Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

The primary flight controls consist of:

A

Ailerons

Elevators

Rudder

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2
Q

Which flight control switch is a maintenance function only?

A

SPOILER switches

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3
Q

The ailerons are powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Both ailerons are powered by both system A and system B

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4
Q

Can the ailerons be actuated with the loss of hydraulic systems A and B? Explain.

A

Yes. They will require higher forces due to friction and aerodynamic loads.
This is known as manual reversion

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5
Q

Aileron trim indication is shown where?

A

On top of the yoke

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6
Q

Why is use of the aileron trim with the autopilot engaged prohibited?

A

The autopilot overpowers the trim, prevents the indication on the yoke, and can result in an out of trim condition and autopilot disconnection

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7
Q

How many flight spoilers are on each wing? How are they powered?

A

4 per wing

System A powers two on each wing while System B powers two on each wing

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the “spoiler mixer”

A

The spoiler mixer deploys spoiler panels proportional to aileron movement. They deploy when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 deg. They deploy on the aileron up side of the aircraft and remain stowed on the aileron down side.

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9
Q

Can any spoilers be used with a loss of hydraulic system A and B?

A

No. There is no manual reversion on the ground or in flight.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the “aileron transfer mechanism”?

A

To isolate the aileron system from the flight spoilers if a jam occurs.

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11
Q

The ailerons are connected to whose control wheel, such that if a jam occurs in the spoilers, this pilot could continue to fly utilizing the aileron controls?

A

The captain

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12
Q

The spoiler system is connected to whose control wheel, such that if a jam occurs in the ailerons, this pilot could continue to fly utilizing the flight spoilers?

A

The First Officer

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13
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the elevators?

A

Both system A and B

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14
Q

With a loss of all hydraulic systems, how can the aircraft be controlled with the elevator?

A

The elevators can be mechanically controlled by the pilots control columns. This is known as manual reversion

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15
Q

What does the “Elevator Feel Computer” do?

A

The computer provides simulated aerodynamic forces to the control column by using data from the elevator pitot system and stabilizer position.

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16
Q

The elevator feel computer uses which hydraulic system for power?

A

System A or B, whichever pressure is higher

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17
Q

What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicate?

A

Either hydraulic system or elevator feel pitot system has failed, or excessive differential pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

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18
Q

The stabilizer trim is powered by what?

A

A single electric trim motor

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19
Q

How can the stabilizer trim be adjusted?

A

The stabilizer trim switch on either control wheel

Autopilot trim

Manually, by rotating the stabilizer trim wheels

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20
Q

What is the procedure to combat a control column jam?

A

Apply force against the jam in the control columns. After the breakout the control column that moves freely will provide adequate elevator control for the remainder of the flight

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the stabilizer trim cutout switch?

A

The switch deactivates stabilizer trim anytime the direction of trim is opposite of pressure on the control column

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22
Q

The rudder is powered by which hydraulic system(s)?

A

Systems A and B

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23
Q

How many PCU (power control units) power the rudder? What are the names?

A

2

The main PCU (powered by hydraulic systems A and B)

The standby PCU (powered by the standby system)

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24
Q

Above _____ kts the hydraulic system A and B pressure is reduced by approximately 25% inside the main PCU. What is the purpose of this?

A

135 kts

This limits full rudder authority in flight, while preserving full authority during takeoff and landing

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25
What happens to the rudder if either system A or B is jammed or disconnected?
The FFM (force fight monitor) automatically turns on the standby hydraulic pump and opens the standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize the standby rudder PCU
26
What flight deck indications display to show the standby rudder is in use? How can this be manually activated?
Master Caution illuminates with FLT CONT indicating STBY RUD ON light on the flight control manel illuminates Activated manually by either A or B switches placed to STBY RUD on the FLT CONTROL panel
27
How will the Rudder Trim Indicator display that it is inoperative? Can the rudder trim still be used?
There will be an OFF flag in the left side of the rudder trim window. With the rudder trim indicator inoperative, the rudder trim can still be used.
28
The yaw damper system consists of ___ yaw dampers
2 Main and standby
29
The yaw damper is capable of providing:
Roll prevention Gust damping Turn coordination
30
Which yaw damper inputs are shown on the yaw damper indicator?
Only main yaw damper inputs
31
During normal operations, the main yaw damper uses hydraulic system ___.
B
32
The YAW DAMPER switch automatically moves to the OFF position and cannot be reset if any of the following conditions occur:
Yaw damper system fault Yaw damper not responding to command B FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to OFF or STBY RUD
33
Loss of hydraulic systems A and B will result in manual reversion. During manual reversion, the crew positions the FLT CONTROL switches to STBY RUD. In this case, can the YAW DAMPER be reset to on? If so, what happens?
Yes. The standby yaw damper powers the system. A small amount of rudder movement is commanded as a function of control wheel input. The control wheel to rudder interconnect system assists with turns during flight control manual reversion.
34
The Mach Trim system automatically engages above ____ mach and adjusts the elevators with respect to the stabilizer as speed increases
Mach .615
35
What two causes will illuminate the MACH TRIM FAIL light?
Failure of the Mach Trim system If a single FCC channel has failed and the MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated
36
What happens if you reach the electric stabilizer trim limit?
The electric motors will stop, but the trim can continue to be trimmed manually
37
When is the high speed vs low speed stabilizer trim active?
High speed - Flaps extended Low speed - Flaps retracted
38
With the autopilot engaged, actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches does what?
Disengages the autopilot
39
What does the STAB TRIM guarded switch do if placed into the OVRD position?
Electric trim can be used regardless of control column position. With the system in NORM, the stabilizer trim cutout switches stop operation of the main electric and autopilot trim when the control column movement opposes trim direction.
40
The STAB TRIM cutout switches do what?
Disconnect all electronic trim inputs. Used during trim runaway or uncommanded movement of the trim
41
What happens if a takeoff is attampted with the trim outside of the green TAKEOFF range?
A horn is sounded
42
What is the purpose of the speed trim system (STS)?
To return the airplane to a trimmed speed by commanding the stabilizer in a direction opposite the speed change
43
The speed trim system (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed to improve flight characteristics during:
Low gross weight Aft CG High thrust (autopilot not engaged)
44
The speed trim system (STS) monitors what?
Stabilizer position Thrust lever position Airspeed Vertical speed
45
The speed trim system (STS) trims using which trim method?
Autopilot stabilizer trim
46
Stall control is enhanced using the speed trim system (STS) how?
As airspeed decreases towards stall speed, the speed trim system trims the stabilizer nose down
47
How will a failure of the speed trim system be shown?
The SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates on the flight control panel The SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates when the MASTER CAUTION recall is activated if a single FCC channel has failed
48
What is the maximum speed brake lever position in flight?
FLIGHT DETENT
49
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate? When is the light extinguished?
An abnormal condition or test inputs to the automatic speed brake system When the speed brake lever is in the DOWN detent
50
Do not use speed brakes at a radio altitude of less than _____ ft.
1,000 ft
51
When does the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate?
Trailing edge flaps more than flaps 10 or below 800 ft RA
52
During landing the auto speed brake system operates under what conditions?
SPEED BRAKE lever ARMED SPEED BRAKE ARMED light illuminated Thrust levers IDLE Main landing gear wheel spin up (more than 60 kts) Landing gear strut compression on touchdown Radio altitude less than 10 ft.
53
Compression of _____ landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy Compression of the _____ landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy
Compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers to deploy Compression of the right main landing gear strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy
54
If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position during landing or RTO, the speed brake system operates under the following conditions:
Main landing gear wheel spin up (more than 60 kts) Thrust levers IDLE Reverse thrust levers positioned for reverse thrust
55
After a RTO or landing, how can the spoiler panels be stowed?
Manually by moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the DOWN detent Automatically by advancing either thrust lever
56
What does the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light indicate on the ground?
SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position and the ground spoilers are NOT stowed
57
What does the speed brake "load alleviation feature" do?
Limits the deployment of speed brakes under certain high gross weight/airspeed combinations. Under these conditions if the speed brakes are deployed to the FLIGHT DETENT, they automatically retract to 50% of the FLIGHT DETENT.
58
Can the speed brakes override the load alleviation feature?
Yes, but manually by holding the speed brake lever in the commanded position (>50%)
59
The trailing edge (TE) flaps are normally operated by hydraulic system ___
B
60
TE flap positions ___ - ___ provide increased lift while TE flap positions ___ - ____ provide increased lift and drag
1-15 25-40
61
The normal flap positions for landing are:
15 30 40
62
When is flaps 15 used for landing?
Usually during a situation where approach climb performance is a factor
63
Under what two conditions should flaps NOT be extended?
Anytime above 20,000 ft. Holding in icing conditions
64
Each wing has ___ leading edge flaps and ___ leading edge slats. Where are each of them?
2 leading edge flaps inboard of the engine 4 leading edge slats outboard of the engine
65
What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light mean
Any LE device is in transit Any LE device not in programmed position with respect to the TE flaps A LE slat skew condition exists (slats 2 through 7)
66
During alternate flap extension, when is the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light activated?
Illuminates until the LE devices are fully extended and the TE flaps reach flaps 10
67
Explain the LE Flap extension schedule
Upon selection of flaps 1 or greater the LE flaps go to full extension
68
Explain the LE Slate extension schedule
Flaps 1 through 5 are to the extended position Flaps 10 or greater the LE slats go to full extension
69
Explain when and under what circumstances the Autoslat system will deploy slats
With the flaps set to 1, 2, or 5 and the slats in the Extend position, the system is active. If the aircraft approaches a stall condition, the slats will automatically deploy to the Full Extended position to prevent a stall, this is automatic and will return to the normal extended position once the pitch angle is sufficiently reduced
70
How will the crew be alerted to an Autoslat failure?
If both SMYD computers fail the crew will receive a MASTER CAUTION FLT CONT annunciation and the AUTO SLAT FAIL light on the flight control panel will illuminate. If only one SMYD channel has failed, the crew will receive the same alert when the MASTER CAUTION RECALL is pressed
71
With flaps set to 40, when will the Flap Load Relief occur? And how?
The flaps will retract to 30 deg. if the airspeed of 163 kts is exceeded. They will reextend to 40 deg. at a speed of 158 kts.
72
With flaps set to 30, when will the Flap Load Relief occur? And how?
The flaps will retract to 25 deg. if the airspeed of 176 kts is exceeded. They will reextend to 30 deg. at a speed of 171 kts.
73
When is it necessary to utilize the ALTERNATE FLAPS function?
To be used when Hydraulic System B has failed.
74
When utilizing the ALTERNATE FLAPS function, when do the LE devices deploy and in what order?
As soon as the DOWN switch is selected momentarily the LE devices deploy to the Fully Extended position. They can't be raised using the standby pump, they require a full hydraulic system.
75
What is a flap asymmetry vs a Skew condition?
Flap Asymmetry: When a flap on one wing doesn't align with the symmetrical flap on the other wing Skew condition: When a TE flap does no operate at the same rate causing the panel to twist during extension or retraction
76
What happens if a flap asymmetry or skew condition is detected?
The hydraulic extension or retraction stops automatically. The asymmetry can only be corrected on the ground
77
How is asymmetry or skew protection provided during ALTERNATE FLAP extension?
It isn't
78
How is a LE device asymmetry or skew condition displayed?
The LE FLAPSS TRANSIT light remains illuminated and the amber TRANSIT light on the LE DEVICES panel will illuminate.
79
Which LE devices have no skew detection?
Outboard slats #1 and #8 LE Flaps (All)