FOCUSED STUDY Flashcards

1
Q

Coefficient alpha

A

internal consistency reliability

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2
Q

Single-subject research design

A

dependent variable is measured multiple times

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3
Q

Raw scores are also called __ scores; when they are converted to __ they are on a normal distribution

A

scaled scores; percentages

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4
Q

Statistical regression is___ & threatens a study’s ___

A

when chosen for having extreme scores in a study, posttest scores in the study will always regress toward the mean no matter what; threatens the study’s internal validity

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5
Q

Ethics: __ is acceptable when there is no clinical contradiction

A

bartering

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6
Q

Ethics: Uninvited solicitation

A

may be ok if there is no undue influence

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7
Q

Technostructural Interventions

A

includes business process reengineering, job enrichment, & alternative work schedules

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8
Q

Business Process Reengineering

A

increasing efficiency through radical redesign of finances, communications, & other core processes

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9
Q

Fielder’s Contingency Model

A

most effective leadership depends on favorableness of situation; LPC (least preferred coworker)

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10
Q

Favorableness of the situation is based on what factors

A

degree of influence a leader has on subordinates has 3 factors 1) good/poor leader-member relations; 2) structured/unstructured task structure; 3) strong/weak position of power.

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11
Q

Vroom-Yetton-Jago Contingency Model

A

includes decision tree (old version) & decision matrices; strategies range from highly autocratic (alone decision) to highly democratic (group members decide)

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12
Q

Competency modeling is __ modeling & suggests the success for all jobs within an organization are linked to __

A

worker-oriented modeling; success for all jobs within an organization are linked to values, goals, & strategies of the organization

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13
Q

WAIS-IV General Ability Index

A

includes Verbal Comprehension & Perceptual Reasoning; minimizes working memory & processing speed influence

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14
Q

KOIS

A

includes Occupation, College Major, & Vocational Interest

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15
Q

Formative Program Eval is used to __ or __ a program & includes __

A

used to develop/improve a program (need, evaluative, structure, implimentation, process)

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16
Q

Summative Program Eval determine a program’s __ & __ met through __

A

determine program outcomes & goals met (outcome, impact, cost-benefit, secondary analysis, meta)

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17
Q

MMSE

A

score of 24 is normal functioning

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18
Q

True/False Test

A

lowest test reliability; high probability of guessing the right answer = low test reliability

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19
Q

Correction for Attenuation Formula: increase a predictor’s __ through __

A

increase a predictor’s reliability through criterion-related validity

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20
Q

SB5

A

two route subtests of object series/matrices & vocab; used to determine the appropriate entry level for other subtests

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21
Q

Sensitivity

A

(validity) test’s ability to accurately identify ppl who they are designed to identify

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22
Q

Raven’s Standard Progress Matrices

A

nonverbal intelligence in 6y/o+ (good for foreign language testing)

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23
Q

Retroactive interference

A

previous info (retro) is replaced w. recent info; the past is replaced w. the future

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24
Q

Proactive interference

A

recent info (pro) is replaced w. previous info; the future is replaced w. the past

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25
Q

OCD tx

A
  • exposure + response prevention is the first line tx
  • antidepressants have similar effects
  • combined may enhance effects
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26
Q

Agoraphobia tx

A

in vivo exposure + response prevention is the first line tx

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27
Q

Ideomotor Apraxia (location + definition)

A

left hemisphere parietal lobe; can’t turn an idea into action

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28
Q

__ & __ help teach ASD kids to speak

A

Discrimination Training & Shaping

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29
Q

Entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, & __ memories are the first to be impacted in __

A

recent memories; Alzheimer’s

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29
Q

Sundowning

A

occurs in the middle stages of Alzheimer’s; characteristic of NCD

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30
Q

Pseduodimensia

A

signs are the same as MDD; “I don’t know” responses, onset after major stressor, etc.

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31
Q

Hypothalamus electrical stimulation

A

electrical stimulation here in cats/animals results in different aggression types

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32
Q

Prefrontal cortex is linked to __

A

prospective memory

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33
Q

Frontal lobe is linked to __ symptom

A

perseveration symptom

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34
Q

Papez circuit

A

emotional expression/experience

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35
Q

high levels of cortisol is linked to loss of neurons in the __ & __ impairment

A

hippocampus & memory

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36
Q

FGA

A

higher risk for tardive dyskinesia than SGA; if having a severe reaction, replace w/ SGA.

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37
Q

SSRI vs TCA

A

SSRI higher risk for sexual dysfunction than TCAs; TCA higher risk for anticholinergic + heart SE than SSRI

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38
Q

__ helps to explain adolescent-type antisocial personality/conduct disorder

A

Maturity-gap

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39
Q

Neurological deficits helps to explain __

A

life-course-type antisocial personality/conduct disorder

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40
Q

Tic Disorders are treated by _______ dopamine levels

A

reducing dopamine levels

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41
Q

High expressed emotions

A

high relapse for both schizophrenia & MDD

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42
Q

Interoceptive exposure

A

exposure to physical sensations associated w/ panic

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43
Q

Exteroceptive exposure

A

exposure to actual situations associated w/ panic

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44
Q

Cue exposure treats __

A

treats alcohol dependency

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45
Q

Postpartum tx

A

CBT & IPT

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46
Q

OCD brain activity includes __ serotonin levels & elevated activity in the __

A

low; elevated activity in the Caudate nucleus

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47
Q

Reactive attachment

A
  • severe neglect from caregivers; persistent pattern of inhibited/withdrawn emotions/behaviors toward caregivers
  • 2+ symp
  • 9mo - 5y/o onset
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48
Q

Parietal Lobe Seizures/Stroke

A

symptoms are contralateral neglect; disturbed body image; symptoms relating to sensations (tingling, numbness)

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49
Q

Occipital Lobe Seizures

A

symptoms related to eyes; visual hallucinations, rapid eye movements

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50
Q

Frontal Lobe Seizures

A

(2nd most common) abnormal movements + posture, explosive screams/laughter, impaired speech w. intact comprehension, autonamic symptoms

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51
Q

Temporal Lobe Seizures

A

(most common) odd taste/odor, deja-vu, impaired speech & impaired comprehension, autonomic symptoms

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52
Q

Synesthesia

A

different sounds are different colors

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53
Q

Opponent-process theory

A

cells contain 3 types (red/green, blue/yellow, white/black); explains afterimages + colorblindness

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54
Q

Binocular cues

A

perception of relative closeness, retinal disparity (closer the object, greater the disparity) & convergence (tendency for eyes to turn inward as an object gets closer & vice-versa)

55
Q

Monocular cues

A

used for greater distances, relative size, interposition (overlapping), linear perspective, texture, & relative motion (motion parallax)

56
Q

GABA

A

major inhibitor, produces anxiety in some areas of the brain

57
Q

retinal disparity

A

closer the object, greater the disparity; bionocular cues

58
Q

convergence

A

tendency for eyes to turn inward as an object gets closer; binocular cues

59
Q

motion parallax

A

relative motion; monocular cues

60
Q

left hemisphere damage

A

causes depression & emotion volitility; catastrophic damage

61
Q

hypnagogic hallucination

A

right before sleep

62
Q

hypnopompic halluncination

A

right after waking

63
Q

right hemisphere damage

A

inappropriate indifference & euphoria; indifferent reaction

64
Q

bipolar tx meds

A

when Lithium doesn’t work, Anticonvulsants (valoproic acid & carbamazepine) are prescribed

65
Q

advance sleep phase

A

also known as circadian phase advance occurs in older adults in which they go to sleep & wake up earlier than conventional times

66
Q

anosognosia

A

denial of one’s own illness/disability

67
Q

asomatognosia

A

lack of recognition of one’s own body parts

68
Q

aprosodia

A

inability to express or understand emotional prosody in speech

69
Q

aphasia + location

A

inability to understand or express speech; caused by left hemisphere damage

70
Q

agnosia

A

inability to recognize things & sensations

71
Q

anomia

A

inability to recall names of familiar objects or known words

72
Q

prosopagnosia

A

inability to recognize the faces of familiar people

73
Q

primary vs secondary hypertension

A

unknown cause is primary hypertension (most common)
known cause is secondary hypertension

74
Q

acetylcholine

A

neurotransmitter receptors impacting muscle movements; involved in ASD & Alzheimer’s

75
Q

orgasmic reconditioning

A

effective treatment for paraphillic disorders; along w/ covert sensitization & aversion treatment

76
Q

pathological anxiety

A

cannot be controlled, most of the day, every day for 6mo+

77
Q

CRAFT

A

for substance use patients refusing treatment; involves working w/ their family members

78
Q

ADHD dx + comorbidities

A
  • needs to be present before 12y/o, 6mo+, & across 2+ settings (home, school, work)
  • 6+ symp. 17y/o-
  • 5+ symp 17y/o+
  • comorbid w/ Tourettes, then ODD, then anxiety & depression
79
Q

underactivity in the prefrontal cortex is also called ______ & is characteristic of

A

(hypofrontality) negative symptoms in schizophrenia

80
Q

positive symptoms in schizophrenia are due to __ in the __ brain region

A

overactivity; in the temporal-limbic region

81
Q

Somatic Symptom Disorder dx

A
  • 1+ somatic symp. & 1+ health concern
  • excessive thoughts/emotions relating to the health concern
  • Specify impairment as mild, moderate, severe
  • Specify predominant pain &/or persistent
  • 6mo+
82
Q

Illness Anxiety dx

A
  • preoccupation w/ having a serious illness
  • no somatic symptoms
  • avoidant of healthcare or excessive health-related behaviors
  • 6mo+
83
Q

alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A

2+ symptoms:
* autonomic hyperactivity
* tonic-clonic seizures
* tremors
* insomnia
* anxiety
* nausea/vomiting
* transient hallucinations

84
Q

schizophrenia comorbidity rates

A

greater the degree of genetic similarity, the greater the concordance rate
* Parent 6%
* Bio siblings 9%
* Child of 1 parent w/ dx 13%
* DZ twin 17%
* Child of 2 parents w/ dx 46%
* MZ twin 48%

85
Q

GAD med tx

A
  • SSRI/SNRI
  • if not working, then Buspirone or a Benzo
86
Q

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation dx

A

1+ verbal/behavioral outburst 3x/wk+ w/ irritable/angry mood between outbursts ~qD for most of the day.

87
Q

Persistent Depressive Disorder dx

A
  • 2+ symp. including low mood
  • 2yr+ 18y/o+
  • 1yr+ 18y/o-
88
Q

ODD dx

A
  • recurrent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, &/or vindictiveness as evidenced
  • 4+ symp toward 1+ persons other than siblings
  • 6mo+
89
Q

Conduct Disorder dx

A
  • behavior that violates the basic rights of others
  • symp. categories: Aggression to people + animals; Destruction of property; Deceitfulness/theft; Serious violation of rules
  • 3+ symp. w/i the past 12mos & 1+ symp. w/i the past 6mos
  • Specifiers based on number of conduct problems + their consequences
  • Subtypes: Childhood-onset w/ 1+ symp. prior to 10y/o; Adolescent-onset w. no symptoms prior to 10y/o; Unspecified onset when onset unknown
  • can’t be given to 18y/o+ who meets criteria for Antisocial Personality.
90
Q

Intermittent Explosive Disorder dx

A
  • verbal/physical aggression 2x/wk on average for 3mo+ w/o property damage
  • OR 3 behavioral outbursts in 12mo resulting in property damage or physical injury to others
  • 6y/o+ onset
91
Q

OCD dx

A
  • time consuming (1hr+/d)
  • Specify level of insight
92
Q

Paraphillic Disorder Duration

A

6mo+

93
Q

Gender Dysphoria Dx

A
  • 2+ symp for 6mo+ all ages
94
Q

Narcolepsy tx

A
  • sleep hygiene, behavior habits, & meds
  • SSRI/SNRI
  • Sodium oxybate for tx-resistant
95
Q

BED tx

A
  • CBT-E is most effective, adding meds doesn’t help
  • IPT second most effective
96
Q

anxiety disorder tx

A

CBT + SSRI/SNRI

97
Q

Opioid withdrawal

A

similar to a bad case of the flu

98
Q

Schizophreniform

A
  • 1+ of the 3 main symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech
  • 2+ of the 5 symptoms (disorganized movement + negative symptoms)
  • 1mo+, 6mo-
99
Q

Sea Snail Research

A

linked to neuronal changes in learning & memory through classical conditioning of Aplysia

100
Q

Midbrain

A
  • RAS
  • substantia nigra
101
Q

substantia nigra is connected to __

A

connected to the basal ganglia through the nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway

102
Q

glutamate excitoxicity is a characteristic of

A

NCDs like Alzheimer’s & Huntington’s

103
Q

apraxia & contralateral neglect location

A

right hemisphere damage

104
Q

Kluver-Bucy bilateral lesions (locations of disorder & symptoms)

A
  • amygdala, hippocampus, temporal lobe
  • visual symptoms, reduced fear, increased docility, abnormal sexual behaviors, etc.
105
Q

dopamine hypothesis

A

elevated dopamine; schizophrenia

106
Q

caudate nucleus location

A

striatum w/ the putamen

107
Q

H.M. patient

A

inability to form new declarative long-term memories

108
Q

locus coeruleus

A

“ground zero” for Alzheimer’s

109
Q

phonological dyslexia

A

most common type; also called dysphonetic, dysphonic, or auditory dyslexia

110
Q

true memory loss

A

beginning & end of event are blurred, memory loss is gradual, recall only fragments

111
Q

FOD tx

A

directed masturbation

112
Q

MDD gender/age differences

A
  • childhood: same
  • late teens: rates are 2x higher for females
113
Q

Parametric tests

A

are likely to reject the null (p less than or equal to your significance level)

114
Q

limbic system

A

amygdala, cingulate cortex, hippocampus; connected to the basal ganglia by the nucleus accumbens; memory, emotions

115
Q

PTSD brain activity

A
  • hyperactivity in the amygdala
  • hypoactivity in the ventral medial prefrontal cortex
  • smaller hippocampus
116
Q

conduction aphasia

A

damage to the arcuate fasciculus, intact comprehension, fluent meaningless speech, impaired repetition, & anomia.

117
Q

2nd amines TCAs __ the most

A

inhibit Norepinephrine the most

118
Q

MAOIs tx

A

tx resistant & atypical depression

119
Q

Memantine treats __ by regulating __

A

tx moderate-severe Alzheimer’s, NMDA antagonist, regulates glutamate

120
Q

Parkinson’s brain activity

A
  • low dopamine
  • high glutamate in the basal ganglia
  • low norepinephrine in the locus coeruleus
  • early stage depression tx Levodopa
  • deep brain stim can help w. depression
121
Q

FDG-PET

A

functional neuroimaging technique that distinguishes other NCDs (frontaltemporal) from Alzheimer’s

122
Q

Piaget’s Construction of Knowledge

A

assimilation (apply one schema to all) & accommodation (change schema to fit the situation)

123
Q

Separation Anxiety dx

A
  • starts at 6-8mo, worsens at 14mo
  • 4wk+ duration for kids/teens
  • 6mo+ adults
  • after exposure to divorce, death or relative or pet, or stressful situation
124
Q

30% of children who have dx of ___ eventually receive a dx of ___

A

ODD; Conduct Disorder

125
Q

teen males w/ Conduct Disorder (childhood or teen onset) did NOT experience an increase in __ levels when in stressful situations, but presented the same __

A

cortisol levels; affect

126
Q

GAD comorbidities

A

most common w/ MDD, followed by social anxiety, specific phobia, & PTSD in order

127
Q

kids/teens w. GAD worry more about __ while older adults worry more about __

A

catastrophic events + competence in sports/school; health & safety

128
Q

Pedophilic disorder dx age details of perp + vic

A

perp must be 16y/o+ & 5yrs older than the child vic (13y/o-).

129
Q

Specific Learning Disability specifiers

A

reading, written expression, math

130
Q

___ is the most common among psychotherapists ethical dilemmas

A

confidentiality

131
Q

higher-order conditioning vs blocking

A
  • higher-order conditioning is like “stacked” stimuli:
    light -> food (phase 1)
    tone -> light (phase 2)
  • blocking is conditioned stimulus is paired w. a second stimulus & doesn’t produce a conditioned response:
    light -> food (phase 1)
    light + tone -> food (phase 2)
132
Q

no correlation or low correlation between different variables or different measures is __

A

differential validity

133
Q

__ treats early stage depression in Parkinson’s patients

A

Levodopa

134
Q

Fairchild suggested conduct disorder youth have poorer coordination between __ & __ arousal

A

emotional & physiologic arousal

135
Q

teen males w/ childhood or adolescent onset Conduct Disorder have the same __ levels in the morning but have higher __ levels in the evening

A

cortisol; cortisol