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Ca REHS Study > Food Science > Flashcards

Food Science Flashcards

1
Q

A human consumes on average ____ lbs of food per day

A

1.5 lbs per day

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2
Q

Name the bacterial growth phases

A

Lag - adapt to environment
Log - exponential growth, doubling in numbers every few minutes
Stationary - nutrients depleted, equal death and growth
Decline/Death - running out of nutrients or being poisoned by their own waste products, they die off.

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3
Q

The goal of food preservation is to extend which phase of bacterial growth?

A

Extend the lag phase

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4
Q

What are the bacterial growth factors?

A 
FATTOM
Food
Acidity
Time
Temperature
Oxygen
Moisture
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5
Q

What are the three temperature zones of bacteria?

A

Thermophillic - 113-158F
Mesophillic - 59-112F
Psychrophillic - 35-50F

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6
Q

What is thermophillic spoilage

A

Spoilage by thermophillic bacteria which can survive foods that are just slightly under cooked.

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7
Q

What is flat sour spoilage?

A

When bacteria that thrive inside canned foods do not produce gases but instead produce lactic acid.

Cans will not appear swollen. Food will have a sour taste.

Found in:

Low acid foods
Facultative Bacteria
Bacteria commonly found on canning machines
In sugars and starches used for canning

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8
Q

Bacillus coagulans is an example of what type of spoilage?

A

Flat Sour Spoilage

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9
Q

What is thermophillic anaerobe spoilage

A

bacteria survives an anaerobic state and produces h2S gas, Hydrogen gas, CO2 as it ferments. Forms lactic acid.

Not poisonous, but produces resistant spores that are heat activated.

Clostridium thermosaccarolyliticum.

Only a problem if cans are stored in very hot environment. They often burst.

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10
Q

What is the sulfide stinker bacteria?

A

Clostridium nigrificans.

Found in low acid canned foods.

result of undercooking.

bacteria produce H2S gas and discoloration of food product.

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11
Q

What is mesophillic spoilage - give three bacteria examples.

A

bacteria that grow at room temperature rage.

clostridium botulinum
clostridium sporogenes
clostridium putrifaciens

they produce CO2 and H gas.

Cause canned products to swell or buldge.

undercooked food products.

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12
Q

What is psychrophilic spoilage

A

Bacteria that can grow at colder temperatures.

Foods can spoil in freezers that are not cold enough.

optimal freezer temp is 0F

At 0F all the water in food product is iced and the bacterial has no available water for growth.

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13
Q

What is pH?

A

The relative alkalinity or acidity. It’s based on the hydrogen ion concentration within a solution.

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14
Q

Bacteria commonly involved in food borne illness tend to grow at what pH range?

A

4.6 to 7

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15
Q

Typically food items w/ a pH less than _____ can be excluded as a potentially hazardous food

A

less than 4.6

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16
Q

Examples of high acid foods 4.5 and below

A

Apples, grapefruit, grapes, limes, oranges, peaches, pears, pineapple, plums

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17
Q

Examples of medium acid foods 4.5-5.5

A

Tomatoes, bananas, beets, squash, watermelon

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18
Q

Examples of low acid foods 5.5 and higher

A

peas, spinach, corn, beans, asparagus, brussel sprouts, cabbage, carrots, celery, onions, potatoes

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19
Q

What does sous vide mean?

A

“sue-veed” is a French term that means “excluding the air from the product”.

commonly known as vacuum packing.

makes for a great environment for anaerobic bacteria.

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20
Q

What is oxidation-reduction food preservation

A

In vacuum packing when a small amount of air with chemicals is added to counteract the negative anaerobic environment.

oxidants such as nitrates and permanganates are used.

This creates an environment in which neither anaerobes or aerobes can survive.

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21
Q

Most bacteria that cause food borne illness tend to grow in what temperature range?

A

41 to 135 (the temperature danger zone)

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22
Q

Water activity (Aw) must be at what level to support bacterial growth on food?

A

.85 or higher (the scale is 0 to 1.0)

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23
Q

What type of food do bacteria typically require?

A

nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates

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24
Q

What is the Aw for the following foods

fresh meat/fish/poultry
Fruits/veggies
Cheese
Cured Meat
Jams/Jellies
Cereal
Sugar
A 
fresh meat/fish/poultry  .99
Fruits/veggies  .98
Cheese  .97
Cured Meat  .90
Jams/Jellies  .82
Cereal  .15
Sugar  .20
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25
Q

Which pathogen is the most moisture durable? Tested to be able to grow at .86 Aw

A

staph aureus

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26
Q

The ideal moisture level for most bacteria is between?

A

.90-.99

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27
Q

What are the two most important factors in regards to FATTOM bacterial growth

A

Time and Temperature

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28
Q

What is ptomaine poisoning

A

a term to describe food borne illness prior to the discovery of bacteria. it was though that certain alkaloids produced by decaying food is what caused food borne illness

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29
Q

Hot foods must cool from ______ to ______ within __ hours and then from ______ to ______ within __ hours

A

135 to 70 in 2 hours

70 to 41 in 4 hours

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30
Q

Foods prepared at room temperature must be cooled to _____ in ___ hours

A

41 in 4 hours

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31
Q

What are methods of properly cooling food

A

cut large mass into smaller pieces

increase surface area by using shallow pans

do not fully cover products during cooling (keeps the heat in)

use stainless steel for cooling (plastic retains heat longer)

ice baths

cooling wand/ice paddles

adding ice as an ingredient

blast chillers (expensive units)

steam-jacketed kettles - cold water circulates. good for the first part of cooling

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32
Q

How should shallow pans be arranged in a walk in cooler for cooling?

A

never on top of one another. they should be separated so cool air can cover as much surface area as possible

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33
Q

Hot holding temperature should be _____ and above

A

135 and above

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34
Q

Does hot holding destroy bacteria?

A

No it just slows their growth

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35
Q

What types of equipment can be used for hot holding?

A

steam table, baine marie, steam cabinets and sometimes a broiler on a stove

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36
Q

Is there a time limit to hot holding?

A

No but usually the food quality is degraded after so long

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37
Q

Cold holding temperature

A

41 and below

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38
Q

Does cold holding kill bacteria?

A

No it slows their growth

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39
Q

What are some methods of food preservation that are based on available water in foods

A 
sun drying
salting
smoking
mechanical drying
freeze drying
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40
Q

How does smoking preserve food?

A

by increasing the sodium content making less water available. It’s a short term preservation method. a couple of days to a few weeks.

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41
Q

How does freeze drying work?

A

frozen products are placed into a vacuum where heat is applied which causes sublimation (water goes from solid ice to gas phase). Because of the vacuum the water vapor is removed from the product.

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42
Q

What are the pro’s and con’s to freeze drying

A

pros: taste of food is not altered, can easily be rehydrated. product is very light weight.
cons: vitamin c and carotene are destroyed

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43
Q

freeze drying usually results in what Aw

A

.06

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44
Q

What are cans made of today?

A

steel with a resin (bpa) coating to fill in any microscopic holes.
sometimes there is a layer of steel but the steel has a tendency to react with acidic foods

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45
Q

When did the US stop using lead soldered cans?

A

1991

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46
Q

What are the steps in canning (green beans)

A
  1. sort to eliminate damaged or spoiled product
  2. washed/soaked in cool water
  3. blanched with hot steam or water (helps remove air pockets)
  4. cooked for 35 mins to a pressurized temperature of 240F to kill botulism spores
  5. cooled in cold water
  6. Water or broth is added to the can
  7. filled can is now “exhausted” by reheating to eliminate air or gas
  8. can is covered, sealed and cooled
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47
Q

What are some common problems with canned foods

A

undercooking prior to canning
improperly cooling which causes hydrogen gas to form inside
damaged cans
storing cans in high heat (over 100F)

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48
Q

What is a food additive

A

any substance that—directly or indirectly—becomes a component or otherwise affects the characteristics of any food. This definition includes any substance used in the production, processing, treatment, packaging, transportation or storage of food.

other e.g. color modifiers, flavor enhancers, nutritional supplements, moisture controllers, chemicals to alter physical characteristics etc.

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49
Q

Many food additives have been found to be ______________

A

carcinogenic or toxic

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50
Q

What is GRAS

A

Generally regarded as safe

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51
Q

Are food additives on the GRAS list?

A

most are not

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52
Q

What is DES

A

diethylstillilotral aka DES white. Is an odorless, crystalline powder that use to be given to roosters to decrease their sex drive and fatten them up.

it was found to be toxic and carcinogenic.

use is now banned.

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53
Q

What was food dye #8 used for?

A

to mark inspected meat products. Was found to be carcinogenic

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54
Q

What is aminotruazole

A

a weed killing agent that when consumed by livestock was present in their meat. Found to be carcinogenic

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55
Q

What are nitrates and nitrites used for?

A

As a common food additive to help preserve meats and meat products such as bacon and sausages.

to stop the growth of botulism

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56
Q

How do meat processors hide spoiled meat be preventing it from browning?

A

They add sodium nitrate which prevents the oxidation of myoglobin, thus keeping the meat red.

aka “dynamiting” making it look fresher than it is

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57
Q

What are nitrosamines?

A

A byproduct that is formed when humans ingest nitrates or nitrites. It is considered a carcinogen.

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58
Q

What can cause blue baby syndrome?

A

When a baby consumes nitrates and they are reduced to nitrites which blocks the oxidation of hemoglobin.

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59
Q

What are direct additives

A

those that are added to a food for a specific purpose in that food.” For example, using phosphates in meat and poultry products to retain moisture and protect the flavor.

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60
Q

What are indirect additives?

A

those that become part of the food in trace amounts due to its packaging, storage or other handling

e.g. BPA

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61
Q

What is MSG

A

monosodium glutamate - a flavor enhancer and meat tenderizer

made from beet glucose that has been decomposed by bacteria and ferments MSG

many are allergic

caused cancer in lab rats

“Chinese restaurant syndrome”

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62
Q

What is EDTA

A

ethylene diamine tetra acetate

food additive to prevent botulism growth.

it’s a sequestering agent (ties up certain minerals)

can contribute to food discoloration

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63
Q

What are sulfites used for?

A

an additive to preserve freshness and prevent discoloration. it stops the enzyme reaction in fruits and vegetables

illegal for restaurants to add.

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64
Q

What is TSP?

A

trisodium phosphate

preservative in some fruits which injures the cell wall

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65
Q

What is calcium propionate used in?

A

a preservative used in breads

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66
Q

Name a metal that can be added as a food preservative

A

silver

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67
Q

What three risk factors are checked for food additives

A

carcinogenic factors
toxicity
side effects

an additive can still be used if it falls into one of the three categories

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68
Q

What is foodborne illness?

A

any syndrome resulting from the ingestion of food

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69
Q

What are the three classifications of foodborne illness?

A

foodborne intoxication
foodborne infections
toxin-mediated foodborne infection

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70
Q

What is foodborne intoxication

A

illness caused by eating food containing poisonous chemicals or toxins (either chemically or bacteriologically produced)

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71
Q

What are three e.g. of foodborne intoxication

A

staph aureus
bacillus cereus
clostridium botulinum

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72
Q

What is a foodborne infection

A

an illness caused by eating food containing live pathogenic organisms

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73
Q

What are three e.g. of bacteria that cause foodborne infection

A

salmonella typhi
campylobacter jujeni
listeria

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74
Q

What is a toxin-mediated foodborne infection

A

an illness caused by eating food containing live pathogenic organisms that reproduce within the intestines and produce a toxin which makes one ill

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75
Q

What are three e.g. of toxin-mediated foodborne infections

A

e coli 0157 h7
clostridium perfringens
shiga-toxin producing e coli

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76
Q

While interviewing a potential foodborne illness you should find out the food eaten within the last_____ hours prior to the onset of symptoms

A

72 hours

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77
Q

Where do most foodborne illness occur?

A

In the home

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78
Q

Chemical food poisonings usually have (fast/slow) onset of symptoms

A

fast

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79
Q

the following chemicals can cause chemical food poisonings how…

arsenic
cadmium
lead
sodium fluoride
Freon
bleach
copper
A 
arsenic - insecticide residual
cadmium - lemonade leached containers
lead - ceramics, insecticides
sodium fluoride - insecticide
Freon - leaky air conditioning units
bleach - spill or accidental use
copper - old soda beverage dispensers
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80
Q

What is PSP

A

paralytic shellfish poisoning

a type of chemical food poisoning (foodborne intoxication)

the toxin is Gonyaulax c. which is very potent.

The shellfish carry this toxin after consuming dinoflagellates (ocean algae) during red tide summer season

cooking does not destroy

can cause paralysis or death

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81
Q

What is scromboid poisoning

A

a chemical food poisoning (foodborne intoxication)

scromboid species that are held at improper temps will have bacteria that produce histamines (the toxin)

symptoms include burning peppery taste, rash, dizziness, cramps etc.

cooking does not kill

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82
Q

What is a histamine

A

a toxin produced by scromboid fish held improperly

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83
Q

What are some of the scromboid species (name 6)

A

tuna, mackerel, bonitos, swordfish, bluefish, skipjack

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84
Q

scromboid poisoning has also been found it which species that are not part of the scromboid family

A

mahi-mahi, marlin, sardines

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85
Q

What percentages of fat are in regular, lean and extra lean hamburger meat

A

regular - not more than 30%
lean grade - no more than 22%
extra lean grade - no more than 15%

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86
Q

Fresh beef should be….

A 
bright red in color
firm and elastic to touch (spring back)
light fresh odor
marked for USDA inspection
received at 41 or below
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87
Q

Fresh pork should be…

A 
pink in color
firm and elastic to touch
light fresh odor
marked for USDA inspection
received at 41 or below
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88
Q

Fresh poultry should be…

A 
almost white with no dark discoloration
no noticeable odor
flesh should NOT be sticky
marked for USDA inspection
received at 41 or below
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89
Q

Fresh fish should be…

A 
bright red gills
clear eyes
Firm and elastic to touch
no fish odor
received between 32 and 41 packed on ice
should not be slimy, skin should reflect light
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90
Q

Shellfish include…

A

oysters, clams and mussels

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91
Q

Fresh shelf fish should be…

A

shells should be closed
light seawater smell
shellstock identification tag
received between 32 and 41

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92
Q

shellstock identification tags should indicate:

A

harverster ID number
date of harvest
harvest location
type and quality of shell fish

must be kept for 90 days

93
Q

display tanks of shellfish need to be operated under what?

A

a HACCP plan

94
Q

crustacea include…

A

shrimp, crab, lobster

95
Q

Crustacea should be…

A

received alive and on ice between 32 and 41
light sea water smell
shells should be hard

96
Q

Raw eggs should be…

A 
clean and intact
firm yolks and whites that cling to the yolks
marked for USDA inspection
received at 45 or below
packaging must indicate if pasteurized
97
Q

Dairy products must be received…

A

at 41 or below

liquid milk must be pasteurized and marked as grade A

98
Q

Can full frozen raw animal foods be stored with full frozen ready to eat foods?

A

yes

99
Q

What can malachite green be used for?

A

to test for sodium nitrate in a product

100
Q

What is a cryoscope used for?

A

to detect the freezing point of milk to determine if water was illegally added to increase product volume

101
Q

What does the babcock test, test for?

A

for milk fast content

102
Q

What is truth in menu

A

a quality control check to see if a menu items are what are actually being served

103
Q

Vending Machine Requirements (for potentially hazardous food vending machines)

A
  1. owner name, address, phone number posted
  2. no wet storage of prepackaged items
  3. single use articles must be packaged for protection
  4. cleaning/sanitizing records available for past thirty days
  5. machine must be NSF or equal
  6. if outside overhead protection required
  7. if outside must have a self closing dispenser door
104
Q

What happens if a vending machine falls out of temperature?

A

It should have an automatic mechanism or switching device that shuts it down from public access until it has been serviced.

105
Q

What are some techniques used to mask the freshness of food

A

red display lights in meat case
red colored backing on container
adding blood to product to increase redness
adding excess water to increase weight

106
Q

approximately how many death per year in the US are caused by foodborne illness?

A

5,000 deaths

107
Q

The annual cost of foodborne illness in the US is between ___ and ___ dollars

A

10 and 83 billion dollars

108
Q

What is a foodborne disease outbreak

A

the occurrence of two or more cases of similar illness from the ingestion of a common food

109
Q

What are the four categories of a the highly susceptible population

A

young children
elderly
pregnant women
weakened immune systems

110
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

a microorganism that can cause disease

111
Q

PHFs are also known as ______

A

TCS - time/temperature control for safety foods

112
Q

What are the five risk factors for foodborne illness

A
  1. held at improper temperature
  2. undercooked
  3. contaminated food equipment
  4. food from an unsafe source
  5. poor personal hygiene
113
Q

What is the warranty of sale

A

the right of the consumer to receive a safe product. an implied guarantee that the product sold was safe.

114
Q

in order to win a lawsuit under consumer rights the plaintiff must prove what three things

A
  1. food served to them was unsafe
  2. food served caused them harm
  3. food service operator violated the warranty of sale
115
Q

What are critical control points

A

points during the cooking or processing of food where steps must be taken to eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce the hazard to an acceptable level

116
Q

What is the flow of food

A

the path that food takes through a food establishment from receiving, storage, preparation, cooking holding service, cooling and reheating.

117
Q

How many illness in the US per year are foodborne?

A

76 million

118
Q

What should be the primary goal of any food establishment

A

food safety

119
Q

What is a food safety hazard

A

anything that may cause injury or illness if not controlled, reduced or prevented

120
Q

what are the three categories of food safety hazards

A

physical
chemical
biological

121
Q

What are physical hazards and some e.g.

A

foreign objects or particles

finger nails, glass, metal shavings, hair, dirt

122
Q

what are chemical hazards and some e.g.

A

chemical substances included food additives/preservatives

pesticides
cleaning products
additives/preservatives
toxic metals

123
Q

What are some toxic metals that can leach from cookware

A

copper, lead, zinc, brass, cadmium

124
Q

galvanized utensils are coated with what

A

zinc

125
Q

what is a food allergy

A

when the immune system reacts badly to a chemical or ingredient in food

126
Q

what are the eight major food allergens

A 
milk/milk products
eggs
fish
soy
shellfish
peanuts
tree nuts
wheat proteins
127
Q

What are biological hazards

A

living organisms or waste products of living organisms

include bacti, fungi, parasties, viruses

128
Q

can viruses reproduce in/on food?

A

no. they can only use food as a way to transfer form one person to another

129
Q

What are parasites

A

small organisms that require a host. they can be destroyed by freezing.

130
Q

What are fungi

A

a group of organisms including molds, yeasts and mushrooms

131
Q

what are molds

A 
fungi
spoilage organisms
appear fuzzy or slimy
prefer acidic, sweet, low water foods
bread, cheese, fruits/veggies
132
Q

cook can destroy molds but not the _____ that some molds produce

A

toxins

133
Q

what are yeasts

A

fungi
spoilage organism
prefer acidic, sweet, low water foods
honey, jam, syrup

134
Q

which type of fungi is used in rising bread and making beer/wine

A

yeasts

135
Q

What is ciguatera toxin

A

a biological toxin naturally occurring in some kinds of predatory reef fish.

ingestion cause nausea, vomiting, dizziness, chills, blindness, hallucinations

may take weeks/months to recover

136
Q

what are some of the reef fish that can have ciguatera toxin

A

amberjack, barracuda, grouper, snapper

137
Q

What are some plant toxins that can cause illness

A

rhubarb leaves
jimsonweed
snakeroot (via cow milk)
rhododendron/mountain laurel (via honey)

138
Q

what can happen from eating wild mushrooms

A

foodborne intoxication

139
Q

_______ is parasite commonly associated with raw or undercooked seafood

A

anisakis simplex

140
Q

What is the biggest threat to food safety?

A

microorganisms

141
Q

What is jaundice

A

a common symptom of liver diseases such as hep a where the skin and eyes appear yellowish

142
Q

What are the 5 illnesses that a food employee must report to the person in charge

A 
norovirus
hep a
shigella
enterohemorrhagic or shiga-toxin producing e coli
salmonella typhi
143
Q

Which illness must be reported by a food employee if they have had said illness within the past 3 months

A

salmonella typhi (if they haven’t received ABs from a practitioner)

144
Q

an employee was diagnosed with salmonella typhi 2 months ago and did not receive antibiotic treatment.

do they need to be restricted or excluded from working at a food facility?

A

they can be restricted except if the food establishment services a high risk population (then they must be excluded)

145
Q

How do you restrict a food employee with an illness?

A

can’t do jobs involving exposed food, clean equipment, utensils or linen, unwrapped single used items.

146
Q

If one of the “big 5” illness are reported by a food employee what must the food establishment do?

A

report it to the health department.

maintain confidentiality of the food employee.

require a statement from a doctor prior to allowing the employee to come back to work.

147
Q

can a food employee who is living with someone infected by one of the “big 5” illness work at a food facility?

A

yes unless they are serving high risk populations

148
Q

a food employee with which illness must be excluded from serving a high risk population for 3 months

A

salmonella typhi

149
Q

a food employee with which illnesses must be exluded from serving a high risk population for at least a month

A

shigella or shiga-toxin producing e coli

150
Q

Can aids or hiv be transmitted through food?

A

no

151
Q

effective handwashing takes at least ____ seconds and the follow steps are:

A

20 seconds

wet hands with warm running water
apply soap
rub hands together for 15 seconds
rinse off soap
dry with single use paper towels or warm air dryer
turn off faucet with papertowel
152
Q

hand antiseptic

A

aka hand sanitizer.

may reduce living number of organisms but doesn’t remove soil from the hands

153
Q

what is the only jewelry allowed to be worn in a food establishment

A

plain wedding band

not even medical alert jewelry is allowed

154
Q

a food employee using gloves must remove their gloves, wash their hands and put on a new pair:

a. when the gloves become soiled or torn
b. at least every 4 hours if performing the same continuous work
c. after handling any raw meat products
d. all of the above

A

d

155
Q

What is reduced oxygen packaging

A

any food packaging that has some or all of the oxygen removed as part of the packaging process

156
Q

what is vacuum packaging

A

food packaging that has all air removed before it is sealed, so that the package contains no air until the user opens it.

157
Q

What is sous vide packaging

A

a type of vacuum packaging

158
Q

What is MAP modified atmosphere packaging

A

a packaging process where air is replaced with a combination of air and other gases such as nitrogen or carbon dioxide.

e.g. hot dogs and deli meats

159
Q

What is FIFO

A

first in first out. rotating products

160
Q

cook temp required for shell eggs for immediate service and not for immediate service

A

145 for 15 seconds (immediate service)

155 for 15 seconds (not for immediate service)

161
Q

Can you use unpasteurized eggs for hollandaise sauce?

A

no because the sauce is not heated to 145. Only use pasteurized eggs

162
Q

cook temp for poultry and stuffed meats

A

165 for 15 seconds

163
Q

cook temp for ground meats (not including ground poultry)

A

155 for 15 seconds

164
Q

cook temp for pork, fish, beef, roasts, veal, lamb etc.

A

145 for 15 seconds

except whole roasts which require 145 for 4 minutes

165
Q

required time for ground meats cooked at the following temperatures

145
150
155
158

A

145 - 3 mins
150 - 1 min
155 - 15 sec
158 - 1 second

166
Q

what are the temperatures and times to cook raw meat, poultry, fish or eggs in a microwave?

A

165 then let stand for 2 minutes covered

167
Q

left overs should be cooked to ___ for ____ seconds

A

165 for 15 seconds

168
Q

What is non-continuous cooking

A

initially and partially cooking a food
cooling it
then final cook to 165

169
Q

what are the freezing temperature and times for most raw fish

A
  • 4 at least 7 days
  • 31 at least 15 hours
  • 31 until solid then stored at -4 for 24 hours
170
Q

does freezing fish kill bacteria?

A

no only parasites. the product must still be kept cold to prevent bacterial growth

171
Q

probe thermometers are designed to be accurate within + or - ___ degrees

A

2

172
Q

metal stemmed bi metallic thermometers have a scale from ___ to ____

A

0 to 220F

173
Q

What are the four parts to probe thermometer

A 
the head (the dial)
calibrating nut (to adjust)
stem (part inserted into food)
dimple (small indentation where the temperature is actually measured)
174
Q

How to calibrate a thermometer using ice point method

A
  1. fill cup with crushed ice
  2. add cold water to a slushy consistency
  3. place stem so dimple is submerged for at least 30 seconds
  4. use pliers or a wrench to hold calibrating nut and turn the head so it reads 32F or 0
175
Q

How to calibrate a thermometer using the boiling point method

A
  1. bring container of water to a rolling boil
  2. place stem so dimple is submerged for at least 30 seconds
  3. use pliers or wrench to hold calibrating nut and turn dial to 212F or 100C
176
Q

When should you always calibrate a thermometer

A

after it has been dropped

177
Q

at higher altitudes does water boil at a higher or lower temperature?

A

at a lower temperature

178
Q

PHF can be held no longer than 4 hours out of temperature control if the following 4 conditions are met

A
  1. initial temp of 41 or 135
  2. marked with time to be discarded
  3. after the 4 hours it must be cooked to serve, served (if ready to eat) or discarded
  4. unmarked items or items past their 4 hour time must be discarded
179
Q

PHF can be held for 6 hours if the following 5 conditions

A
  1. initial temp of 41 (except whole tomatoes to be cut)
  2. food shall be monitored to ensure temp doesn’t exceed 70
  3. marked to indicate time to be discarded
  4. food shall be cooked and served or discarded when reached the 6 hours or measured over 70
  5. fun in unmarked containers is discarded
180
Q

What are the 4 methods of proper thawing

A
  1. in refrigerator protected from dripping
  2. in microwave if immediately cooked after
  3. as a part of the cooking process
  4. under cool running water (70 or less) draining away from product
181
Q

which types of seafood do the freezing requirements not apply to

A

molluscan shellfish, tuna, aquacultured fish, open water salmon

182
Q

how long do freezing records need to be maintained for seafood

A

90 days beyond the sale of the fish

183
Q

what are the date marking requirements for PHF ready to eat foods that are prepared at a food facility

A

items must be dated if held for more than 24 hours at a food establishment.

at 41 or below - 7 days
if equipment installed prior to the code that only holds 45 and below then food can be held for 4 days

day 1 is the day of preparation

184
Q

what are the date marking requirements for PHF that are from food processing plant and used at a food facility

A

must be marked if held for more than 24 hours

day 1 is the day the package is opened

packages must be used by the manufactures used by date if it has one

otherwise discarding times are based on a local procedure by dates, cays of week or color coded marks

185
Q

What is cross contamination

A

when a food item is exposed to a contaminant from another source

186
Q

What are the three types of cross contamination

A

food to food
equipment to food
people to food

187
Q

in what order should food be stored

A 
bottom to top
poultry
ground meat
fish, pork, beef
soup, precooked meat
produce
188
Q

What types of food can be returned/re-serviced

A

food that is dispensed in a way that is protected from contamination e.g. ketchup, steak sauce, wine

food that is in it’s original unopened package such as saltines, salt or pepper

189
Q

How often should temperatures be taken for items at a salad bar during cold holding

A

every two hours

190
Q

how often should temperature be taken during hot holding

A

every 2 hours

191
Q

How is the term contamination defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

a. infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms
b. presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance
c. transfer of a vector, regardless of time or nature of the host
d. contact between two or more sources of infection

A

b.

192
Q

What is the most common contributing factor to foodborne illness?

a. insect and rodent infestations
b. dirty equipment
c. incorrect labeling of containers
d. improper holding temperatures

A

d

193
Q

Why are some foods classified as potentially hazardous?

a. they have a pH below 4.6
b. they have a water activity below .85
c. they support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms
d. they require rapid and thorough cooking

A

c

194
Q

Which food doe snot require refrigeration below 41F

a. open container of garlic in oil
b. tofu
c. sliced/cut cantaloupe
d. ultra-pasteurized creamers

A

d

195
Q

What is the best means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?

a. topical use of approved hypochlorite solutions
b. exposure to UV light for 30 minutes
c. chemical preservatives
d. adequate refrigeration and cleanliness

A

d

196
Q

What is the maximum accumulated time that potentially hazardous foods can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?

a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 8 hours

A

c

197
Q

If time only is used as a public health control, the maximum prior of time recommended by the FDS for potentially hazardous food to be held is:

a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours if warmest part does not exceed 120
c. 6 hours if warmest part does not exceed 70
d. this is never permitted

A

c

198
Q

What is the minimum period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?

a. 10 sec
b. 20 sec
c. 30 sec
d. 40 sec

A

b

199
Q

Unpasteurized eggs not intended for immediate service should be cooked to:

a. 165 for 15 sec
b. 155 for 15 sec
c. 145 for 15 sec
d. 140 for 1 min

A

b

200
Q

What is the usual mode of infection for salmonella?

a. ingestion of contaminated food
b. ingestion of contaminated water
c. contact with an active case
d. contact with fomites

A

a

201
Q

What is the source of scromboid poisoning?

a. histamines in the muscle of fish
b. sprouted green potatoes
c. undercooked pork
d. rice contaminated with rodent feces

A

a

202
Q

All of the following are signs of spoiled fish except:

a. strong odor
b. elastic flesh
c. gray gills
c. sunken eyes

A

b

203
Q

Which of the following shellfish are most likely to cause illness?

a. oysters
b. crabs
c. shrimp
d. scallops

A

a

204
Q

What is the most effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people?

a. be certain that ground meat is freshly ground at the time of purchase
b. be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked
c. avoid the consumption of ground meat products
d. cook steak until well done

A

b

205
Q

What should not be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?

a. refrigerate
b. freeze
c. seal
d. label

A

b

206
Q

What is the primary requirement of designing a food service facility?

a. durability
b. cleanability
c. appearance
d. convenience

A

b

207
Q

what is the most important rule in food storage?

a. FIFO
b. store products in order of pull by date
c. repackage dry foods into metal containers
d. store canned goods under refrigeration

A

a

208
Q

Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all way except:

a. in a metal locked cabinet
b. on the lowest shelf in the storage room
c. above the dishwashing sinks
d. in the basement separate from food and other chemicals

A

c

209
Q

a HACCP plan is not required when

a. smoking foods for preservation
b. cooling and reheating phf in bulk
c. performing reduced oxygen packaging
d. using food additives or adding other components to preserve food or render it non phf

A

b

210
Q

What type of compounds are allergens?

A

proteins

211
Q

Most pathogens are:

a. mesophiles
b. thermophiles
c. psychrophile

A

a. mesophiles

grow best at normal human body temp (98)

212
Q

Bacteria that cause spoilage instead of illness are typically:

a. mesophiles
b. thermophiles
c. psychrophile

A

b. thermophiles

213
Q

Most molds are not pathogenic although some produce mycotoxins such as ____________ which is very toxic

A

aflatoxin

214
Q

What is trichinella spiralis

A

a parasite (round worm) commonly present in undercooked or raw pork.

215
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is commonly known as __________ and it a parasite

A

travelers diarhea

216
Q

________________ is a protozoan transmitted from infected food handlers or contaminated water

A

giardia lamblia

217
Q

Anisakis is a roundworm found in certain species of ________

A

fish

218
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

hazard analysis and critical control points

219
Q

HACCP was developed in the 19____s in response to _________ needed to create safe food for astronauts

A

1960s for NASA

220
Q

What are the 4 types of chemical hazard categories

A

agricultural chemicals
industrial chemicals
naturally occurring toxicants (plants e.g.)
food chemicals (additives)

221
Q

What are the 7 principles of HACCP

A
  1. conduct a hazard analysis
  2. identify critical control points
  3. establish critical limits
  4. establish a system to monitor CCP
  5. establish corrective actions to take against CCPs that are not controlled
  6. establish verification procedures to confirm HACCP is working
  7. establish documentation and records
222
Q

What is a hazard analysis

A

the process of looking at all the food and processes in order to find the potential hazards to food safety

223
Q

What is a critical limit

A

a measurement or observation that separates what is acceptable from what is not acceptable

224
Q

Who must sign the HACCP records

A

the person completing the record and the person reviewing the records.

225
Q

What is a critical control point?

A

a step in the process where control must be applied in order to prevent or eliminate a hazard, or reduce it to an acceptable level

226
Q

What procedures require a HACCP Plan (name 7)

A
  1. smoking for preservation
  2. curing
  3. additives or vinegar to preserve
  4. live molluscan tank
  5. processing animals for personal use
  6. using acidification or water activity to prevent c. botulinum
  7. reduced oxygen packaging

and any other process in which the regulatory agency has deemed it necessary to have a haccp plan

227
Q

The smallest unit that can be recognized as a particular element is known as

A

Atom

228
Q

The atomic number is a value composed of

A

The number of protons

Ca REHS Study (19 decks)

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