______ lbs.

A

20; 167,550

157
Q

What is the maximum altitude to start the APU using battery power only (Elec Emerg Config)?

A

25,000 feet MSL

158
Q

What is the autopilot minimum engagement height after takeoff (if SRS is indicated)?

A

100 feet AGL

159
Q

What is the autopilot minimum engament height enroute?

A

900 feet AGL

160
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature required before takeoff?

A

19 degrees Celsius

161
Q

What is the maximum time to use TOGA thrust with all engines operating?

A

5 min

162
Q

What is the maximum time to use TOGA thrust with one engine inoperative?

A

10 min

163
Q

What is the maximum altitude that the Flaps or Slats may be extended?

A

20,000 feet MSL

164
Q

What is the minimum height the autopilot can be engaged during a GO-Around (if SRS is indicated?

A

100 feet AGL

165
Q

To meet Frontier’s Stabilized Approach Criteria by 1,000 ft AFE, the aircraft must be (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • On the correct vertical path (“Glidepath”).
  • On the correct lateral path (“Course”).
  • In a steady rate of descent not to exceed 1,200 FPM
166
Q

To meet Frontier’s Stabilized Approach Criteria by 1,000 ft AFE, the aircraft must be (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • Absent any GPWS Warnings and Cautions
  • In the final landing configuration (Landing Gear and Flaps Extended).
167
Q

To meet Frontier’s Stabilized Approach Criteria by 500 ft AFE, the aircraft must be (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • In a steady rate of descent not to exceed 1,000 FPM.
  • Within -5 to +15 knots of target speed for approach.
168
Q

What does “Correct Lateral Path” mean in terms of Frontier’s Stabilized Approach Criteria?

A

± one dot for ILS/LOC, ½ dot for VOR, or 0.3 NM cross track for RNAV GPS (Not applicable to RNAV RNP approaches)

169
Q

What is the maximum tailwind limitation for Takeoff (A319/A320)?

A

15kts

170
Q

What is the maximum tailwind limitation for Takeoff (A321)?

A

10kts

171
Q

What is the maximum tailwind limitation for LANDING (A319/A320)?

A

10kts

172
Q

What is the maximum tailwind limitation for LANDING (A321)?

A

10kts

173
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?

A

65kts

174
Q

What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation?

A

40kts, unless the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or if the cargo door is on the leeward side of the aircraft, then operation of the cargo door is permitted in winds up to 50kts.

175
Q

If the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or if the cargo door is on the leeward side of the aircraft, operation of the crago door is permitted in winds up to ____kts. If wind speed begins to exceed these limitations, the cargo door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds ____kts.

A

50kts; 65kts

176
Q

What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds Below FL200 (A319/A320)?

A

250kts

177
Q

What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds from FL200 to FL310 (A319/A320)?

A

275kts

178
Q

What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds Above FL310 (A319/A320)?

A

.76 Mach

179
Q

What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds Below FL200 (A321)?

A

270kts

180
Q

What is the recommended turbulent air penetraion speeds From FL200 to FL310 (A321)?

A

300kts

181
Q

What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds Above FL310 (A321)?

A

.76 Mach

182
Q

At what height must the autopilot be turned off for an RNAV visual approach?

A

500 feet AGL

183
Q

When must the autopilot be turned off for a Non-Precision Approach?

A

DDA/DA

184
Q

At what height must the autopilot be turned off for a Non-Autoland ILS with a CAT 1 FMA?

A

160 feet AGL

185
Q

At what height must the autopilot be turned off for a Non-Autoland ILS with a CAT 2/3 FMA?

A

80 feet AGL

186
Q

When must the autopilot be turned off for an autoland approach?

A

ROLLOUT/Taxi Speed

187
Q

Frontier’s policy is to set up for, brief, and fly a CAT II or CAT III autoland IF the reported RVR/visibility is at or below _____ or _____ AND all of the requirements for an autoland can be met.

A

1/2mile, 2400 RVR

188
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity FOR CEO aircraft prior to each flight?

A

9.5 qt + .5qt per every hour of estimated flight time.

189
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity FOR NEO aircraft prior to each flight?

A

9.0 qt + .5qt per every hour of estimated flight time and not below 10.6 qt. If engines have been shut down for more than 60 minutes, decrease these values by 3 qt.

190
Q

Takeoff at reduced thrust is prohibited (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • When suspected, reported, or known windshear is present.
  • On slippery or contaminated runways.
  • When a Special Departure Procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff.
191
Q

Which of the following are memory items for “LOSS OF BRAKING”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • REV—–MAX
  • BRAKE PEDALS—–RELEASE
  • A/SKID OFF——ORDER
  • A/SKID N/W STRG—–OFF
  • BRAKE PEDALS—–PRESS
  • MAX BRK PR—–1000PSI
  • IF STILL NO BREAKING: PARKING BRAKE—–SHORT SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS
192
Q

What is the memory item for “SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE”?

A

OXY MASK/GOGGLE—USE/100%/EMERG

193
Q

Which of the following are memory items for “STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • THRUST—–TOGA
  • PITCH Attitude—–15°
  • BANK—–WINGS LEVEL
194
Q

Which of the following are memory items for “Windshear WARNING - PREDICTIVE Windshear” when Airborne? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • THR LEVERS—–TOGA
  • AP (if engaged)—–KEEP ON
  • SRS ORDERS—–FOLLOW
195
Q

Which of the following are memory items for “Windshear WARNING - Reactive Windshear” for AIRBORN, INITIAL CLIMB, OR LANDING? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • THR LVRS AT TOGA—–SET or CONFIRM
  • AP(if engaged)—–KEEP ON
  • SRS ORDERS—–FOLLOW
196
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of an “UNRELIABLE SPEED INDICATION”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • AP/FD—OFF
  • A/THR—OFF
  • Below THR RED ALT—–15°/TOGA
  • Above THR RED ALT and Below FL 100—10°/CL
  • Above THR RED ALT and Above FL 100—5°/CL
  • FLAPS—Maintain Current CONFIG
  • FLAPS (if CONFIG FULL)—SELECT CONF 3 AND Maintain
  • SPEEDBRAKES—CHECK RETRACTED
  • L/G—UP
197
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “EGPWS WARNING”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • AP—–OFF
  • PITCH—-PULL UP
  • THRUST LEVERS—–TOGA
198
Q

Which of he following are memory items in the event of a “TCAS WARNING”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • AP (if engaged)—OFF
  • BOTH FDs—OFF
  • Respond promptly and smoothly to an RA by adjusting or maintaining the pitch, as required, to reach the green area and/or avoid the red area of the vertical speed scale.
199
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of an “EMERGENCY DESCENT”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • CREW OXY MASK—–USE
  • SIGNS—–ON
  • EMER DESCENT——INITIATE
  • If A/THR not Active, THR LEVERS—–IDLE
  • SPD BRK—–FULL
200
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “STALL RECOVERY”? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL—–APPLY
  • BANK—–WINGS LEVEL
  • THRUST—–INCREASE SMOOTHLY AS NEEDED
  • SPEEDBRAKES—–CHECK RETRACTED
  • FLIGHT PATH—–RECOVER SMOOTHLY
  • If clean configuration and below 20,000 feet, FLAP 1—–SELECT
201
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “Windshear WARNING - Reactive Windshear” If after V1? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • THR LEVERS—–TOGA
  • REACHING VR—–ROTATE
  • SRS ORDERS—–FOLLOW
202
Q

Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “Windshear WARNING - PREDICTIVE Windshear” Landing? (Select ALL answers that apply)

A
  • GO AROUND—–Perform
  • AP (IF ENGAGED)—–KEEP ON

Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 (7 decks)

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