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Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 > Acronyms > Flashcards

Acronyms Flashcards

1
Q

What are the protections provided by Airbus? BYPALS

A

B - Bank
Y - Yaw damping
P - Pitch
A - AOA
L - Load limits
S - Speed (with and without stabilities)

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2
Q

What conditions are monitored by the E-GPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System)? DEAD TWA

A

D - Descent rate excessive
E - Excessive terrain closure
A - Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
D - Deviation below glide slope
T - Terrain clearance unsafe
W - Windshear (reactive only below 1,300 feet AGL)
A - Altitude advisories

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3
Q

What do the IR (Inertial Reference) units do? FAT HAAG

A

F - Flight path vector
A - Airplane position
T - Track
H - Heading
A - Attitude
A - Acceleration
G - Ground speed

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4
Q

What do the ADR (Air Data Reference) units do? BOATS

A

B - Barometric altitude
O - Overspeed warnings
A - AOA
T - Temperatures
S - Speed

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5
Q

What are the three Airbus idles? MAG

A

M - Modulated
A - Approach
G - Ground / Reverse

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6
Q

When is speedbrake extension inhibited? SEA FAT

A

S - SEC 1 and 3 fault
E - Elevator Left or Right Fault
A - Alpha protection is active

F - Flap configuration FULL (Flaps retract)
A - Alpha Floor Active
T - Thrust levers in MCT or above

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7
Q

When does an ENG BLEED fault light come on? LOOSA

A

L - Leak
O - Overheat
O - Over pressure
S - Bleed valve not closed during engine START
A - Bleed valve not closed with APU bleed ON

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8
Q

When will the APU automatically shut down? FA OUT LH DEALR

A

F - Fire on the ground
A - Air inlet flap closed
O - Overspeed
U - Underspeed
T - Temp high
L - Low oil pressure
H - High oil temperature
D - DC power loss
E - ECB (Electronic Control Box) failure
A - Abnormal Start
L - Loss of overspeed protection
R - Reverse flow

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9
Q

What does the APU Master SW do? FEFFE

A

F -Flap opens
E - ECB power up test is initiated
F - Fuel isolation valve opens
F - Fuel pump runs if low pressure
E - ECAM APU page is displayed

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10
Q

What are the TO CONFIG warnings on CEO Airbus? DH-PRSSS I FP

A

D - Door not closed
H - Hot brakes
P - Pitch trim not in TO range
R - RUD trim not in TO range
S - Slats/Flaps not in TO range
S - Speed brakes not retracted
S - Sidestick fault
I - When takeoff power is applied (both engines over 75% N1)
F - Flex temp not set
P - Park Brake On

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11
Q

What does the Commercial Button supply? GET CCD

A

G - Galley
E - Entertainment System
T - Toilets
C - Cabin Lights
C - Cargo Lights
D - Drain Masts (2)

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12
Q

What is supplied by the pheumatic system? WHEAW

A

W - Wing and Engine Anti-Icing
H - Hydraulics
E - Engine Starting
A - Air Conditioning
W - Water Pressurization

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13
Q

What is indicated by a blower fault? SACO

A

S - Smoke
A - Air pressure low (HORN ON GROUND)
C - Computer power failure (HORN ON GROUND)
O - Overheat (HORN ON GROUND)

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14
Q

What is indicated by an extract fault? SAC

A

S - Smoke
A - Air pressure low (HORN ON GROUND)
C - Computer power failure

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15
Q

What caused an IDG FAULT light? HOT LOP

A

H - High
O - Oil
T - Temperature
L - Low
O - Oil
P - Pressure

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16
Q

What is available on roll out under 100 knts in EMER ELEC CONFIG? MAV

A

M - Move outflow valve (Manual Control)
A - APU fire detection and protection
V - VHF 1

17
Q

Pressurization computers get their information from where? FEAL

A

F - FMGS (Flight Management and Guidance System)
E - EIU (Engine Interface Units)
A - ADIRS (Air Data Intertial Reference System)
L - LGCIU (Landing Gear Control Interface Unit)

18
Q

What are the three types of Frontier Engine Out departure procedures? SSC

A

S - Standard: Turn after 1000’ AFE
S - Simple-Special: Turn to heading prior to 1000’ AFE
C - Complex-Special: Too complex to fit in Simple-Special table

19
Q

AUTOLAND fail light will annunciate inside 200 RA for? RAIL

A

R - Radio altitude difference greater than 15 feet
A - Autopilot fail or disconnect
I - ILS transmitter failure
L - LOC / GS deviation greater than 1/4 dot / 1 dot respectively

20
Q

What is needed to fly internationally at Frontier? GTAA

A

G - GPWS
T - TCAS
A - APU
A - ACARS (ACARS is only item needed to return to US)

21
Q

What ECAMS promote a different checklist order on Take Off/ Go-around? FFOOS

A

F - Fire of engine
F - Failure of engine
O - Overlimit of engine
O - Oil pressure low in engine
S - Stall of engine

22
Q

What are the MASTER WARNINGS that can’t be canceled? GOS

A

G - Gear not down below 750 feet
O - Overspeed warning
S - Stall Warning

23
Q

What items are not inhibited on Take-Off? AED FEDS

A

A - APU Fire
E - Engine Fire
D - Dual Engine Failure
F - FWC 1+2 Failure
E - Elevator L+R Failure
D - Dual Input
S - Sidestick Fault

24
Q

What happens when the Airbus is in Alpha Protection? BASAP

A

B - Bank angle limited to 45º
A - Autopilot disconnect
S - Speedbrakes retract
A - AOA instead of load commanded from sidestick
P - Pitch up trim inhibited

25
Q

What are the circuit breaker that cannot be reset? FEEEBS

A

F - Fuel Pumps
E - ECU (Engine Conrol Unit) Not with engine running
E - EIU (Engine Interface Unit) Not with engine running
E - EEC (Electronic Engine Computer)
B - BSCU (Brake Steering Control Unit) when A/C is moving
S - SFCC (Slat/Flap Control Computer) Could lead to SLATS/FLAPS locked

26
Q

When is an alternate required? 123 ++1500/2 MMOIISTTRS 3585

A

1 - ETA +/- 1 hour
2 - Ceiling less than 2000’ AFE for Domestic Ops
3 - Visibility less than 3 SM for Domestic Ops

1500 - < Greater of 2000’ AFE or 1500’ above the lowest IAP minimums for Flag Ops
2 - < Greater of 3 SM or 2 SM mroe than lowest applicable visibility minimums for Flag Ops

M - Marginal WX (Within 100 feet or 1/2 mile of minimums)

M - Method 2 dispactch release
O - Offline Charter
I - International to single runway
I - International flight over 6 hours
S - Severe Icing
T - Thunderstorm within ETA +/- 1 hour
T - Takeoff alternate required when departure airport below CAT I minimums
R - RNAV only approach, alternate must have land based navaids
S -Supplemental
3585 - May be released under exemption when body says WX is good but qualifiers PROB, TEMPO, and BECMG may take below minimums

27
Q

What occures when in High Speed Protection? BASS

A

B - Bank angle seeks 0º and is limited to 40º
A - Autopilot disconnect
S - “Stick aft movement” (As speed increases above VMO/MMO, the side stick nose-down authority is reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied)
S - Seeks wings level

28
Q

When are WTBs activated? ROAM

A

R - Runaway flaps/slats
O - Overspeed of mechanism
A - Asymmetry
M - Movement un-commanded

29
Q

What do the ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computer) do? PAR AAA

A

P - Pitch (In all three laws)
A - Abnormal Attitudes
R - Roll (in Normal and Direct laws)
A - Aileron droop
A - Autopilot acquisition
A - Activates the protections

30
Q

What do the SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computer) do? PAR SS

A

P - Pitch (in Alternate and Direct law)
A - Abnormal Attitudes
R - Roll (spoilers only in Normal and Direct)
S - Speed Brakes
S - Spoilers

31
Q

What do the FWCs do (Flight Warning Comuter)? VAALLT - M

A

V - Voice and callouts
A - Aural alerts
A - Alert messages
L - Landing distance and landing speed increments
L - LAND memo
T - TO CONFIG memo
M - Master Caution and WARNING

32
Q

Another way to remember when speedbrakes are inhibited? SEAFAT

A

S - SEC 1 and SEC 3 both have faults
E - An elevator has a fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 inhibited)
A - AOA protection is active
F - Flaps are in configuration FULL
A - A. FLOOR activation
T - Thrust Levers above MCT

33
Q

What do the FACs (Flight Augmentation Computer) do? B SWFT RATTY

A

B - Beta target in TO/GA with N1 > 80% other difference > 35%
S - “Speed Speed Speed” Low Energy Warning, warns of imminent A. FLOOR
W - WINDSHEAR (reactive, 3-5 sec 50 feet to 1300/1300 to 50 feet)
F - Flight envelope protections (Left side of PFD / A. FLOOR signals)

T - Tail - Controls the following functions:
R - Rudder limiting
A - Alternate Law Yaw Damping
T - Turn Cordination
T - Trim
Y - Yaw Damping

34
Q

PASSENGER SYS (OXY) ON Light activates when? CENP

A

C - CABIN ALTITUDE flashes on ECAM above 8,800 feet cabin altitude
E - EXCESSIVE CABIN ALTITUDE warning above 9,550 feet cabin altitude
N - No Smoking / Fasten Seat Belt sign auto illuminate at 11,300 feet cabin altitude
P - Passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy at 14,000 feet cabbin altitude

35
Q

What are the ECAM Classes and Levels?

A

Class 1 - Level 1 AMBER, No Caution or Chime, Redundant failure
Class 1 - Level 2 AMBER, Master Caution and Chime
Class 1 - Level 3 RED, Master Warning and CRC

Class 2 - FLT CTL, Maintenance, may affect next leg
Class 3 - Maintenance, daily check

36
Q

ECAM: Independent Failure, Primary Failure, Secondary Failure

A

Independendent Failure: Does not affect other systems, title is underlined on E/WD

Primary Failure: Affects other systems and causes secondary failures, title is boxed

*Secondary Failure: Caused by a primary failure, are labeled as *TITLE

Frontier Airlines - Flight Training 1/3/17 (7 decks)

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