Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

Unlike conventional aircraft, what are you commanding with the stick?

A

Roll rate in bank G load in pitch (Load factor Demand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you disconnect the autopilot with the sidestick?

A

Applying significant force to the stick will disconnect the autopilot, but using the disconnect button is better practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you deactivate a side stick?

A

Press and hold the red button for command authority. Holding for 40 seconds will completely deactivate the opposite sidestick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the actions done by the autopilot that is not represented on the rudder pedals?

A

turn coordination, rudder trim and yaw damping. All manual trim and other pilot inputs are felt through the pedals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the Flat/Slat protections?

A

Surface asymmetry between left and right wing Surface attachment failure Uncommanded surface movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is S/F-Lock?

A

The Wing Tip Brakes are stopping the flaps/slats from moving to an uncommanded position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is A-LOCK?

A

A-LOCK prevents SLAT retraction at high AoA and low speeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many spoilers are there and why are they used?

A

10 total (5 per wing), they at as speed brakes(panels 2,3,4), roll spoilers and ground spoilers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is different with the A320 when speed brakes are used while autopilot is on?

A

The A320 will only allow 1/2 deflection of speed brakes when autopilot is on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does it mean when the SPEED BRK message is amber?

A

Engine is above idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When will the speed brakes auto retract?

A

Above MCT thrust Flaps set to FULL (config 3 in A321) High AoA Flight Control Computer malfunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you arm the ground spoilers?

A

Pulling up on the speed brake lever until you see the GND SPLRS ARMED message and can see the white band around the base of the lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the ground spoilers during a rejected TO?

A

When ARMED: 72kts + IDLE = Spoilers Deployed UnARMED: 72kts + reverse thrust = Spoilers Deloyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which control surfaces move in each Flap setting?

A

1+F (1 set on ground or retracting to 1 in flight) Slats and Flaps Move position 1 1: SLATS only to position 1 2: FLAPS and SLATS position 2 3: FLAPS only to position 3 FULL: FLAPS and SLATS to FULL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After speed brakes are auto retracted due to TOGA power, how can you regain control of them?

A

Reduce power Lever to retract Wait 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When will auto spoilers engage on landing?

A

Spoilers Armed: Both Mains on Ground + Idle power Spoilers not armed: Both Mains on Ground + Reverse selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is partial spoiler deployment engaged?

A

Spoilers ARMED Reverse (at least 1 engine) One gear on ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When will spoilers auto retract on landing?

A

Thrust above idle Spoilers disarmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the Flight Control Computers?

A

7 Total 3 ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer) 2 SEC (Spoiler Elevator Computer) 2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do the ELACs control?

A

Elevator Spoilers THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do the SEC control?

A

Spoilers Backup Elevator Control Backup THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do the FAC control?

A

Rudder Speed computations Weight Calcs Windshear warnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the event of complete electrical failure, what surfaces have a mechanical backup?

A

Rudder and THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How are the Slats/Flaps controlled?

A

2 Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCC) Each SFCC has two channels which power their own hydraulic jack 4 jacks per slat/flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What will happen to the Aileron max deflection with flaps down?

A

Aileron max deflection is reduced with flaps down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During pre-flight, the Slat/Flap surfaces are not in the commanded position? What do you do?

A

DO NOT MOVE THE LEVER, contact mx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In normal law, how is sidestick control different on the ground?

A

On the ground, the flight controls act like a conventional aircraft for rotation and control surface checks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is Normal Law switching from Direct Mode to Load Factor and Roll Rate Demand mode?

A

5 seconds after TO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When will the Flap automatically retract?

A

210 kts NOTE: THE SLATS WILL NOT AUTO RETRACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are you requesting when you move the sidestick to neutral position?

A

1 G load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When does THS engage?

A

When you release the sidestick, the THS moves the Elevator to center the elevators in respect to the stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Little no back stick is required up to what bank angle?

A

33 degrees bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the pitch protections?

A

Pitch (30/-15) Maneuver High Speed (Vmo / Mmo) Angle of Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the G loading protections?

A

+2.5 / -1.0 G +2 / 0 G with Flaps or Slats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is are the Pitch (Attitude) protection limits?

A

+30 / -15 degrees Pitch Config 0-3 at low speed +25 / -15 Config FULL at low speed +20 / -15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the High Speed Protection?

A

The green “=” is the speed where protection is activated. Nose down trim inhibited Autopilot disengages Limited acceleration even with pilot full down input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the priority protection in Normal Law?

A

Angle of Attack protection. Flight Control computers will override the pilot inputs to prevent a stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Vls?

A

Minimum airspeed FDs will allow. IF autothrust is engaged, they will not allow the aircraft to reduce speed below VLS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens at Alpha Prot?

A

Nose up trim inhibited Autopilot disengaged Logic changes from Load Factor Commands to Angle of Attack Commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens at Alpha Max?

A

Computers will ignore back stick commands preventing a stall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is alpha floor available?

A

After TO Entire flight Descent Down to 100AGL in config 1 or greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Alpha Floor and when will it engage?

A

TOGA power automatically engaged when: Excessive AoA Windshear Excessive nose up attitudes combine with specific sidestick inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When encountering turbulence during a turn, will autoflight return to commanded bank angle?

A

NO, you only control roll rate not bank angle. You must counter any roll change from external factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the max roll rate in Normal Law?

A

15 degrees / second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bank Angle Hold activates to what roll limit?

A

33 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Positive Spiral Stability?

A

During bank angles 33-67, releasing the sidestick will return to 33 degrees bank. NOTE: beyond 33 degrees, you will require back pressure like a normal aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the bank angle limit?

A

67 degrees bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What computers are involved in turn coordination?

A

ELAC and FAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What flight control has a cable driven backup?

A

Rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the landing memo displayed on the E/WD panel?

A

2000 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When does FLARE MODE activate?

A

50 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens at 30 AGL?

A

slight forward pressure to simulate a conventional aircraft landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the only protection offered in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Maneuver (G loading) High Speed and Alpha are replaced by high and low speed stabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is Speed stability (ALT LAW) different than Speed Protection?

A

Speed Stability attempts to pitch up (down) during overspeed however this can be overridden by the pilot. Protection, ignores pilot inputs to prevent an overspeed or stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How are sidestick inputs different in ALT Law?

A

Pitch is the same Load Factor Demand as NORMAL Roll is now DIRECT like a conventional aircraft. Roll rate doubles to 30/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens with Rudder Limits in ALT LAW?

A

They maintain last position before failure. When Slats extend, max rudder deflection is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When would DIRECT LAW be active?

A

In ALT LAW with landing gear down. This allows for full flare mode during touchdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is special about SEC 3?

A

It can only control spoilers and can not replace pitch functions of SEC 1&2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Abnormal Attitude Law and what protections are available?

A

When in an outside normal attitude caused by external forces. Maneuver protection is all that remains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the modes of teh FC servos?

A

Active Damping Centering Only one servo can be active at a given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If both ELAC fails, how is roll now controlled?

A

Roll spoilers only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sidestick input (>70kts elevator limited)

A

In the GROUND MODE (normal law) Flight Controls movement is proportional to what?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Pitch trim stops working.

A

What is inhibited at more than 33degrees bank?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pitch = Load factor (constant G)Roll = Roll Rate

A

What is demanded by a Pitch / Roll Input on the sidestick in flight?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains 1g in pitch, and there is no need for the pilot to trim by changing speed or configuration.

A

What happens to the flight path angle of the aircraft if the sidestick is put at neutral?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Clean: +2.5g / -1gOthers: +2g / -0g

A

What are the G (Load Factor) Protection Limits?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The system begins to reduce the pitch attitude, reducing it to 2 degrees nose down over a period of 8 seconds. This means that it takes nose-up action by the pilot to flare the aircraft.

A

Descending through 30’RA on the approach, what happens to Pitch Control?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Config 0-3: 30 degrees nose up, 25 degrees at low speed.Config FULL: 25 degrees nose up, 20 degrees at low speed.Max 15 degrees nose down.

A

What are the pitch attitude limits?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  • Load factor limitations- Pitch attitude protection- High AoA protection- High speed protection
A

What are the protections available?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  • The AP disengages at Alpha Prot. +1- With A/THR will be VLS.
A

What is the Lowest Speed achievable with “Hands Off”?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  • Alpha Max, even with fully backpressure.- In the Alpha Prot. Range, from Alpha Prot. To Alpha Max, the sidestick commands Alpha directly.
A

What is the lowest speed achievable with sidestick fully back? In Alpha Prot., what does sidestick movement command?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The angle of attack returns to Alpha Prot. And stays there.

A

What happens if, at Alpha Max, the sidestick is released to Neutral?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Alpha Floor automatically sets go-around thrust (TOGA).

A

What happens to the Thrust when Alpha Floor is annunciated?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

HI SPD protection is activated at or above (+6) VMO / MMO.

A

When does HI SPD Protection activate?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When it is activated, the THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircrafts entry into this protection and 11 degrees nose-up.

A

What happens to the pitch if HI SPD protection is activated?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

High-speed protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO.

A

What speed will the aircraft return to following HI SPD protection with NO Sidestick inputs?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.

A

What happens if, in HI SPD protection, the sidestick is pushed forward?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

67 degrees

A

What is the Max Angle of Bank?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Autopilot disconnects and the FD bars + FMA disappear: the FD bars return when the bank angle decreases to less than 40 degrees.

A

What happens to the FD / FMA if more than 45 degrees bank is applied?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

33 degrees.

A

What is the Maximum Bank Angle for a Level Turn with “Hands off”?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

HI SPD: 40 degreesAlpha Protection: 45 degrees

A

What is the Maximum Bank Angle in Hi SPD Protection and Alpha Protection?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

• Normal law- Pitch: Vertical load factor- Bank: Roll rate• Alternate law- Pitch: Vertical load factor- Bank: Roll rate in ALTN1 / Direct control of ailerons in ALTN2• Direct law, direct relationship between stick and flight control surfaces• Ground law (before lift-off and after touch-down), same as Direct law• Flare law (allow conventional flare):- Pitch: Stick orders a pitch attitude increment to a reference attitude- Bank: Direct control of ailerons

A

Control laws and their characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

• Load factor protection• High speed protection• High angle-of-attack protection• Pitch attitude protection• Bank angle protection• Low energy warning

A

Protections in normal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

• Load factor protection• Bank angle protection (ALTN1 only)• Low speed stability:- VSW replaces αPROT and αMAX- If speed reduces to VSW, AP disconnect and a nose down pitch input is introduced• High speed stability:- Amber dashes replace the Green dashes on speed scale- If speed increases to VMO, AP disconnect and a nose up pitch input is introduced• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

A

Protections in alternate law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

• Load factor protection• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

A

Protections in Alternate law without stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

• Load factor limitation:+ 2.5 g, -1 g in clean configuration+ 2 g, 0 g when slats are extended• Rapid pull-up to 2.5 g is immediately possible.

A

Load factor protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

• VMO + 4 kt / MMO+ 0.006,Overspeed Ecam warning• VMO +6 kt / MMO + 0.01, Automatic pitch up applied • VMO + 16 kt / MMO +0.04,Maximum stabilized speed stick maintained nose down

A

High speed protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

• VLS: Minimum allowed speed, A/THR in speed mode will not allow speed to drop below VLS even if lower speed is selected• Vα Prot: AP disengages, Auto Pitch trim stops• Vα Floor: TOGA thrust is set automatically• Vα Max: Speed is maintained with full aft stick, speed brake retract if previously extended

A

High angle-of-attack protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

• Nose-down, 15°• Nose-up,- 30° in conf 0 to 3 reduced to 25° at low speed- 25° in conf FULL reduced to 20° at low speed

A

Pitch attitude protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

• Bank angle limited to 67°• Above 33°:- Stick released, aircraft rolls back to 33°- Stick maintained, bank angle maintained• In high speed protection:- Spiral stability is introduced regardless of angle- bank angle is limited to 40°• In high angle-of-attack protection, bank angle is limited to 45°

A

Bank angle protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

• Aural warning, “SPEED SPEED SPEED”• To stop the warning, increase Thrust

A

Low energy warning Available between 100 ft and 2000 ft RA in Conf 2, 3 and Full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

• Aural stall• Overspeed warning

A

Protections in Direct law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

No. Depends on the failures, as protections, load factor limitation is always available.

A

Are stabilities (aural, callouts, visuals etc.) always available?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pitch: only load factor limitation availableRoll: direct law

A

How do pitch & roll control compare with normal law?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

No turn coordination.

A

What happens to Turn Co-ordination?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Activates direct law except if alternate law is activated from abnormal attitude.

A

What happens when the Gear is extended?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  • No pitch attitude protection. Amber Xs replace the green double bars = on PFD.- Roll direct law.
A

What happens to pitch and roll protection?

98
Q
  • Artificial low speed stability replaces the normal Alpha Protection.- Available for all flap / slats config. Actives when 5-10kts above VSW. gentle nose-down.- VSW
A

Alpha Prot. Is lost. What replaces it? And what is the Top of the Barber Pole now showing?

99
Q

Audio stall warning (crickets + “STALL”) is activated at an appropriate margin from the stall condition.

A

What happens at VSW?

100
Q
  • Above VMO or MMO, a nose-up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. The pilot can over ride this demand.- Aural overspeed warning VMO +4 or MMO +0.006.
A

How does HI SPD stability work? Can it be overridden?

101
Q

Yes

A

Can you stall the A/C?

102
Q

No.

A

Is Alpha Floor Available?

103
Q

Direct stick-to-elevator relationship elevator deflection is proportional to stick deflection.

A

Control deflection is proportional to what?

104
Q

No protections overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.

A

Are there any protections or stabilities?

105
Q

What is indicated (amber) on the FMA’s?“Use man pitch trim”

A

What is indicated (amber) on the FMA’s?

106
Q

Deactivate the other stick and take full control.

A

What happens if a sidestick priority button is pressed and held down?

107
Q

Latching the priority condition. (Locks the priority).

A

What happens if a sidestick priority button is held down for more than 40 sec?

108
Q
  • The system adds the signals of both pilots algebraically. The total is limited to the signal that would result from the max deflection of a single sidestick.- Two green lights “sidestick priority”- “Dual input” voice message is activated.
A

What happens if both sidesticks are moved at the same time?

109
Q

Last pilot who press the button has the priority.

A

What happens if both pilots press their press their priority buttons at the same time?

110
Q

Pressing the takeover push button on either stick.

A

How is a de-activated sidestick re-activated?

111
Q

Green Capt. and F/O lights, both lights flash when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.

A

What illuminates a steady green light on the sidestick priority indicator?

112
Q
  • 2 SFCC- 1 slat channel and 1 flap channel
A

How many SFCC are there? How many channels in each?

113
Q

If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate at ½ speed.

A

What happens if both channels of an SFCC fail?

114
Q
  • Activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway, uncommanded movement of the surfaces.- On the ground, by engineer.
A

What causes a Wing Tip Brake to activate? How is it reset to normal?

115
Q

Yes

A

Do flaps and slats have separate W.T.Bs?

116
Q

When in config 1+F, the flaps retract to 0 automatically at 210kts before reaching VFE.

A

How does Automatic Flap Retraction work?

117
Q

No

A

Is there any automatic slat retraction?

118
Q

On the ground: 1+F (slats + flaps)In the air: only slats

A

What is the resulting Flap/Slat config. When Config 1 is selected?

119
Q

“A-LOCK” pulses in cyan when the slat alpha/speed lock function is activated. If alpha >8.5 degrees or airspeed <148kts, retraction from 1 to 0 (slats) is inhibited.

A

What does A-LOCK (blue) indication on the EWD?

120
Q

Increases the brake out force on the side stick controllers and the rudder pedals.

A

What is the effect on the sidestick / rudder pedals with the autopilot engaged?

121
Q

VFE next = max speed to select the next stage of flap.

A

What is VFE next? How is it represented?

122
Q

FLAP 1 1+F 2 3 FULLSPEED 230 215 200 185 177Maximum altitude to use flaps: 20,000’

A

What are the FLAP limiting speeds and maximum altitude for extension?

123
Q
  • Load Factor Limitation (+2.5/-1)- Pitch Attitude (30 degrees UP/15 degrees DN)- Bank Angle (67 degrees)- High Speed- High AOA (AOA Alpha Protection)
A

What protection do you have in Normal Law?

124
Q

If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed

A

How does the High Speed Protection operate?

125
Q

No

A

Can the pilot override this pitch-up?

126
Q

The maximum AOA allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale

A

What is Alpha Max?

127
Q

When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, pitch trim ceases and AOA is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed alpha max even with full aft sidestick deflection.

A

How does High AOA Protection operate?

128
Q
  • Load Factor Stability- High speed stability (Nose up command)- Low speed stability (Nose down command)
A

What protection do you have in Alternate Law?

129
Q

Yes

A

Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate Law?

130
Q

None

A

What protections do you have in Direct Law?

131
Q

Direct Law

A

If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll be?

132
Q

Degrades to Pitch Direct Law

A

When the landing gear is extended, what happens to Pitch Alternate Law?

133
Q
  • When in Direct Law- When below 100’
A

When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?

134
Q

By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits

A

How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law?

135
Q

Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft CAN be stalled in other laws

A

Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law?

136
Q

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

A

What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law?

137
Q

Abnormal Attitude Law

A

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in?

138
Q

No

A

Will Abnormal Law revert to Direct Law on landing gear extension?

139
Q
  • Green: for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits- Amber/Black (alpha prot) airspeed tape
A

What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?

140
Q

You are not in Normal Law

A

What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber Xs?

141
Q

Multiple failures of redundant systems

A

What would cause you to revert to another law?

142
Q

Normal Law, Ground Mode

A

What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?

143
Q

Yes, in Mechanical Backup

A

Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?

144
Q
  • PITCH: Trim Wheel (horizontal stabilizer)- YAW: Rudder Pedals (Rudder)- SPEED: Thrust Levers
A

How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?

145
Q

You are in Direct Law

A

What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM?

146
Q
  • Primary - Aileron control (roll)- Standby - Elevator/Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control (backs up ELAC 2)- Provides 5 degree aileron droop
A

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?

147
Q
  • Yaw Control (Damping & Turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)- Airspeed protection computation (Alpha Prot, High/low limits, manoeuvring speed, PFD speed scale)- Windshear protection- Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)
A

Under Normal Law, what do the FACs provide? (YAWL)

148
Q
  • Amber “X’s” at the pitch (30 degrees up/15 degrees down) and Bank (67 degrees) limits- Only Vls and Vsw is displayed on the airspeed scale
A

How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?

149
Q

Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority

A

What do flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?

150
Q
  • The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits- An aural “Dual Input” will sound- Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
A

What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks?

151
Q

Spoilers 1 to 4 act as ground spoilers. When the ground spoiler surface on one wing fails the symmetric ground spoiler surface on the other wing is inhibited.

A

Which spoilers are acting as ground spoilers?

152
Q

The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.

A

What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank in normal law?

153
Q

Two electrically controlled hydraulic servojacks drive each elevator. Each servojack has three control modes (active damping centering). In normal operation is one jack active the other jack is in the damping mode. Some maneuvers cause the second jack to become active.

A

How does the elevator actuation work?

154
Q

A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

A

The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?

155
Q

Yes there are no protections provided in direct law.

A

Can the crew make a flight control input that will overstress the airplane in direct law?

156
Q

Each wing has two flaps and five slat surfaces.

A

What are the lift devices on each wing?

157
Q

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time if either the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.

A

Is there a mechanical control for the THS available?

158
Q

20,000ft

A

Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

159
Q

Alternate law (two levels: with and without reduced protections) direct law and mechanical backup.

A

What are the levels of reconfiguration with failures in the flight control system?

160
Q

2 3 and 4.

A

The speedbrakes are actually spoilers …

161
Q

A power control unit (PCU) with two independent hydraulic motors and a differential gear box for the flaps (with green and yellow hydraulic power) and the slats (with green and blue hydraulic power).

A

Which hydraulic system drives the flaps and slats?

162
Q

2 ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computer) 3 SECs (Spoiler Elevator Computer) and 2 FACs (Flight Augmentation Computer) and in addition two Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC).

A

What kind of flight control computers exist in the A320 family?

163
Q

The maximum elevator deflection is 30° nose up and 17° nose down.

A

What is the maximum elevator deflection?

164
Q

Seven flight control computers process pilot and autopilot inputs according to normal alternate or direct flight control laws.

A

How many flight control computers are available?

165
Q

The ELAC 1 controls the ailerons in normal operation. If the ELAC 1 fails the system automatically transfers aileron control to ELAC 2.

A

Which computer controls the ailerons in normal operation?

166
Q

The rudder.

A

What control surfaces do the FADEC’s control?

167
Q

The Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) aquire data from the ELACs and SECs and send it to the electronic instrument system (EIS) and the centralized fault display system (CFDS).

A

What is the function of the Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC)?

168
Q

The slats and flaps are operating with half speed.

A

What happens if one SFCC fails?

169
Q

The maximum deflection of the ailerons is 25°. The ailerons extend 5° down when the flaps are extended (aileron droop).

A

What is the maximum aileron deflection?

170
Q

Yes, the THS and the rudder.

A

Are there any control surfaces in the mechanical backup mode?

171
Q

Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.

A

If both FAC’s fail what happens to the rudder limiter?

172
Q

5 spoilers each side.

A

How many spoilers are available?

173
Q

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time if either the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning. Mechanical control from the pitch trim wheel has priority over electrical control.

A

How does the mechanical control of the THS work?

174
Q

In normal operations the ELAC 2 controls the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer. The green and yellow hydraulic jacks drive the left and right elevator surfaces respectively.

A

Which computer controls the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer in normal operation?

175
Q

1st ELAC 1 than SEC 2.

A

What is the backup for ELAC 2?

176
Q

Load factor limitation pitch attitude protection high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection and high speed protection.

A

What kind of protections are available in normal law?

177
Q

No, rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed.

A

Is a full rudder deflection possible in all flight phases?

178
Q

No.

A

Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?

179
Q

On the ground after the first engine start sidestick position indication appear white on both PFDs. The indications disappear when the aircraft goes from ground into flight.

A

Do you have a side stick indication on the PFD on the ground and in flight?

180
Q

The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

A

What happens in the event of a single ELAC fault?

181
Q

The maximum THS deflection is 13.5° nose up and 4° nose down.

A

What is the maximum THS deflection?

182
Q

If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are in idle the ground spoilers will automatically extend and as soon as both main landing gears have touched down. If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72kts the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as the reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains in idle)

A

When does the ground spoilers extend during the rejected takeoff phase?

183
Q

Controls the rudder trim actuator, which moves the neutral point of the artificial feel by the equivalent of one degree of rudder travel per second.Note: The rudder trim rotary switch has no effect, when the autopilot is engaged.

A

RUD TRIM Rotary Switch (RUD TRIM Panel)

184
Q

By pushing the RESET pushbutton, the zero trim position is ordered at 1.5° / second.Note: The RESET pb is not active, when the autopilot is engaged.

A

RESET Pushbutton (RUD TRIM Panel)

185
Q

Red arrow light:- Comes on in front of the pilot losing authority.- Goes out when he has recovered his authority.Green CAPT and F/O lights:- Both lights flash when the pilots move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.- When a pilot has taken priority by pressing the takeover pb and the other pilot’s sidestick is not at neutral, the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up. It goes out when the other pilot returns his stick to the neutral position.

A

SIDE STICK PRIORITY LT (Glareshield) - Red arrow light - Green CAPT and F/O lights

186
Q

ON:ELAC 1(2) performs the following functions:- Normal pitch and roll- Alternate pitch- Direct pitch and roll- Abnormal attitude- Aileron droop- Acquisition of autopilot orders.OFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF, then ON, resets the computer.FAULT:With an ECAM caution:- When a failure is detected- During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds).

A

ELAC 1(2) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

187
Q

ON:SEC 1(2)(3) performs the following functions:- Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)- Speedbrakes and ground spoilers- Alternate pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)- Direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)- Direct roll- Abnormal attitude.OFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF, then on, resetsthe computer.FAULT:With an ECAM caution, when a failure is detected. The FAULT light goes off, when the pilot selects OFF.

A

SEC 1(2)(3) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

188
Q

ON:Both FACs perform the following functions:- Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)- Rudder trim- Rudder travel limit- Alternate yawOFF:The corresponding computer is not active. Switching it OFF and then ON resets the computer.FAULT:Lights up in amber, along with a caution on ECAM, when a failure is detected. The FAULT light goes out when the pilot selects OFF.

A

FAC 1(2) pb (FLT CTL Panel) - ON - OFF - FAULT Light

189
Q
  • PARTIAL: When revers thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut is compressed- FULL: At touchdown of both main gear, or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when BOTH thrust levers at IDLE (if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at IDLE (if the ground spoilers are NOT armed)
A

When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend?

190
Q

Partially. Full extension is limited until both main gear struts are compressed.

A

At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?

191
Q

The spoiler automatically retracts

A

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

192
Q
  • Electrically Controlled- Hydraulically Actuated
A

How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?

193
Q

Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch

A

When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?

194
Q

Nothing

A

What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?

195
Q

To reset the rudder trim to 0 degrees

A

What is the RUD TRIM button used for?

196
Q

The flight control computers control trim functions automatically

A

How is the THS normally operated in flight?

197
Q

Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim wheel.

A

If a complete flight control computer failure occurs, can the THS be positioned?

198
Q

Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect

A

Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?

199
Q

The trim automatically resets to zero

A

What happens to the THS after landing?

200
Q

You are in mechanical Backup

A

What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?

201
Q
  • Normal roll (Turn coordination & Yaw)- Rudder trim- Rudder travel limit- Alternate yaw
A

What are the functions of the FACs?

202
Q

ELAC 2 –> ELAC 1 –> SEC 2 –> SEC 1

A

What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?

203
Q

In flight under Normal Law with bank angle less than 33 degrees with or without the autopilot engaged

A

When is automatic pitch trim available?

204
Q
  • Primary - Elevator/Stabilizer (Pitch)- Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
A

Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?

205
Q
  • Primary - Spoiler control (roll)- Standby - Elevator/Stabilzer control (SEC 1 & SEC 2 back up the ELACs)
A

Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control?

206
Q

No

A

Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?

207
Q

No

A

Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

208
Q

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released

A

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

209
Q

No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed

A

Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?

210
Q

Yes, after slat extension.

A

If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?

211
Q

Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots

A

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?

212
Q

Flaps FULL

A

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

213
Q
  • Thrust levers at idle and speed brake lever is down- When at least one thrust is advanced above IDLE
A

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

214
Q

SAFET- SEC 1 and 3 have failed- AOA protection is active- Flaps FULL- Elevator (L or R) fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)- Thrust levers above the MCT position

A

When is speedbrake extension inhibited?

215
Q

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

A

What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?

216
Q
  • Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)- Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)- Alternate pitch (Sec 1 & 2 only)- Direct pitch (Sec 1 & 2)- Direct Roll- Abnormal attitude
A

What functions are performed by the SECs?

217
Q
  • Normal elevator and stabilizer control- Normal aileron control-Normal pitch and roll- Alternate pitch- Direct pitch and roll- Abnormal attitude- Aileron droop- Acquisition of autopilot orders
A

What are the functions of the ELAC?

218
Q

ROAM- Runaway (Move handle to 1, all go to 3)- Overspeed (Flap jack screw breaks)- Asymmetry (Both on one side move farther)- Movement (Never touch handle, ALL just move)

A

What causes the WTBs to activate?

219
Q

Yes, only flap operation is inhibited

A

If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?

220
Q

The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed

A

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

221
Q
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + Flaps- CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
A

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

222
Q

During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

A

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

223
Q

Flaps/slats in transit

A

When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what is indicated?

224
Q

The ailerons droop 5 degrees

A

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

225
Q

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing

A

What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

226
Q

To avoid nuisance warning when landing with flaps less than 3

A

When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?

227
Q

Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a landing with less than flaps 3

A

What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?

228
Q

1 Aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing

A

How is roll control normally achieved?

229
Q

Yes, when at least one engine is in reverse.

A

With spoilers NOT armed, will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?

230
Q

Elevator Aileron Computer

A

What does ELAC stand for?

231
Q

ELAC 1 –> ELAC 2

A

What is the computer and priority for Ailerons?

232
Q

Two

A

How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?

233
Q
  • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared- Display will reappear when the slats are extended
A

When is a STATUS page displayed?

234
Q

Two

A

How many ELACs are installed?

235
Q

ELAC 1 –> SEC 2 –> SEC 1

A

What backs up ELAC 2?

236
Q

Three

A

How man SECs are installed?

237
Q

Spoiler Control

A

What is teh sole purpose of SEC 3?

238
Q

Flight Augmentation Computer

A

What does FAC stand for?

239
Q

Two

A

How many FACs are installed?

240
Q

Control is transferred to the other actuator.

A

If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs?