Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

For crosswinds requiring a crab angle of less than 5 degrees, runway alignment occurs at?
• 500 ft AGL
• 1500 ft RA
• 100 ft RA
• 200 ft AGL

A

• 200 ft AGL

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2
Q

Pulling the autopilot disengage bar down:
A. Disables bank angle envelope protection.
B. Generates EICAS message “No Autoland”.
C. Permits single autopilot engagement.
D. Both A and B.

A

D. Both A and B.

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3
Q

The EICAS Caution message “AUTOTHROTTLE DISC” is displayed and aural alert sounds when the autothrottle is manually disconnected, or automatically disconnected due to a system fault.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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4
Q
The Approach (APP) Switch:
A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
B. When pushed, the glideslope will capture when the intercept track is within 80 degrees of the localizer even if localizer is not captured.
C. Pressing any other roll or pitch mode below 1500 ft can disengage approach mode.
D. Both A and B
A

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.

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5
Q

Pushing the Altitude Selector inner knob during climb or descent:
A. With waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude window, deletes the next altitude constraint.
B. With no altitude constraints and the MCP altitude window set above the FMC cruise alt, will reset the FMC cruise altitude to the window value
C. With no alt constraints and MCP altitude window set below the FMC CRZ altitude, the FMC cruise altitude is changed to the altitude window value.
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

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6
Q

The Bank Limit Selector .
• In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in LNAV.
• When 5, 10, 15, 20, or 25 selected, this will be the maximum bank limit for all roll modes.
• In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in LNAV depending on TAS.
• In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.

A

• In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.

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7
Q

Pushing the Lateral Navigation (LNAV) Switch:
A. Engages LNAV if the airplane is above 50 ft RA and within 2.5 NM of the active leg
B. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on the FMA roll window.
C. Engages HDG SEL if not within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

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8
Q

During an autoland approach, the autopilot may be disengaged using:
A. either control wheel disconnect switch or pulling the MCP Autopilot
disconnect bar down.
B. appropriate force applied to the control wheel and/or control column
C. appropriate force applied to the rudder pedals (LAND 3 or LAND 2 only)
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

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9
Q

With a LAND 3 indication, the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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10
Q

The autothrottles disconnect automatically:
A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is raised to idle.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the
autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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11
Q

What does it mean when the TO/GA annunciation in the FMA roll and pitch windows are both green?
A. TO/GA is armed for autothrottle and pitch.
B. TO/GA is armed for roll and pitch.
C. TO/GA is engaged for roll and pitch.
D. None of the above.

A

C. TO/GA is engaged for roll and pitch.

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12
Q

With LOC and G/S armed, to capture the localizer, which of the following conditions must exist?
A. Aircraft heading must be within 90 degrees of localizer.
B. ILS/GLS frequency must be set.
C. Aircraft heading must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. B and C.

A

D. B and C.

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13
Q

With LNAV and VNAV armed for take-off, they can be disarmed:
A. Below 50 knots by pushing either TO/GA switch.
B. by selecting the ALT switch on the MCP.
C. Above 80 knots by pushing either TO/GA switch.
D. None of the above.

A

C. Above 80 knots by pushing either TO/GA switch.

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14
Q

What does the “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?
A. The engaged auto pilot has failed.
B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
C. The pitch mode has failed and the auto pilot is disconnected.
D. All of the above.

A

B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.

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15
Q

If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 kts on takeoff it cannot be engaged until above _____.
• 400 ft
• 1000 ft
• 50 ft
• 800 ft

A

• 400 ft

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16
Q

Overriding the autopilot with control wheel, control column inputs, or rudder pedal inputs with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated will cause the autopilot to disengage.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

During cruise with the autopilot engaged, how many autopilots actually control the aircraft?
• All operating autopilots
• Only one: left, right, or center
• Any two: left & right, left and center, or right and center.
• Only one: left or right

A

• All operating autopilots

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18
Q

If landing on runway 26 with flaps 30 and the autothrottles engaged and with the winds reported as 230/15 G 25, what should the target speed be __ ?
• Vref 30 + 10
• Vref 30 + 17
• Vref 30 + 5
• Vref 30+ 20

A

• Vref 30 + 5

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19
Q

On an ILS with LOC and G/S captured, below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only be disengaged by:
• Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off, or engaging TO/GA.
• Pressing the APP Mode selector again.
• Changing the ILS frequency on the NAV RAD page.
• Selecting HDG SEL and FLCH.

A

• Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off, or engaging TO/GA.

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20
Q

Pushing the FLCH button in flight will automatically engage the autothrottles:
• In the THR REF Mode.
• In the THR mode.
• In the TO/GA mode.
• In the HOLD mode.

A

• In the THR mode.

21
Q

When climbing or descending in V/S or FPA, the AP/FD pitch mode will change to ____ when the selected altitude is reached .
• VNAV ALT
• VNAV PATH
• ATI
• ALT

A

• ALT

22
Q

Below 1500 ft with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated:
• Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.
• Only the right autopilot controls the aircraft.
• The AIMS selects the appropriate autopilot according to flight conditions.
• Both the left and right autopilots control the aircraft.

A

• Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.

23
Q

When VNAV is armed for takeoff it engages:
• At 400 ft above runway elevation.
• At 50 ft above runway elevation.
• Only if LNAV is armed.
• When the autopilot is engaged.

A

• At 400 ft above runway elevation.

24
Q

In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

25
Q

During a Go-Around, pushing either TO/GA switch once causes the autothrottles to:
• Engage in speed (SPD) mode.
• Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.
• Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.
• Engage in hold (HOLD) mode.

A

• Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.

26
Q

Windshear recovery guidance is provided by the command bars and is: A. Engaged by selecting TO/GA on either throttle.
B. Always armed in the takeoff mode.
C. Selecting CLB/CON on the MCP.
D. Both A and B.

A

D. Both A and B.

27
Q

The minimum altitude the autopilot may be engaged at is __ with one or both engines operating.
A. 800 ft
B. 400 ft
C. 200 ft
D. None of the above

A

C. 200 ft

28
Q

During CAT Ill LAND 3 operations, the autopilot automatically disengages when the thrust reversers are stowed.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

29
Q

What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide during operation in the normal flight control mode?
A. Stall
B. Overspeed
C. Bank Angle
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

30
Q

What pitch and roll commands does the Flight Director provide during T/O?
A. V2 + 15 kts or the speed at rotation plus 15 kts whichever is greater.
B. Heading to maintain the track existing at 5 ft RA after rotation.
C. If target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds, a new target speed up to V2 + 25 kts max.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

31
Q

During climb, if CLB DIR is selected, all altitudes between the airplane altitude and the lower of the MCP or FMC cruise altitude will be deleted.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

32
Q

During autoland operations, which of the following occurs at 1500 ft AGL?
A. Self test of autoland system.
B. Only 2 autopilots electrically isolate.
C. LAND 2 or 3 annunciated on the ASA (Rollout and Flare annunciated as armed).
D. A and C.

A

D. A and C.

33
Q

A flight director mode failure, in either pitch or roll, causes the respective ____ to disappear.
A. Steering bar
B. Flight director
C. TO / GA annunciation
D. None of the above

A

A. Steering bar

34
Q

With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR REF, the thrust is set to ___ A. MCT
B. Takeoff Power
C. The selected thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.
D. None of the above

A

C. The selected thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.

35
Q

During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by ___ they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.
A. 80 kts
B. 100 kts
C. 50 kts
D. None of the above

A

C. 50 kts

36
Q

The Mode Control Panel (MCP) provides input to:
• The autopilot only.
• The autopilot and flight director only.
• The flight director only.
• The autopilot, the flight director, and the autothrottles.

A

• The autopilot, the flight director, and the autothrottles.

37
Q

What display indicates positive engagement of a mode selected on the MCP?
• The Flight Mode Annunciator.
• The light in the switch on the MCP.
• The EICAS display.
• The flight control synoptic.

A

• The Flight Mode Annunciator.

38
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb/Continuous (CLB/CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?
A. Selecting CLB/CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.
B. Selecting CLB/CON with one engine operating selects max continuous thrust.
C. Selecting CLB/CON is not necessary after an engine failure at cruise altitude if ENG OUT is executed on the VNAV CRZ page of the CDU.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

39
Q

With an EICAS advisory message NO LAND 3 displayed, which of the following is true?
• An ILS approach to CAT Ill minimums should not be attempted.
• CAT Ill operations are not affected.
• ILS minimums are not affected.
• A CAT Ill approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.

A

• A CAT Ill approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.

40
Q

Approaches flown using IAN procedures:
• require a ground based glide path transmitter.
• require that raw data be monitored.
• require either a VOR or LOC transmitter for roll guidance.
• always use FMC computed glide path for vertical path guidance.

A

• always use FMC computed glide path for vertical path guidance.

41
Q

Autoland capability is available for ILS, GLS and IAN approaches.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

42
Q

During a low visibility takeoff using HUD guidance, lateral guidance is provided using
A. ILS signals
B. GLS signals
C. LNAV guidance
D. Both A or B

A

D. Both A or B

43
Q

When using HUD guidance for takeoff, the guidance cue becomes active as the aircraft approaches the centerline and __ .
• is within 45 degrees of runway heading
• is within 90 degrees of runway heading
• is within 5 degrees of runway heading
• is within 30 degrees of runway heading

A

• is within 45 degrees of runway heading

44
Q

If the autopilot remains engaged below 100ft RA on an IAN approach, __ is displayed.
• LAND 2
• the Master Warning
• Go-Around
• NO AUTOLAND

A

• NO AUTOLAND

45
Q

To use IAN procedures, flight crews should use the ____ mode to enable the approach.
• LOC
• APP
• LNAV
• VOR

A

• APP

46
Q

On an Autopilot Go-Around, TO/GA to LNAV engages the LNAV function at a minimum altitude of
• 500 ft RA
• 1000 ft RA
• the ACCEL height entered on T/O REF pg. 2
• 200 ft RA

A

• 200 ft RA

47
Q

During a HUD Low Visibility takeoff, the roll bar on the PFD can be used for lateral guidance.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

48
Q

Maximum capture angle for LOC or FAC cannot exceed ____ degrees
• 90
• 45
• 135
• 120

A

• 120

49
Q

During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle at ____
• between 50 and 25 feet RA.
• 50 ft MSL
• Minimums
• Touchdown

A

• between 50 and 25 feet RA.