Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

With a complete loss of flight control signaling, the ___ must be used to move the stabilizer.
• Captain’s control wheel
• Autopilot
• Alternate pitch trim switches
• Vertical speed mode

A

• Alternate pitch trim switches

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2
Q

The flaps and slats are driven:
• Hydraulically in all modes
• Electrically in all modes
• Electrically in the PRIMARY mode only
• Hydraulically in the PRIMARY mode only

A

• Hydraulically in the PRIMARY mode only

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3
Q

With the flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode, if airspeed exceeds 225 knots with the slats fully extended, they retract to the _____ position.
• Retracted
• 5 degree
• Middle
• Slat load relief not available in secondary mode.

A

• Middle

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4
Q

On the ground, all spoiler panels extend if both reverse thrust levers are raised to the reverse idle detent.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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5
Q

Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode?
• Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.
• Envelope protection is available
• The ACEs are not available
• The PFCs are not available

A

• Autopilots and envelope protections are not available.

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6
Q

With flight controls operating in the direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are inoperative?
• Actuator control electronics (ACEs).
• Electro hydraulic servos.
• All components are operating.
• Primary flight computer (PFCs).

A

• Primary flight computer (PFCs).

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7
Q

Automatic speedbrake extension is provided for a rejected takeoff.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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8
Q

The autopilot sends signals:
• Directly to the ACEs.
• Directly to the PFCs.
• To the backdrive actuators.
• To the PCUs only.

A

• Directly to the PFCs.

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9
Q

The autopilot is available in:
• NORMAL and SECONDARY flight control modes.
• ALTERNATE flight control mode.
• Only if normal stab trim is available.
• NORMAL flight control mode only.

A

• NORMAL flight control mode only.

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10
Q

On the ground above 60kts groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by applying rudder input. This function is only available in ____.
• The NORMAL flight control mode.
• The NORMAL and SECONDARY flight control modes.
• The SECONDARY and DIRECT flight control modes
• All modes.

A

• The NORMAL flight control mode.

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11
Q

When the flaps and slats are in the PRIMARY mode, uncommanded motion will:
• Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.
• Cause the flap or slat system to transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.
• Drive the slats to the mid sealed position.
• Lock out the outboard flaps.

A

• Cause the flaps or slats to transfer to the SECONDARY mode.

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12
Q

When operating with the slats in the SECONDARY mode and positioned to the fully extended position, if the airspeed exceeds 225 knots:
A. the slats will transfer to the ALTERNATE mode.
B. LOAD RELIEF will be displayed on the EICAS.
C. The slats will retract to the middle position.
D. Both B and C.

A

D. Both B and C.

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13
Q

The primary flight control computers (PFCs) cannot override a pilot command.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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14
Q

The flaps and slats in the SECONDARY mode are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic or electric pumps.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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15
Q

How can the pilot place the aircraft into the SECONDARY flight control mode?
• Disconnect the PFCs.
• Disconnect the autopilot.
• You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.
• Just ask, it’s pure magic.

A

• You cannot, SECONDARY selection occurs automatically.

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16
Q

In the NORMAL flight control mode, yaw control attempts to maintain zero yaw rate due to engine failure when above?
• V1
• 60 kts groundspeed and aircraft on the ground
• 150 kts lAS, with a thrust differential greater than 10%
• E/0 acceleration height

A

• 60 kts groundspeed and aircraft on the ground

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17
Q

Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFCs) places the aircraft ____
• In the SECONDARY mode.
• In the ALTERNATE mode.
• In the DIRECT mode.
• Out of control.

A

• In the DIRECT mode.

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18
Q

Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in which mode(s)?
A. Secondary
B. All modes
C. Direct
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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19
Q

The three modes of the Primary Flight Control System are:
• NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT
• PRIMARY, SECONDARY, ALTERNATE
• NORMAL, SECONDARY, STANDBY
• There are only two modes of operation for the Primary Flight Control System.

A

• NORMAL, SECONDARY, DIRECT

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20
Q

With a total hydraulic failure, Pitch and Roll control is still available:
• Requires hydraulic accumulator pressure.
• cable connected trim tabs on the elevator and ailerons
• electrically using the control wheel and either primary or alternate pitch trim.
• hydraulic pressure is ALWAYS required.

A

• electrically using the control wheel and either primary or alternate pitch trim.

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21
Q

After landing, the flight control system automatically self tests:
• When the center hydraulic system is pressurized.
• During engine shutdown, before external power can be connected.
• With flaps and speedbrakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts.
• When the PFCs are disconnected.

A

• With flaps and speedbrakes retracted and groundspeed less than 30kts.

22
Q

Why is the B787 provided with an electrical flight control backup system?
A. In case of a dual engine failure.
B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.
C. In case both FMCs are lost.
D. A and C.

A

B. In case of a complete hydraulic loss.

23
Q

During takeoff, the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective at:
• approximately 60 knots.
• Engine spool up.
• 100 knots.
• HOLD indication on FMA.

A

• approximately 60 knots.

24
Q

When the autopilot is not engaged, when is manual trimming necessary?
A. For configuration changes.
B. For airspeed changes.
C. Never, the autopilot trims the aircraft.
D. A and B are correct.

A

B. For airspeed changes.

25
Q

In the NORMAL mode, pitch trim operates in the same manner on the ground as it does in flight.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

26
Q

The alternate pitch trim switches may be used with the autopilot engaged to correct for minor airspeed changes.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

27
Q

The stabilizer green band is calculated by:
A. The nose gear pressure switch.
B. FMC inputs of CG, and gross weight.
C. Air/Ground logic system.
D. All the above.

A

B. FMC inputs of CG, and gross weight.

28
Q

The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND is displayed when:
A. The nose gear pressure transducer and greenband data disagree.
B. The FMC determines the stabilizer is in takeoff low mode.
C. Either nose gear transducer fails.
D. A and C are correct.

A

D. A and C are correct.

29
Q

If BOTH the L2 and R2 stabilizer control switches are placed to CUTOUT while in the NORMAL flight control mode:
• The aircraft cannot be controlled.
• Pitch trim is not available from any source.
• Thrust must be used to control pitch.
• Pitch trim is still available through the trim switches.

A

• Pitch trim is still available through the trim switches.

30
Q

The autothrottles must be ___ to support stall protection.
• Off
• Engaged
• Armed
• Manually applied

A

• Armed

31
Q

When the pitch mode is FLCH or TO/GA the autothrottles will not automatically engage to support stall protection.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

32
Q

The ailerons are:
• Locked out during high speed flight.
• mechanically controlled by cable.
• locked out in low speed flight.
• are never locked out.

A

• Locked out during high speed flight.

33
Q

Each spoiler pair is dedicated to the same hydraulic system, therefore, symmetric operation is maintained in the event of hydraulic system failure.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

34
Q

Some of the benefits of the fly-by-wire design are:
A. Increased fuel economy.
B. Enhanced handling qualities.
C. Reduced pilot workload.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

35
Q

When is the slat auto gap function available?
A. Only in the normal mode of primary flight controls
B. Only in the primary flap mode and at flaps 1, 5, 15 and 20.
C. After receiving a signal from the landing configuration warning system.
D. All of the above.

A

B. Only in the primary flap mode and at flaps 1, 5, 15 and 20.

36
Q

Are there any limitations on the use of speed brakes?
A. Do not use the speed brakes with flaps 25 or 30.
B. Both A and D are correct.
C. No, they can be used as necessary.
D. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.

A

D. Do not use the speed brakes inflight below 1000 feet.

37
Q

The B787 has a single rudder with the lower portion having a hinged section that deflects twice as far to provide additional yaw authority.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

38
Q

The Wheel to Rudder Cross-Tie system operates in conjunction with TAP and is effective both on the ground and in the air.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

39
Q

If the flap placard speed is exceeded with flaps in the _____ position, LOAD RELIEF is displayed and the flaps automatically retract to a position appropriate for the airspeed.
A. 1 through 30
B. 15 through 30
C. 5 through 30
D. None of the above.

A

B. 15 through 30

40
Q

Which flight control surfaces are locked out during high-speed flight?
• Ailerons
• Ailerons and spoilers 5 and 10
• Ailerons and spoilers 4, 5, 10, and 11
• Spoilers 5 and 10

A

• Ailerons

41
Q

The yaw control function for thrust asymmetry:
• Is only available in the Normal flight control mode.
• Engages with a 10% thrust difference between engines, eliminating the need for rudder input by the pilot
• Is only available when airspeed exceeds 250kts.
• On ground, only functions in the event an engine failure is sensed.

A

• Is only available in the Normal flight control mode.

42
Q

Which of the following functions are available in the Secondary Mode?
A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie
B. Envelope protection
C. Auto speedbrakes
D. None of the above.

A

A. Wheel to rudder cross-tie

43
Q

What happens when a roll control wheel input causes the bank angle to exceed 35 degrees?
A. The control wheel force rolls the airplane back to level flight
B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.
C. The control wheel force will not allow the pilot to override its inputs. D. Both A and B are correct.

A

B. The PFD bank indicator turns amber.

44
Q

Automated yaw and roll control for engine failure, crosswind, or turbulence is an integral part of the flight control system.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

45
Q

Tailstrike protection can be overridden by pilot input.
A. True
B. False

A

B. True!

46
Q

Auto drag operates only when ON an electronic or FMC generated glidepath
A. True
B. False

A

B. False… it’s false because it actually works BEFORE getting on the glidepath when you’re ABOVE it.

47
Q

Wheel to rudder cross tie is not provided in the Normal flight control mode because the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

48
Q

Rudder trim is automatic in all flight phases in the Normal flight control mode, including during engine failure.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

49
Q

After landing during a single engine approach, any applied automatic or manual trim inputs are zeroed after landing.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

50
Q

The speed brakes automatically retract in the air when either throttle is advanced 90% full travel.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True