FL 1 P/S Flashcards

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1
Q

Spreading activation is a theory proposed that _____

A

relates storage of memories to the activation of a series of nodes

when you think of one concept, related concepts can pop into your head

Spreading activation suggests that, when the representation of a concept is activated in memory, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category.

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2
Q
Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way?
A.Chemically
B.Mechanically
C.Electrically
D.Synaptically
A

B) Sound wave-induced vibration of hair cells generates tension within the cell membrane that directly activate ion channels responsible for auditory signaling. This type of ion channel is a mechanically-gated channel, such that upon its activation, it generates a depolarizing current within the cell.

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3
Q

Gentrification describes the process in which relatively affluent individuals move into a neighborhood that recently consisted of residents with moderate to low income.

A

With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and often leads to a decrease in affordable housing available to lower income residents.

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4
Q

The lack of impulse control is perhaps the most difficult symptom of ADHD to modify.

A

gaming reduces the impulse

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5
Q

Members of in-groups tend to share common backgrounds and similar social group identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members.

A

Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community.

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6
Q

The results of Study 2 showed that synchronous activity made participants in the persuasion trials more likely to conform to the confederate’s suggestion to expose the other group to the “noise blast.”

A

think of the asch experiment

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7
Q

psychodynamic theory

A

personality and behavior arise from dynamic interactions between the id, superego, and ego

personality and behavior arise from dynamic interactions between the id, superego, and ego. The id drives a person to pursue immediate pleasure and to avoid pain. It is innate and completely unconscious.

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8
Q

The Trait Theory of Personality posits that personalities are composed of intrinsic traits that are stable over time.

A

The trait perspective is focused on certain traits that define your personality.

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9
Q

unconditioned/conditioned stimuli/response

A

LEARN THIS

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10
Q

ADHD impusivity

A

immediate performance feedback reduces impulse

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11
Q

A state dependency effect refers to the benefit of a match between the conditions (in particular, the subject’s mental and emotional state) under which information is encoded into memory and the conditions present when the subject attempts to retrieve that information.

A

A state dependency effect refers to the benefit of a match between the conditions (in particular, the subject’s mental and emotional state) under which information is encoded into memory and the conditions present when the subject attempts to retrieve that information.

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12
Q

Misinformation effects refer to memory errors (usually errors of commission), in which some information introduced and encoded after the target information is retrieved along with some portions of the target information. In such cases, the subject usually has trouble identifying which retrieved information had been originally encoded and which information was introduced subsequently, a situation known as source confusion.

A

Misinformation effects refer to memory errors (usually errors of commission), in which some information introduced and encoded after the target information is retrieved along with some portions of the target information. In such cases, the subject usually has trouble identifying which retrieved information had been originally encoded and which information was introduced subsequently, a situation known as source confusion.

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13
Q

Dual-coding refers to the retrieval advantage of verbal items that are imageable. These items are encoded with both a verbal code and a visual code, which benefits their retrievability.

A

Dual-coding refers to the retrieval advantage of verbal items that are imageable. These items are encoded with both a verbal code and a visual code, which benefits their retrievability.

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14
Q

Spreading activation suggests that, when the representation of a concept is activated in memory, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category.

example: Recalling objects that were not presented but are from the same category as the training objects

A

Spreading activation suggests that, when the representation of a concept is activated in memory, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category.

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15
Q

Discriminatory stimuli allow an organism to tell whether an appetitive stimulus or an aversive stimulus is forthcoming in an operant conditioning situation.

A

Discriminatory stimuli allow an organism to tell whether an appetitive stimulus or an aversive stimulus is forthcoming in an operant conditioning situation.

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16
Q

Signaling stimuli are neutral stimuli that may potentially become conditioned stimuli.

A

Signaling stimuli are neutral stimuli that may potentially become conditioned stimuli.

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17
Q

Positive punishment refers to the decrease in the frequency of a response resulting from the introduction of an aversive stimulus following that response. The patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Because the frequency of the patient’s attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks, the panic attacks have acted as positive punishers.

A

Positive punishment refers to the decrease in the frequency of a response resulting from the introduction of an aversive stimulus following that response. The patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Because the frequency of the patient’s attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks, the panic attacks have acted as positive punishers.

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18
Q

Negative punishment refers to the decrease in the frequency of a response resulting from the removal of an appetitive stimulus following that response. The patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive. In addition, they are introduced, rather than removed. Thus, the panic attacks do not match either of the criteria for negative punishers.

A

Negative punishment refers to the decrease in the frequency of a response resulting from the removal of an appetitive stimulus following that response. The patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive. In addition, they are introduced, rather than removed. Thus, the panic attacks do not match either of the criteria for negative punishers.

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19
Q

Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way?

A.Chemically
B.Mechanically
C.Electrically
D.Synaptically

A

Sound wave-induced vibration of hair cells generates tension within the cell membrane that directly activate ion channels responsible for auditory signaling. This type of ion channel is a mechanically-gated channel, such that upon its activation, it generates a depolarizing current within the cell.

20
Q

According to the actor-observer bias, observers will attribute their own bad behavior to situational factors (not feeling well), whereas observers will attribute actors’ behavior to dispositional factors (social awkwardness).

A

According to the actor-observer bias, observers will attribute their own bad behavior to situational factors (not feeling well), whereas observers will attribute actors’ behavior to dispositional factors (social awkwardness).

21
Q

The study of sensory perception usually involves either a psychophysics paradigm (involving thresholds) or a signal detection theory paradigm (involving signal-to-noise ratio and response criterion)

A

The study of sensory perception usually involves either a psychophysics paradigm (involving thresholds) or a signal detection theory paradigm (involving signal-to-noise ratio and response criterion)

22
Q

Optimal arousal theory states that optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance.

A

Optimal arousal theory states that optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance.

23
Q

People whose ethnic identity is a central part of their self-concept would be more prone to the effects of stereotype threat regarding their ethnic identity.

A

People whose ethnic identity is a central part of their self-concept would be more prone to the effects of stereotype threat regarding their ethnic identity.

24
Q

According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), an organism’s stress response always follows a similar course, regardless of the exact nature of the stressor.

A

According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), an organism’s stress response always follows a similar course, regardless of the exact nature of the stressor.

25
Q

Based on the finding (Study 2) that engaging in repetitive synchronous behaviors can increase compliance, it can be inferred that it may also increase levels of obedience.

A

Based on the finding (Study 2) that engaging in repetitive synchronous behaviors can increase compliance, it can be inferred that it may also increase levels of obedience.

26
Q

There was no manipulation of group size in either study, which would be needed to make any inference about social facilitation.

A

There was no manipulation of group size in either study, which would be needed to make any inference about social facilitation.

27
Q

Ethnography typically involves the systematic observation of people in their cultural settings. Sometimes ethnographic methods also include in-depth interviews as well, to better understand participants’ culture.

A

Ethnography typically involves the systematic observation of people in their cultural settings. Sometimes ethnographic methods also include in-depth interviews as well, to better understand participants’ culture.

28
Q

Social stratification refers to the hierarchy of social positions in a society (often according to either social class or social status). Stratification does not describe the relationship among individuals but rather the relationship among social positions in a society.

A

Social stratification refers to the hierarchy of social positions in a society (often according to either social class or social status). Stratification does not describe the relationship among individuals but rather the relationship among social positions in a society.

29
Q

Social reproduction refers to the perpetuation of inequality through social institutions. Because of the focus on institutions, social reproduction would not apply to relationships among a set of individuals.

A

Social reproduction refers to the perpetuation of inequality through social institutions. Because of the focus on institutions, social reproduction would not apply to relationships among a set of individuals.

30
Q

Social support refers to social network ties (friends, family, and other relationships) that provide an individual with various types of assistance, some of which can improve health or reduce harms. All of the response options except for this one address potential health benefits of social support. This option refers to social activities rather than social relationships (or social ties) and thus does not identify social support.

A

Social support refers to social network ties (friends, family, and other relationships) that provide an individual with various types of assistance, some of which can improve health or reduce harms. All of the response options except for this one address potential health benefits of social support. This option refers to social activities rather than social relationships (or social ties) and thus does not identify social support.

31
Q

In the Atkinson-Shiffrin multistore memory model, the initial registration of the information is briefly processed in a form of sensory memory, which is extremely brief in duration.

A

In the Atkinson-Shiffrin multistore memory model, the initial registration of the information is briefly processed in a form of sensory memory, which is extremely brief in duration.

32
Q

Episodic memory refers to long-term memory representations of events experienced by the participant.

A

Episodic memory refers to long-term memory representations of events experienced by the participant.

33
Q

Individuals often emulate the attitudes and behaviors of groups that they would like to join. Sociologists refer to these groups as reference groups, which are important for self-evaluation and identity formation. The scenario in the question suggests that the teen constructs an identity, through modifying behaviors (dressing, speaking, acting), to match that of teens from the dominant culture. In the context of the specific information provided in the question, the dominant culture is closest to a reference group for the teen.

A

Individuals often emulate the attitudes and behaviors of groups that they would like to join. Sociologists refer to these groups as reference groups, which are important for self-evaluation and identity formation. The scenario in the question suggests that the teen constructs an identity, through modifying behaviors (dressing, speaking, acting), to match that of teens from the dominant culture. In the context of the specific information provided in the question, the dominant culture is closest to a reference group for the teen.

34
Q

Semantic memory refers to memory for general world knowledge and other meaningful information, including the meanings of words and phrases.

A

Semantic memory refers to memory for general world knowledge and other meaningful information, including the meanings of words and phrases.

35
Q

Explicit memory performance refers to information retrieval as demonstrated by a direct memory task, such as a free recall, serial recall, yes-no recognition, or forced-choice recognition task.

A

Explicit memory performance refers to information retrieval as demonstrated by a direct memory task, such as a free recall, serial recall, yes-no recognition, or forced-choice recognition task.

36
Q

Procedural memory, which is a variety of implicit memory, refers to memory for performing particular actions (i.e., what many people call “muscle memory”).

A

Procedural memory, which is a variety of implicit memory, refers to memory for performing particular actions (i.e., what many people call “muscle memory”).

37
Q

Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single social role.

A

Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single social role.

38
Q

Role conflict refers to the tension that can exist between social expectations of two or more social roles that a single individual holds.

A

Role conflict refers to the tension that can exist between social expectations of two or more social roles that a single individual holds.

39
Q

Members of in-groups tend to share common backgrounds and similar social group identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members. Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community.

A

Members of in-groups tend to share common backgrounds and similar social group identities, which generally result in high levels of trust among in-group members. Racial/ethnic identity can be an important characteristic of an in-group, resting in a shared culture, language, or community.

40
Q

From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician–patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician–patient–cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social tie. As a result, the triadic group provides the advantage of added stability in group dynamics.

A

From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered less stable but more intimate. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician–patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician–patient–cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social tie. As a result, the triadic group provides the advantage of added stability in group dynamics.

41
Q

Neighborhoods that are segregated by socioeconomic status create increased social distance and different experiences, such that people from different social backgrounds can have trouble relating to one another. The correct answer succinctly explains this by referring to the closed networks and social boundaries that can exist across neighborhoods. In turn, these closed networks and social boundaries will impact physician-patient interactions when the physician and patient have different experiences from living in distinct, and often very socially separated, neighborhoods.

A

Neighborhoods that are segregated by socioeconomic status create increased social distance and different experiences, such that people from different social backgrounds can have trouble relating to one another. The correct answer succinctly explains this by referring to the closed networks and social boundaries that can exist across neighborhoods. In turn, these closed networks and social boundaries will impact physician-patient interactions when the physician and patient have different experiences from living in distinct, and often very socially separated, neighborhoods.

42
Q

Conflict theory emphasizes competition between social groups over the allocation of resources. The theory assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages.

A

Conflict theory emphasizes competition between social groups over the allocation of resources. The theory assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages.

43
Q

functionalist theory because of the assumption that hierarchies and discrimination are social phenomena with a purpose for the effective operation of the workplace.

A

functionalist theory because of the assumption that hierarchies and discrimination are social phenomena with a purpose for the effective operation of the workplace.

44
Q

Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment. Systematic observation tends to be one of the key features of ethnography.

A

Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment. Systematic observation tends to be one of the key features of ethnography.

45
Q

Class systems have status positions, but are generally not considered to be closed. Opportunities for social mobility can also vary significantly in class systems.

A

Class systems have status positions, but are generally not considered to be closed. Opportunities for social mobility can also vary significantly in class systems.

46
Q

Caste systems are generally closed stratification systems that do not provide many opportunities for social mobility. Thus, this option answers the question.

A

Caste systems are generally closed stratification systems that do not provide many opportunities for social mobility. Thus, this option answers the question.