First Aid Endo Flashcards

1
Q

dx? a young pt with family hx of medullary thyroid cancer?

A

MEN2A or 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

two contraindications for metformin?

A
  1. in the elderly more than 80

2. renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is 3’ hyperparathyroidism?

A

long standing 2’ hyperparathyrodism that leads to hyperplasia of the PTH glands and when one ore more gland becomes autonomous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who often get 3’ hyperparathyroidism?

A

dialysis pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the cause for 2’ hyperparathyroidism?

A

inc PTH due to renal insufficiency leading to dec production of 1-25 dihydroxyvitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is Addison’s dz?

A

loss of Sodium retaining/K+ and H+ secreting aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

electrolytes abnormalities in Addison?

A
  1. hyponatremia
  2. hyperkalemia
  3. nonanion gap acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the diff btw 1’ and 2’ adrenal insufficiency?

A

1’ AI is associated with inc skin pigmentation, low glucocorticoids, and low mineralocorticoids, whereas 2’ AI is only associated with low glucocorticoids and does not have skin pigmentation or hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4S of adrenal crisis management?

A

Salt (0.9% saline), Steroids (IV hydrocortisone 100 mg every 8 hrs), Support, Search for underlying illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 ways to diagnose Adrenal Insufficiency?

A
  1. 8 am plasma cortisol levels and ACTH levels –> less than 3 ug/dl is diagnostic
  2. synthetic ACTH stimulation (cosyntropin) test –> failure of cortisol to rise > 20 ug/dl following ACTH administration confirms the diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

side effects of abrupt withdrawal from steroids?

A

2’ hypoadrenalism –> unable to amount appropriate response to ACTH –> result in renal failure, hypotension, and hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is Somogyi effect?

A

reactive hyperglycemia following hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the value of A1c for DM?

A

more than 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what drug can cause Somogyi effect?

A

too much NPH insulin given at night –> hypoglycemia –> leads to reflex hyperglycemia (need to dec insulin at night to prevent this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dx? a boy with normal TSH, but with significant intellectual disability, motor spasticity, and abnormal gait. Also the child is deaf and mute

A

maternal iodine def during early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do you diagnose diabetes insipidus?

A

by water deprivation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what type of malignancy can lead to diabetes insipidus?

A

breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the work-up for diabetes insipidus?

A
  1. water deprivation test
  2. if urine is still dilute –> desmopressin is given
  3. If desmopressin leads to diluted urine –> nephrogenic urine (if not, central DI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

zollinger ellison syndrome is associated with what kind of MEN?

A

MEN1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clinical hallmarks of MEN1?

A
  1. pituitary adenoma
  2. hyperparathyroidism
  3. pancreatic tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

features of Sarcoidosis?

A
GRUELING
Granulomas
aRthritis
Uveitis
Erhythema nodosum
Lymphadenopathy in hilar
Interstitial fibrosis
Neg TB test
Gammaglobulinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the definitive test for sarcoidosis?

A

biopsy –> noncaseating granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

imaging features for asbestosis?

A

linear opacities at lung base and interstitial fibrosis, calcified pleural plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

imaging features for silicosis?

A

eggshell calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mech of hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis?

A

hypercalcemia 2’ to inc production 1, 25 (OH)2 vitamin D by macrophages within granulomas

26
Q

during pregnancy what is the level of TBG, T4, total thyroxine, and T3 resin uptake?

A

high TBG b/c of high estrogen
inc total thyroxine
normal free T4
dec T3-resin uptake

27
Q

diagnostic for central DI?

A

response to exogenous ADH –> resultant increases in urine osmolarity (50% over baseline)

28
Q

causes for central DI?

A

head trauma, malignancies that compresses pituitary, granulomatous/inflammatory process

29
Q

what are the infectious agents that can cause primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

CMV, TB especially in immunecompromised pts

30
Q

treatment for primary AI?

A

hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

31
Q

Name some clinical symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

carpel tunnel syndrome
cardiovascular manifestations: angina, signs of bradycardia, hypotension, rarely cardiomegaly with associated effusion or “myxedema heart.”

32
Q

clinical signs for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. pathologic fracture
  2. subperiosteal erosions
  3. elevated levels of both calcium and parathyroid hormone
33
Q

most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

solitary parathyroid adenoma

34
Q

what are the criteria for parathroidectomy for hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. > 1mg/dL above upper limit
  2. inc creatinine
  3. dec Bone Mineral Density
35
Q

name the 4 antibodies associated with type 1 DM?

A
  1. anti-islet cell
  2. anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
  3. anti-insulin
  4. anti-Zn transporter
36
Q

dx? postprandial hypoglycemia, abdominal bloating in pts with long standing DM?

A

gastroparesis = autonomic neuropathy

37
Q

treatment for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia?

A

medical management with spironolactone

38
Q

treatment for unilateral adrenal hyperplasia?

A

surgical resection (adrenalectomy)

39
Q

clinical symptoms of aldosterone-secreting tumor?

A
  1. elevated urine aldosterone level
  2. hypernatremia
  3. hypokalemia
40
Q

dx? a pt with DM and hyperthyroidism comes in with comatose with high fever, flushing, sweating, marked tachycardia, a fib.

A

thyroid storm

41
Q

treatment for thyroid storm?

A
  1. aggressive cooling: cooling blankets, acetaminophen
  2. IV esmolol
  3. corticosteroid
  4. anti-thyroid drugs (PTU, methimazole)
  5. high dose potassium iodide
42
Q

treatments for solitary toxic adenoma (hot nodule)?

A

radioactive iodine

43
Q

treatments for toxic adenoma that is cold nodule?

A

thyroidectomy

44
Q

clinical symptoms of addison dz?

A

weight loss, dizziness, dehydration, anorexia, weakness, and increased skin pigmentation

45
Q

when is high dose dexamethasone suppression test useful?

A

to confirm Cushing syndrome from ectopic ACTH production (small cell lung cancer)

46
Q

when is low does dexamethasone suppresstion test useful?

A

to rule out Cushing. If low dose dexa suppresses cortisol, then it is NOT Cushing.

47
Q

what are clinical signs of hypocalcemia?

A

weakness, dry skin, alopecia, circumoral numbness, paresthesia

48
Q

for diabetes, what is an indication that the pt needs to be started on another 1st line agent?

A

pts with HbA1c > 7.5 at time of diagnosis after 3 months of metformin monotherapy

49
Q

other than small cell lung cancer, what other cancer can cause Cushing?

A

hypercortisolism can be due to ectopic ACTH secretion by a bronchial tumor.

50
Q

1st and 2nd line treatment for ACTH producing tumor?

A
  1. surgical resection

2. adrenal enzyme inhibitors such as ketoconazole, metyrapone, aminoglutethimide

51
Q

lab features of Pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, elevated intact PTH level

52
Q

explain the reason of subclinical hyperthyroidism in early pregnancy

A

b/c human chorionic gonadotropin is a weak stimulator of the TSH receptor, causing excess production of thyroid hormone and subsequent decline in TSH due to neg feedback on the pituitary

53
Q

lab findings of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH)?

A

hypercalcemia, hypocalciuria, mild hypermagnesemia

54
Q

how can Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (FHH) be differentiated from primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. PTH may be elevated or normal, but not to the same degree as in pts with primary hyperparathyroidism
  2. presence of hypercalcemia in multiple family members, especially young children.
55
Q

clinical signs for adrenal insufficiency?

A
  1. hypovolemic shock –> hypotension, tachcardia, changes in mental status, dry mucous membrane
  2. nausea, vomiting, flank pain, fever
56
Q

dx? pts with elevated thyroid hormone levels in the presence of normal thyroid gland

A

Struma ovarii (ovarian tumor)

57
Q

what vitamin supplement should an infant being breast fed be given?

A

Vitamin D

58
Q

5 indications for urgent hemodialysis?

A

AEIOU

Acidosis
life threatening Electrolyte abnormalities
toxic Ingestion
fluid Overload
symptoms of Uremia
59
Q

dx? hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia (can be precipitated by illness, ischemic insult)

A

myxedema coma

60
Q

treatment for myxedema coma?

A

levothyroxine, triiodothyronine