Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between normal and direct mode?

A

Direct mode removes FCMs and there are no higher level functions available

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2
Q

Will the speedbrakes/ground spoilers function in direct mode?

A

No

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3
Q

The flight modes available on the aircraft include:

A

Normal and direct modes

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4
Q

If all systems are operating normally, what will be the flight control mode?

A

Normal Mode

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5
Q

The roll control system includes:

A

Ailerons and multifunction spoilers

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6
Q

When the elevator control system is in Direct Mode, the autopilot is unavailable (T/F).

A

True

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7
Q

The green band on the PITCH scale represents:

A

Allowable takeoff trim range

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8
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not fly-by-wire?

A

Ailerons

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9
Q

What do you lose when you go into Direct Mode?

A

All higher level functions for the associated flight control

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10
Q

What are examples of ELEVATOR higher level functions?

A

Gain on airspeed
Elevator thrust compensation
Angle of Attack limiting

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11
Q

What are examples of RUDDER higher level functions?

A

Gain on airspeed
Yaw damper
Turn coordination

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12
Q

Can a FCM override a pilot input?

A

No. However, the FCMs augment pilot inputs through higher level functions

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13
Q

How does the fly-by-wire system work?

A

The Flight Control Module (FCM) units are connected to the Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) by the Control Area Network Bus (CANB), providing digital inputs to the ACE which are combined with pilot inputs (elevator and rudder).

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14
Q

In general terms, what is direct mode?

A

The FCM is removed from the control loop. The higher level functions are removed from the flight control in question

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15
Q

There are 3 FLIGHT CONTROL MODE guarded buttons. What happens when any one button is pressed?

A

Places the associated flight control into direct mode or restores normal mode

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16
Q

Will the loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls go to direct mode?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Can the pilot select Direct Mode? How so?

A

Yes, by pressing the FLIGHT CONTROLS MODE button in

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18
Q

Will the multifunction spoilers function in Direct Mode?

A

Yes, for roll only at a default gain

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19
Q

Will the speed brakes and ground spoilers function in Direct Mode?

A

No

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20
Q

With the spoilers operating in Direct Mode, what multifunction spoiler modes are unavailable?

A

Ground spoilers and speed brakes

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21
Q

Is Angle of Attack limiting available in Direct Mode?

A

No

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22
Q

What does hydraulic system 3 power?

A

Essential flight controls- elevator, aileron, rudder

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the pitch trim switch?

A

To trim the airplane when autopilot is off

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24
Q

What is the priority for the trim system?

A

Back up, Captain, First officer, FCM (auto-trim) commands

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25
Q

The trim system is protected from runaway by:

A

3 second timer limits trim activation to no more than 3 seconds

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26
Q

What happens when you select only half of either Pitch Trim switch on the control wheel or control pedestal for more than 5 seconds?

A

The switch is automatically deactivated and the applicable advisory PITCH TRIM SW FAIL message on EICAS is displayed. If the condition persists with only half the switch pressed for more than 6 seconds, the aural warning “TRIM” is activated

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27
Q

What will happen if the backup pitch trim switch is used with the autopilot engaged?

A

The autopilot will disengage

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28
Q

How are the flight controls trimmed (roll)?

A

Ailerons are repositioned to a new neutral position

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29
Q

How are flight controls trimmed (Yaw)?

A

Rudder is trimmed to a new neutral position

30
Q

How are flight controls trimmed (Pitch)?

A

Horizontal stabilizer is trimmed to an appropriate position for the desired path

31
Q

What happens if the yaw or roll trim switches are held in position for more than 3 seconds?

A

The trim stops. The switch must now be released and then can be re-energized

32
Q

Which flight controls use electrical power instead of hydraulic power for actuation?

A

Flaps, slats, and horizontal stabilizer

33
Q

What two flap lever positions provide identical flap and slat positions?

A

4 and 5

34
Q

What is the difference between flaps 4 and 5?

A

Flaps 4 inhibits the landing gear warning on landing and flaps 5 does not inhibit the landing gear warning on landing

35
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the speedbrake lever is deployed?

A

Flaps 2 or greater
Less than 180 knots
TLA Angle above 70° (go around)

36
Q

Which takeoff flap settings are approved?

A

1, 2, and 4

37
Q

What are the normal landing flap settings?

A

5 and FULL

38
Q

What are the normal go around flap settings?

A

Flaps 5 for landing, select flaps 2

Flaps FULL for landing, select flaps 4

39
Q

How many slat panels are on each wing?

A

4

40
Q

How is roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multifunction spoilers

41
Q

Which spoilers are multifunction?

A

Outer 3 on each wing

42
Q

If the captain and first officer control columns are separated, can they be reconnected in flight?

A

No, the controls are connected by maintenance personnel on the ground

43
Q

After a disconnect, the pilot of the non jammed side retains control over which elevator?

A

The onside elevator

44
Q

What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?

A

Elevator: Artificial feel is felt at half the normal load
Ailerons: Captain will have normal feel and FO will have no feel

45
Q

What happens when the stick shaker is activated?

A

Control column authority is limited in the nose up direction

46
Q

What happens when the STALL WARNING SHAKER CUTOUT (1) or (2) button is pushed in?

A

Cuts out the associated shaker channel

47
Q

What will interrupt the electrical PBIT?

A

Any hydraulic pump running, FLIGHT CONTROLS MODE switch cycled, or the AC power source is interrupted

48
Q

How long are the PBITs?

A

Electric: 3 minutes
Hydraulic: 1 minute

49
Q

What does the GND PROX FLAP OVRD button do?

A

Inhibits flap alerts when landing with a non normal flap configuration

50
Q

What is the memory item for the PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?

A

AP TRIM DISC button…PRESS AND HOLD

PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT buttons… PUSH IN

51
Q

What is the memory item for ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY)?

A

AP TRIM DISC BUTTON…. PRESS AND HOLD

52
Q

What is the memory item for JAMMED ELEVATOR?

A

ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE….. PULL

53
Q

What is the memory item for JAMMED AILERON?

A

AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE….. PULL

54
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flap Position 1

A

230 knots

55
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flap Position 2

A

215 knots

56
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flap Position 3

A

200 knots

57
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flap Position 4

A

180 knots

58
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flap Position 5

A

180 knots

59
Q

Maximum Flap Operating Speed

Flaps FULL

A

165 knots

60
Q

What is the maximum flap operating altitude?

A

20,00 feet

61
Q

At what phase of flight is use of flaps prohibited?

A

Enroute

62
Q

Do not hold in ______ conditions with flaps extended.

A

Icing

63
Q

The use of flaps ____ during approach and landing is prohibited.

A

4

64
Q

How is pitch controlled?

A

By means of electro-hydraulic commanded elevators and electro-mechanical horizontal stabilizer

65
Q

What is the sequence for slat and flap extension and retraction?

A

Slats extend first and flaps retract first

66
Q

What moves the control surface of the horizontal stabilizer?

A

HS-ACE and horizontal stabilizer actuator

67
Q

What control surfaces utilize PCUs?

A

Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator, Spoilers

68
Q

What moves the flaps and slats?

A

SF-ACE and Power Driver Unit (PDU)

69
Q

When are spoilers deployed on the ground?

A

TLA below 26°
Groundspeed >45 knots airspeed >60
Weight on wheels on ground

70
Q

What degree do the multifunction spoilers deflect when used as speed brakes?

A

30°

71
Q

To what degree do multifunction spoilers deflect on the ground?

A

40°

72
Q

To what degree do ground spoilers deflect?

A

60°