fnp exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Prediabetes glucose and A1c levels

A

BG: 101-125 mg/dL (fasting plasma glucose) & 140-199 (oral glucose tolerance test)
HgbA1C: 5.7-6.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metabolic syndrome triglycerides, HDL, and fasting glucose levels

A

Triglycerides: >150 mg/dL
HDL: <40 mg/dL in men, <50 mg/dL in women
Fasting glucose: >100 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diabetes glucose and A1c levels

A

BG: 126 or above (fasting plasma glucose) & 200 or above (oral glucose tolerance test)
A1C: 6.5 or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What weeks of pregnancy is gestational diabetes tested for

A

between 24th and 28th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rule of 15 for hypoglycemia

A

-give 15 grams CHO (1 serving) in liquid or readily absorbed form
-re-check blood glucose 15 minutes later
*follow with a snack or meal once youve reached >70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sick Day management for diabetics

A

-8 oz fluid every hour (every 3rd electrolytes)
-monitor BG every 2-4 hours
-ketone testing every 4 hours until negative (for type 1 only)
-continue meds as usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When to contact pcp for diabetic sick symptoms

A

-more than one episode of vomiting
-more than 6 hours of diarrhea
-bg>200 on 2 measurments
-moderate to large urine ketones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What patients are acceptable to have an A1c of 8%

A

elderly, limited life expectancy, h/o hypoglycemia, extensive CVD complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how many times a day to type 1 diabetics need to check sugar (if not on continuous)

A

4 times daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Starting total insulin dose

A

0.4 to 1.0 units/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Metformin and renal failure causes? What must GFR be to start?

A

can cause lactic acidosis, GFR must be 30 or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Best dose and time to start metformin at

A

500 mg at bedtime (try XR if this still causes GI upset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GLP 1 Receptor Agonists name and action

A

TIDES!
-injectables that cause glucagon suppression and delay gastric empyting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pros and cons of glp-1 agonists

A

Pros:
-reduce a1c
-low risk of hypoglycemia
-weight loss
cons:
-expensive
-GI side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors names and action

A

FLOzin! oral meds that curb the action of proteins called “sodium-glucose cotransporter 2” that help your kidneys reabsorb glucose from the blood > causes urination of excess glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pros and cons of SGLT2 inhibitors

A

Pros:
-helps with volume in those with h/o CHF
-weight loss
-Prevents progression of CKD
-CV benefit
Cons:
-UTIs and Yeast infections
-decrease in eGFR
-euglycemic DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DPP4 inhibitors name and action

A

GLIPTIN! oral meds that works similarly to GLP1 agonists by delaying breakdown of GLP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DPP-4 pros and cons:

A

Pros:
-moderately effective in reducing A1C
-low risk hypoglycemia
-neutral weight loss
-few side effects
Cons:
-expensive
-CANNOT use w h/o medullary thyroid cancer
-reports of pancreatitis and hypersensitivity reaction including SJS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sulfonylureas names and action

A

IDES! stimulates insulin release from the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pros and cons of sulfonylureas

A

pros:
- effective and cheap
cons:
-moderate hypoglycemia risk
-possible weight gain
-No CV benefit

21
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) names and action

A

GLITAZONES! (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone) sensitize peripheral tissue to insulin and decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver

22
Q

pros and cons of TZDs (glitazones)

A

pros:
-effective in lowering A1C
-lowers risk of hypoglycemia then SUs
cons:
-weight gain
-r/o edema and HF
-several weeks to be effective
-more expensive
-bladder cancer risk!

23
Q

what 2 diabetes meds do you consider giving for patients with high risk ASCVD?

A

GLP-1s and SGLT-2s

24
Q

what diabetes med do you consider giving for patients with HF or CKD? even though given for CKD, what GFR is contraindicated with this med?

A

SGLT-2s
Cannot give if GFR < 45

25
Q

What conditions should make you avoid SGLTs?

A

frequent UTIs, yeast infections, decreased bone density, foot ulcers, increased r/o dka

26
Q

What diabetes med should you avoid using for patients with HF?

A

TZDs (glitazones)

27
Q

Along with insulin, what other diabetes medication has a hypoglycemic risk?

A

Sulfonylureas (IDES)

28
Q

Which 3 types of diabetes meds cause weight gain? which one is weight neutral?

A

-insulin, SUs, TZD
DDP4 is weight neutral

29
Q

When do you start insulin therapy? and what type of insulin is usually started first?

A

-insulin therapy is started when glycemic goal hasnt been reached from other meds, or A1C is >9.0%
-usually basal insulin is added first along with oral meds

30
Q

Dawn phenomenon

A

early morning INCREASE in BG between 2am-8am

31
Q

Somogyi effect

A

DECREASE in BG during 3am-7am (usually increases at 7am

32
Q

what time to check BG to distinguish between dawn and somogyi effect?

A

check at 3 am. if low, decrease insulin needs. if high, increase

33
Q

what is the honeymoon phase?

A

after diagnosis if type 1 DM, the first few months seem to be “better” and dont need much insulin

34
Q

what dose does insulin usually start at?

A

0.4 to 1.0 units/kg/day for type 1

35
Q

5 diagnosis from pituitary dysfunction

A

Glactorrhea, Gynecomastia, hirtisuism, hypogonadism, PCOS

36
Q

what TSH level is levothyroxine usually started? and how often is it rechecked to reach euthyroid? what is the usual dose? usual dose for elderly or cardiac pts?

A

> 10
q 4-6 weeks
75 mcg for every 100 lbs
12.5-25 mcg/day

36
Q

what is subclinical hypothyroidism? when to start treatment?

A

-normal t4 with mildly elevated tsh (>4.5)
-start treatment if patient is symptomatic and TSH is 4.5-10

37
Q

when/how to take levothyroxine?

A

early morning on an empty stomach with NO other meds

38
Q

treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

PTU, methimazole (preferred), beta blockers (for symptoms), radioactive iodine, or surgery

39
Q

what is the diagnosis if T3, T4, and TSH are all low?

A

pituitary gland abnormality

40
Q

what are the 2 types of cushings?

A

endogenous - adrenal tumor
exogenous - steroid therapy

41
Q

diagnostic tests for cushings

A

-24 hour urine free cortisol
-dexamethasone suppression test
-serum ACTH
-AM plasma cortisol test

42
Q

lab values associated with addisons

A

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia and plasma cortisol <5mg/dL at 8 am

43
Q

tests to order for galactorrhea

A

Prolactin and TSH labs
mammogram to rule out mass
MRI r/t pituitary adenoma

44
Q

tests for PCOS

A

lipid panel, endocrine labs (tsh, LH, prolactin, testosterone), US *string of pearls

45
Q

PCOS is diagnosed with a pt has 2/3 of what 3 symptoms?

A

-irregular periods
-excess androgen
-polycystic ovaries

46
Q

labs to check for hirsutism? what to rule out before starting therapy?

A

-testosterone, FSH, LH, prolactin
-rule out ovarian or adrenal tumor

47
Q

GLP-1 agonists in pediatric patients

A

Liraglutide is a XR exenatide approved for peds > 10 yo

48
Q

what test is required to make definitive diagnosis of GHD?

A

GH stimulation tests